Paediatrics

149 flashcardsby Karissa
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1
what is a sign on x-ray of duodenal atresia
double bubble sign
2
kawasaki disease blanching or non-blanching rash?
non-blanching
3
what is the name of the rule for maintenance fluids in shock in children
Holliday-Segar Formula
4
fever and vomiting ddx
5
otitis media symptoms, complications, management
caused by S. Pneumonia, H, Influenzae or M. Catarrhaxis
results in pain in the middle ear and an inflamed tympanic membrane
complications: mastoiditis, facial nerve palsy, hearing loss, meningitis, encephalitis, tympanic membrane perforation, glue ear
management: analegesia, hydration, antibiotics - Amoxicillin if bilateralecurrent/age <6 monthslue ear
6
post-stretpcoccoal glomerulonephritis investigations and management
investigations - C3 levels, ASOT, FBC, CRP/ESR, U&E, urinalysis
management - fluid and salt restriction, diuretics if oedema, antibiotics if infection persists, BP, U&E monitoring, urine output monitoring
7
first things to do in a seizure
place patient in recovery position, remove objects from mouth, give high flow oxygen and buccal midazolamectal diazepam
8
juvenile idiopathic arthritis investigations (inflammatory; pain better in the morning after morning stiffness)
presents with arthraliga, fever and a salmon-pink rash
FBC, CRP/ESR, ANA, RF, US
treatment focuses on NSAIDs, corticosteroids, physiotherapy and DMARDs e.g. methotraxate and azothiaprine, biological therapy too
9
fever in infant ddx
exclude life-threatening conditions;
sepsis, meningitis, encephalitis, UTI (very common), viral infection e.g. bronchiolitis
admit and do a septic screen; FBC, CRP/ESR, glucose, CT then LP, blood culture. U&E, CXR
10
acute myocarditis investigations and management
caused by viral illness e.g. enterovirus, cocksakie (most common), parovirus B19
ECG, echo and troponin
management: analgesia; paracetamol/NSAIDs
11
what is mesenteric adenitis
this refers to abdominal pain with no change in urinary or bowel habits and no fever following a viral infection, it is self-limiting
12
when is Apgar score assessed
at 1 and 5 minutes after birth
13
ddx of ALL
ITP, aplastic anemia, bone marrow failure e.g. due to medications e.g. chemotherapy, or illnesses e.g. CMV, parvovirus 19
14
what is Reye's syndrome
occurs when aspirin is given to <16 year olds; except in Kawasaki disease (required)
15
ITP ddx
ALL
16
what is the type of rash found in varicella and herpes
vesicular rash
17
features of Edward's syndrome
posterior ears, short jaw rocker bottom feet and overlapping digits
18
what is the treatment of SVT
valsava manouvre, adenosine, DC cardioversion
19
what can SVT lead to
WPW; delta waves
20
what is characteritstic of SVT
absence of P waves, narrow QRS complexes, tachycardia >160bpm
21
what kind of anemia does IBD cause
microcytic anemia
22
what are some measures taken in the Mx of IDA
reduce cow milk intake, take vit C, ideally with oral iron supplementation to increase absorption, increase red meat, spinach and broccoli intake
23
what is the treatment of Kawasaki disease
Aspirin and IVIg
24
what are the 5 Ts of cyanotic heart disease
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of great arteries
TAPVR
tricuspid atresia
truncus arteriosus
25
what are complications of GBS
respiratory failure
autonomic dsyfunction - HR and BP
26
what is used to confirm diagnosis of ALL
bone marrow aspiration + biopsy - >20% blasts
flow cytometry; b/t cell type
27
what are common pathogens causing acute otitis media
S. Pneumonia, M. Catarrhaxis and H. Influenzae
28
complications of otitis media
hearing loss, mastoiditis, brain abscess, facial nerve palsy, tympanic membrane perforation
29
what are some dysmorphic features of down's syndrome
asymmetrical epicanthic folds, upward slanting eyes, simian creases, protruding tongue, flat facial profile, small ears, hypotonia, sand gap deformity; large space between first and second toes, short neck
30
what is the investigation for thalassemia
Hb electrophoresis
