Microscopic Urine Examination

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1
What is the primary basis for deciding whether to perform microscopic urine examination?
Abnormalities in the physical and chemical portions of urinalysis
2
What is macroscopic screening also known as?
Chemical sieving
3
What is the recommended urine volume for sediment preparation?
12 mL
4
What is the acceptable urine volume for routine sediment preparation?
10–15 mL
5
At what relative centrifugal force (RCF) should urine be centrifuged?
400 RCF
6
How long should urine be centrifuged during sediment preparation?
5 minutes
7
After centrifugation, how much urine should remain in the tube after decanting?
0.5–1.0 mL
8
How much urine sediment is transferred to the glass slide?
20 µL or 0.02 mL
9
What is the recommended coverslip size for urine sediment examination?
22 × 22 mm
10
What are the microscopic examination settings for urine sediment?
10 LPE and 10 HPE under reduced light
11
What should be done if less than 12 mL of urine is available for microscopy?
Centrifuge 3 mL of urine
12
What should be done if less than 3 mL of urine is available?
Examine the sediment without centrifugation
13
What is the formula for calculating RCF?
RCF = 105 × radius in centimeters × RPM²
14
Under which objective should urine slides first be examined?
Low-power objective (LPO)
15
What urine element should be detected first under LPO?
Casts
16
Which objective is used for further identification of casts?
High-power objective (HPO)
17
What is the Addis count?
A quantitative measure of formed elements in urine using a hemacytometer
18
What type of urine specimen is used for the Addis count?
12-hour urine specimen
19
What preservative is used for the Addis count?
Formalin
20
What is the normal RBC count in a 12-hour urine specimen?
0–500,000
21
What is the normal WBC count in a 12-hour urine specimen?
0–1,800,000
22
What is the normal epithelial cell (EC) count in a 12-hour urine specimen?
0–1,800,000
23
What is the normal hyaline cast count in a 12-hour urine specimen?
0–5,000
24
Where is the first lens system of the microscope located?
In the objective lens, adjusted near the specimen
25
Where is the second lens system of the microscope located?
In the eyepiece or ocular lens
26
What is resolution in microscopy?
The ability to distinguish two small objects that are a specific distance apart
27
What does parfocal mean?
Microscopes require minimal adjustment when switching between objectives
28
What is the function of a camel-hair brush?
To remove dust from the optical surfaces of the microscope
29
What is lens paper used for?
Cleaning the optical surfaces of the microscope
30
What is commercial lens cleaner used for?
Cleaning contaminated lenses
31
How should immersion oil be removed from a microscope lens?
Use dry lens paper first, followed by lens paper moistened with lens cleaner
32
Why is xylene not recommended for removing immersion oil from microscope lenses?
Because of its toxic fumes
33
What is the function of the diopter rings?
Adjust for focusing differences between the eyes
34
What is the function of the rubber eyeguard?
Adjusts for comfort
35
What is the function of the eyepiece tube clamp screw?
Loosened to rotate the microscope head
36
What is the purpose of a reverse-facing nosepiece?
Provides ease in specimen manipulation
37
What is the function of the revolving nosepiece?
Rotates the objective lenses
38
What is the function of the objective lenses?
Form the primary magnification or initial image of the specimen
39
What is the function of the field diaphragm?
Restricts the area of illumination
40
What is the function of the field diaphragm control ring?
Adjusts the size of the field diaphragm opening
41
What is the function of the coarse focus knob?
Brings the slide into view
42
What is the function of the fine focus knob?
Sharpens the image
43
What is the function of the lamp socket?
Holds the light source
44
What does the interpupillary distance scale indicate?
The distance between the eyes
45
What is the function of the eyepieces?
Rotate to adjust for interpupillary distance and magnify the image formed by the objective lens by 10×
46
What is the function of the slide holder?
Holds the slide in place
47
What is the function of the X/Y travel knobs?
Move the slide on the stage
48
What is the function of the condenser focus knob?
Focuses light onto the slide
49
What is the function of the stage?
Holds the specimen
50
What is the function of the stage clamp screw?
Loosened to remove the stage
51
What is the function of the condenser control ring?
Adjusts the size of the condenser opening
52
What is the function of the condenser?
Acts as an aperture diaphragm that controls light
53
What is the function of the condenser centering screws?
Center the field of view
54
What is the function of the brightness control dial?
Turns the microscope on or off and adjusts light intensity
55
What is bright-field (BF) microscopy primarily used for?
Routine urinalysis
56
What is the purpose of phase-contrast (PC) microscopy?
Enhances visualization of translucent elements with low refractive indices, such as casts
57
How can bright-field microscopy be converted into phase-contrast microscopy?