31
investigation for ALL
bone marrow aspirationiopsy
immunotyping
32
ALL vs AML
ALL more common in children
ALL - lymhoblasts
AML - auer rods
33
physiological vs pathological jaundice
pathological - <24 hrs
physiological - >24 hrs
34
what is characteristic of neonatal respiratroy distress syndrome
deficinecy in surfactant leading to ground glass appearance on x-ray, tachynponea, nasal flaring and cyanosis
35
what is a sign of hydrocephalus
sunsetting eyes
36
breast milk has a higher risk of causing vit K deficiency than formula
true
37
unconjugated jaundice is always pathological True/False
False; physiological vs pathological
38
conjugated bilirubin is always pathological t/f
true
39
CKD presents with small kidneys on US t/f
True
40
how is nephrotic syndrome monitored
using dipsticks
41
characteristics of nephrotic syndrome
hyperlipidemia, proteinuria, oedema, hyperalbuminuria
42
newborns have higher creatinine levels t/f
True
43
what is the treatment for fluid overload
IV furosemide and dialysis if no response
44
where are cafe-au-lait spots seen
in Fanconin anemia (bone marrow atrophy) and NF1
45
which genetic abnormlaties is horseshoe kidney associated with
Turner's syndrome, trisomy 21
46
what are the two diagnostic investigations for cystic fibrosis
genetic testing - CTFR gene
sweat chloride test
47
what are the clinical feautures of trisomy 21
congeintal heart defects; AVSD
hypothyroidism
duodenal atresia/Hirschprung disease
asymmetric epicanthic folds and upward slanting eyes
protruding tongue, round face
coeliac disease
brushfield spots
simian fold
alzheimer's disease
mental retardation
lung disease
48
what tests are done on a down's syndrome child
thyroid tests and coeliac testing
49
what is the most common cause of trisomy 21
meiotic non-disjuntion
50
edward's syndrome clinical features
deletion of chromosome 18
EDWARD
cleft palate, digit overlap on flexion, wide head, rocker bottom feet, diseased heart
51
turner syndrome clinical features
45 X
hypergonadotropic hypogonadism (high GnRH, FH, LH and low oestrogen)
ovarian agenesis; amenorrhea
webbed neck
wide nipples
infertility
congenital heart defects; coarctation of the aorta
short stature
52
kleinfelter syndrome clinical features
in males; 47 XXY

tall stature
reduced facial/pubic hair
micropenis and testicular atrophy
gynecomastia - increased risk of breast and testicular cancer
reduced fertility

hypergonadotropic hpypogonadism; high FH and LH, high oestrogen and low testosterone
53
Marfan syndrome clinical features
aortic dissection/aneurysm - ACE-I to reduce high BP
tall stature
joint hyperflexibility
subluxation of lens - slit-lens
54
DiGeorge Syndrome
CATCH22

deletion of chromosome 22
thymus atrophy - immunodeficiency
mitral valve prolapse
long head and large ears
ASD
55
what is characteristic of Charcot Marie Foot
due to damage to the common peroneal nerve leading to symmetrical atrophy of anterior and lateral muscles of the leg, pes cavus, absent ankle reflexes, claw toes, foot drop and high stepping gait
56
what is Gower sign indicative of
proximal muscle weakness; Duchenne muscle dystrophy
57
what is characteristic of SVT in childhood
tachycardia >180 bpm
absent P waves
sudden onset
58
Which investigation is most helpful in diagnosing Duchenne muscular dystrophy
CK (elevated)
59
what is the cause of cerebral palsy
UMNL
60
pyloric stenosis gas abnormality
hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis
61
what is the imaging modality required for pyloric stenosis
US - hotdog sign
62
transient synovitis
refers to inflammation of the synovial memebrane of bones, associated with URTI, ddx of septic arthritis - excluded by blood culture and synovial fluid aspiration
63
red flags of back pain in children
night pain
systemic symptoms e.g. fever etc. - malignancy
bladderowel incontinence - spinal cord compression
64
scoliosis test
refers to lateral rotation of the spine and rotation of the vertebrae
Cobb's angle >10 degrees, limb lengths and x-ray
65
tests for DDH