Replace the objective lens and condenser with a PC objective lens and PC condenser
58
What does polarizing microscopy detect?
The presence or absence of birefringence
59
What is birefringence?
The ability of an element to refract light in two dimensions at 90° to each other
60
What is polarizing microscopy used to identify in urine?
Cholesterol in oval fat bodies, fatty casts, and crystals
61
How can bright-field microscopy be converted into polarizing microscopy?
Add two filters: one below the condenser and one between the objective and ocular lenses
62
What is dark-field (DF) microscopy used to identify?
Treponema pallidum
63
How can bright-field microscopy be converted into dark-field microscopy?
Replace the condenser with a DF condenser containing an opaque disk
64
What is fluorescence microscopy used for?
Visualization of fluorescent substances and microorganisms
65
What is the purpose of interference-contrast microscopy?
Provides 3-D microscopy images and layer-by-layer imaging of a specimen
66
Can bright-field microscopes be adapted for interference-contrast microscopy?
Yes
67
What are the two types of interference-contrast microscopy?
Nomarski (Differential Interference Contrast) and Hoffman (Modulation Contrast)
68
What are the components, commercial forms, functions, and uses of Sternheimer-Malbin (SM) stain?
Crystal violet + Safranin O; Available as KOVA and Sedi stain; Delineates structures and provides contrasting colors to the nucleus and cytoplasm; Identifies WBCs, epithelial cells, and casts; Most commonly used urine sediment stain.
69
What type of stain is toluidine blue, and what are its functions?
Supravital stain; Enhances nuclear detail; Differentiates WBCs from renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells.
70
What are the functions of 2% acetic acid in urine sediment examination?
Lyses RBCs; Enhances WBC nuclei; Distinguishes RBCs from WBCs, yeast, oil droplets, and crystals.
71
What are the lipid stains, and what do they identify?
Oil Red O and Sudan III; Stain triglycerides and neutral fats orange-red; Identify free fat droplets, lipid-containing cells, and casts; Cannot stain cholesterol.
72
What are the functions of Gram stain in urine sediment examination?
Differentiates Gram-positive from Gram-negative bacteria; Identifies bacterial casts.
73
What are the components and functions of Hansel stain?
Eosin Y + Methylene blue; Stains eosinophilic granules; Identifies urinary eosinophils.
74
What is the function of Prussian blue stain (Rous test)?
Stains iron-containing structures; Identifies hemosiderin granules.
75
What do phenathridine and carbocyanine stains identify?
Phenathridine (orange) stains DNA; Carbocyanine (green) stains nuclear membranes, mitochondria, and cell membranes.
76
Which urine cell analyzer uses these sediment stains according to the notes?
Sysmex UF-100 Urine Cell Analyzer.
77
What is hematuria, and what is the normal RBC value in urine?
Presence of RBCs in urine; 0–2 or 0–3/HPF.
78
What is the normal morphology of urinary RBCs?
Smooth, non-nucleated, biconcave disks.
79
How do RBCs appear in hypertonic versus hypotonic urine?
Hypertonic: Crenated or shrunken; Hypotonic: Swollen and hemolyzed, forming ghost cells.
80
What is the appearance of RBCs in glomerular membrane damage?
Dysmorphic RBCs with projections and fragmentation.
81
What are the common sources of error in RBC identification, and how can they be distinguished?
Yeasts, oil droplets, air bubbles, and monohydrate calcium oxalate crystals; Add 2% acetic acid, which lyses RBCs but not these other structures.
82
What are pyuria and leukocyturia, and what is the normal WBC value in urine?
Increased WBCs in urine; Normal value: 0–5 or 0–8/HPF.
83
How do WBCs compare with RBCs in size, and what does an increased WBC count indicate?
WBCs are larger than RBCs; Increased numbers indicate infection or inflammation.
84
What are the characteristics of urinary neutrophils?
Most predominant WBC; Granulated and multilobed.
85
What are glitter cells, and how do they form?
Neutrophils that swell in hypotonic urine; Their granules undergo Brownian movement, producing a sparkling appearance.
86
What happens to dying neutrophils, and what are these structures called?
They form blebs and finger-like projections called myelin forms.
87
What is the normal urinary eosinophil value, and when is it considered significant?
Normal: 1%; Significant: More than 1%.
88
What condition is associated with increased urinary eosinophils?
Drug-induced interstitial nephritis.
89
What are the types of urinary mononuclear cells, and how are they normally present?
Lymphocytes, monocytes, macrophages, and histiocytes; Normally present in small numbers.
90
What do increased urinary lymphocytes, monocytes, and histiocytes indicate?