more common in females, the left leg is more affected
Ortolani, Barlow and Galeazzi tests are all positive, asymmetrcal gluteal folds and leg length discrepancy
66
osteosarcoma
more common in males, results in the malignancy of the metaphysis of long bones
starburst sign on x-ray
67
Ewing's sarcoma
tumour in the bone marrow, more common in males
68
Scarlett fever
occurs due to S. Pyogenes leading to sand-paper like rash on the body excluding the palms and soles, lymphadenopathy, strawberry tongue and fever
Mx: co-amoxiclav
69
Rubella
cannot be treated; only prevented by vaccination
syptoms: lymphadenopathy followed by a maculopapular rash
70
fifth disease
B19 virus - lace-like rash on face
71
measles defining feature
Koplik spots
72
where is atopic dermatitis found in infants
head and extensor areas, excluding diaper area
73
blanching vs non-blanching rash
blanching - less severe, indicates increased blood flow e.g. measles, Rubella, Impetigo, Scarlet fever, 5th disease, contact dermatitis, atopic dermatitis, urticaria
non-blanching - more severe, blood leakage e.g. vasculitis e.g. Kawaski disease, meningitis, septicemia, coagulopathies e.g. DIC, leukemia, erythema nodosum
74
what is slipped femoral epiphyseal disease
more common in obese boys, presents with an externally rotated hip, hip and knee pain
75
sign of bronchiectasis on HRCT
signet ring sign (tram track)
76
investigations for cystic fibrosis (nasal polyps, pancreatic insuffiency - DM, recurrent chest infections)
sweat test (alone not diagnostic), genetic testing for the recessive CTFR gene, LFTs - steatorrhea, faecal elastase, glucose tolerance test, spirometry - lfts, sputum culture, HRCT, CXR - hyperinflation of the chest
77
asthma treatment in children
oxygen, salbutamol, ipratroprium and corticosteroids - acute exacerbation
salbutamol, LABA (tremor, hypokalemia) and corticosteroids for long-term, consider using a spacer to reduce risk of candida infection with corticosteroids (candidiasis)
78
bronchiolitis
refers to infection of the bronchioles in infants <2 years. Due to infection by RSV, this leads to copious amounts of sputum and respiratory distress + fever
treatment with high flow oxygen - CPAP and clearing of secretions. vaccination available
ddx: pneumonia, cystic fibrosis, asthma attack, bronchitis
79
croup
ddx. epiglottitis - more severe, no voice, drooling and develops in hours due to Haemophilius influenzae type B - risk of choking (mx - antibiotics)
Parainfluenza virus
oxygen and dexamethasone
characterised by fever and a barking cough
80
which is the most common cause of pneumonia in children
mycoplasma pneumonia
81
complication of pneumonia
empyema
82
anaphylaxis sign in a child
periorbital oedema, tongue swelling, urticaria, bronchospasm and wheezing
Mx: IM adrenaline, IV leads to VFib so avoided
due to food e.g. eggs, seafood and peanuts, pets etc.
83
is a vaccine available for bronchiolitis
yes - against RSV
84
what is the virus causing Bronchiolitis
RSV
85
Hodgkin's lymphoma
painless lymphadenopathy, B symptoms (fever, weight loss, night sweats), no extra-nodal involvement
Reed-Sternbnerg cells on biopsy, CD15 and 30 on immunohistochemistry
BVCD therapy
86
non-Hodgkin's lymphoma
painelss, hard lymphadenopathy with extra-nodal involvement e.g GI - worse prognosis
no Reed-Sternberg cells and CD3 - T cells and CD20 for B-cells
C-RHOP therapy
87
ALL - common in adoloscents
lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, fever, malaise, bleeding, brusing, infections
FBC; low platelets, high/low WBCs, low Hb
bone marrow aspiration - lymphoblasts
immunohistochemistry - TdT positive

CAR-T/chemotherapy
88
heredetary causes of oncological malignancies in children
Wilm's tumour - nephroblastoma - abdominal mass, pain, haematuria
Retinoblastoma - visual disturabnces, loss of red reflex - autosomal dominant
Li-Fraumeni syndrome
Neurofibromatis type I - pheochromocytoma
89
what are the common cancers in children
brain/spine - raised ICP - visual disturbances, headache, vomiting, cranial nerve damage - seizures etc.
Hodgkin's lymphoma - EBV/non-Hodgkins
ALL (before the age of 5)
retinoblastoma
Wilm's tumour
90
complications of tumours
secondary malignancy, infertility (chemotherapy espeically alkaloids), psychological effects, osteoporosis, stunted growth, cardiovascular disease e.g. heart failure
91
febrile neutropenia
this refers to the low neutrophils <500 and the presence of fever 5-10 days after a round of chemotherapy due to myelosuppression
92
treatment of febrile neutropenia
broad spectrum antibiotics - Piperacillin-Tazobactam, antifungals if the fever doesnt resolve after 5 days, and G-CSF also as prophylaxis; avoid IM injections, good oral hygiene and candida prophylaxis and good nutrition
Ix - bloodrine culture, FBC, CRP/ESR, glucose, LFTs, U&E
93
nausea and vomiting treatment
24 hrs - ondansetron (5-H2TAA), dextamethasone
18-24 hrs - dexamethasone
anxiety - CBT and anoxiolytics - benzodiazapines
94
ondansetron should be waited until patient is nauseous to start t/f and s/e
false - patient should be started on ondansetron before the patient starts to feel nauseous
s/e: dizziness, fatigue, headache
95
other chemotherapy complications
pulomonary fibrosis - Bleomycin
cardiotoxicity - doxorubicin
hair loss (alopecia)
permanent infertility - alkylating agents mainly
constipation - medicatoins e.g. chemotherapy, opioids, anxiety, dehydration
diarrhoea - give Loperamide and ensure replacement of electrolytes
renal toxicity - cisplatin and cyclophosphamide
peripheral neuropathy - vincalkaloids
96
which type of DM is more common in children
type I
97
what are the types of diabetes which can be present in children
type I diabetes - polyuria, polydypsia and weight loss; destruction of beta cells
type II diabtes - obesity leading to insulin resistance
gestational diabetes
cushing's disease
corticosteroids use
cystic fibrosis
98
signs of the complication of acute phase of type I DM
diabetic ketoacidosis; pear drop smell, vomiting, kussmaul breathing, abdominal pain, drowsiness
99
causes of type I diabetes
trisomy 21; asymmetrical eye folds and upturned eyelids, hirshprung's disease, duodenal atresia, cardiac problems - VSDs
cystic fibrosis
congenital rubella syndrome
early introduction of cow's milk
100
findings of type I diabetes
anti-islet, anti-insulin antibodies
101
investigations for type I diabetes
HbA1c, fasting glucose, random glucose
102
is long acting insulin used for type I diabtes mellitus
no
103
is insulin continued on sick days
yes since vomiting/diarrhoea can predispose to hypogylcemia while hyperglycemia can also occur
104
A 14-year-old obese boy with acanthosis nigricans and family history of diabetes presents with mild hyperglycaemia. Most likely type?
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. CFRD
D. MODY
E. Secondary diabetes
105
what is the most common congenital heart defect
VSD
106
how are congenital heart defects diagnosed
by Echo
107
what congenital heart defect is associated with Trisomy 21
VSD
108
what are the left to right shunts? do they cause cyanosis?
no cyanosis
ASD, VSD (leads to heart failure), PDA, AVSD (heart failure, associated with Down's syndrome),
109
what keeps the PDA open after birth?
prostaglandins
110
what CHD require the PDA to remain open (duct-dependent lesions)
tetralogy of fallot
transposition of great arteries
coarctation of aorta
111
what defect leads to a machinery sound
PDA
112
tetralogy of Fallot
boot shaped heart
cyanosis leads to squatting to relieve symptoms
113
coarctation of the aorta
the pressure is higher in the arms than in the legs
absent femoral pulses
114
what is seen on CXR in coarctation of the aorta
rib notching
115
what is Ebstein anomaly associated with
Lithium use resulting in tricuspid regurgitation and stenosis
116
which conditions lead to dilation
left to right shunting
117
which conditions lead to hypertrophy
obstructive lesions
118
what is Eisenmonger syndrome
this results when there is a left to right shunt causing cyanosis due to blood flow reversing resulting in hypoxia and increased pulmonary hypertension.
119
causes of CHD in neonates
down's syndrome, angelman and pateu syndrome, congenital rubella syndrome, foetal alcohol syndrome, warfarin, lithium,
120
when does the PDA close
48 hours after birth
121
breast milk is protective against type I DM t/f
True
122
define obesity
above the 98th percentile
123
breast milk increases risk of iron deficiency anemia t/f
true (pre-mature infants have a higher risk due to depleted and not fully formed stores)
124
neonates lose 10% of their body weight, normal?
yes
125
causes of failure to thrive
malabsorption (coeliac, IBD, lactose intolerance), chronic illnesses/infetion, vomiting, poor feeding e.g. premature
126
when does the Moro reflex disappear
at 4/5 months
127
which chromosomal syndrome is associated with ASD
fragile X
128
what is the best type of study
unbiased, blinded and RCT
129
signs of non-accidental injury
inconsistent history and injuries, delay in presentation, change in history
130
characteristics of ASD, when is it diagnosed
stereotypical behaviours; head banging and rocking, outbursts e.g. shouting, rigid routines and lack of creativity and imagination
2-4 years of age
131
ddx of ADHD
sleep disorders, hearing/visual impairements, conduct disorders, learning disabilities
132
trisomy 21 characteristics
associated with congenital heart defects - AVSD, VSD
hirschprung disease
type I diabetes
hypothyroidism
asymmetrical ecanthic folds and upward slanting eyes
developmental delay
133
how is trisoomy 21 diagnosed antenatally
via an anomaly scan - thickened nuchal fold
134
what are the reasons for giving vaccines
herd immunity - giving protection to people unable to take vaccine (vulnerable e.g. immunocompromised people)
prevention of illness
eradication of diseases e.g. small pox
community protection
prevention of certain cancers e.g HPV for cervical and hep B for liver carcinoma
135
types of vaccines
live attenuated vaccines - MMR
inactivated vaccines - killed virus e.g. hep A
contain part of the virus e.g. HPV
mRNA - contain messenger RNA e.g. COVID-19 vaccine
136
complications of vaccination
fever, sore injection site, rash
severe: anaphylactic reaction; give adrnealine, febrile seizures (children) and GBS (rare)
137
ctds of a vaccine
immunocompromised, egg allergy NOT a ctd, anaphylaxis, current illness, recent blood transfusion
138
when should vaccines be given

6 in 1 (Hep B, dyphteria) at 2,3,4,18 months
3 in 1 (MMR) at 8 weeks, 4-6 years and 13 months
PCV at 8 weeks and 12 months
HPV at 12 years and 12.6 years
139
viral vs bacterial meningtis; inflammatory cells
viral - lymphocytes
bacterial - neutrophils
140
differences between viral and bacterial meningitis in the lumbar puncture
bacterial - neutrophils, high protein, low glucose, high pressure, cloudy CSF
viral - lymphocytes, normal protein, normal glucose, high pressure, clear CSF
141
which genital condition leads to a bag of worm sensation
varicocoele
142
which bacterial meningitis causes rapid deterioration
N. meningitis
143
which genital condition leads to a transilluminating testicle
hydrocoele
144
what is a complication fo testicular torsion
malignancy; seminoma
145
what is hydospodias
this rfers to abnormal formation of the urethral opening; ventral or underside of penis
146
what does imperforate hymen predispose to
primary amenorrhea
147
Which condition is most commonly left-sided due to venous drainage anatomy?
varicocoele
148
what is the mneumonic for Kawasaki disease
CRASH and BURN (less than 5 years of age)
149
what does maternal SLE predispose to
complete heart block in the child
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