Increased lymphocytes: Renal transplant rejection; Increased monocytes and histiocytes: Chronic inflammation and radiation therapy.
91
What are the colors of glitter cells and leukocytes using Sternheimer-Malbin stain?
Glitter cells: Pale blue; Leukocytes: Pale pink.
92
What are the two epithelial cell types discussed in the notes?
Squamous epithelial cells (SEC) and transitional epithelial cells (TEC).
93
What are the characteristics and approximate size of squamous epithelial cells?
Largest urinary epithelial cells; Abundant, irregular cytoplasm with a prominent nucleus; 30–50 µm or 5–7 times the size of an RBC.
94
How does the nucleus of a squamous epithelial cell compare in size with an RBC?
Approximately the same size.
95
Where do squamous epithelial cells originate, and in which patients are they more commonly found?
Vaginal lining, female urethra, and lower male urethra; More commonly found in female patients.
96
What are clue cells, and what condition are they associated with?
Squamous epithelial cells covered with Gardnerella vaginalis; Associated with bacterial vaginosis.
97
What are the characteristics and approximate size of transitional epithelial cells?
20–30 µm or 4–6 times the size of an RBC; Spherical, polyhedral, or caudate; Centrally located nucleus.
98
What are the alternative names and origins of transitional epithelial cells?
Urothelial or bladder cells; Originate from the renal pelvis, calyces, ureter, urinary bladder, and upper male urethra.
99
When do transitional epithelial cells increase, and how may they appear?
Following catheterization; May appear singly, in pairs, or in clumps called syncytia.
100
What may abnormal morphology of transitional epithelial cells indicate?
Malignancy or viral infection.
101
What are the clinical significance, origin, and size of renal tubular epithelial (RTE) cells?
Most clinically significant urinary epithelial cells; Origin: Nephron; Size: 3–5 times larger than RBCs.
102
What are the morphological characteristics of RTE cells?
Rectangular, polyhedral, cuboidal, or columnar; Eccentric nucleus; May be bilirubin-stained or hemosiderin-laden.
103
Which RTE cells may be mistaken for WBCs?
RTE cells from the distal convoluted tubule (DCT).
104
What is the significance of finding more than 2 RTE cells/HPF?
Indicates tubular injury.
105
What are the two variations of RTE cells?
Oval fat bodies and bubble cells.
106
What are oval fat bodies, and what condition are they associated with?
Lipid-containing RTE cells (may also be monocytes/macrophages); Seen in lipiduria, such as nephrotic syndrome.
107
How are oval fat bodies identified?
Lipid stains identify triglycerides and neutral fats; Polarizing microscopy identifies cholesterol through Maltese cross formation.
108
What is a bubble cell, and how does it form?
An RTE cell with non-lipid vacuoles; Forms when the endoplasmic reticulum dilates in injured cells before cell death.
109
What condition is associated with bubble cells?
Acute tubular necrosis (ATN).
110
What indicates a true urinary tract infection (UTI), and what does bacteria without WBCs suggest?
True UTI: Bacteria + WBCs; Bacteria alone: Contamination or an old specimen.
111
What are the most common bacterial causes of UTI?
Enterobacteriaceae (especially E. coli); Staphylococcus; Enterococcus.
112
What is the most common cause of UTI?
Escherichia coli (E. coli), an Enterobacteriaceae member.
113
How can bacteria be differentiated from amorphous urates and phosphates?
By observing motility.
114
What indicates a true urinary yeast infection, and what does yeast without WBCs suggest?
True infection: Yeast + WBCs; Yeast alone: Contamination.
115
What are the microscopic characteristics of urinary yeasts?
Small, refractile, oval structures that may or may not bud; Branched mycelial forms may occur in severe infections.
116
What yeast is associated with diabetes mellitus and vaginal moniliasis?
Candida albicans.
117
What is the most frequently encountered parasite in urine, and what are its characteristics?
Trichomonas vaginalis; Pear-shaped flagellate with jerky motility.
118
What disease is associated with Trichomonas vaginalis?
Ping-Pong disease.
119
How is Trichomonas vaginalis reported in urine microscopy?
Rare, few, moderate, or many per HPF.
120
What cells may non-motile Trichomonas vaginalis resemble?
WBCs, transitional epithelial cells (TECs), or renal tubular epithelial cells (RTEs).
121
What is the most common fecal contaminant found in urine?
Enterobius vermicularis egg.
122
What are the characteristics and clinical significance of Schistosoma haematobium eggs?
Blood fluke egg with a terminal spine; Causes hematuria; Associated with bladder cancer.
123
What are other parasites that may be encountered in urine?
Trichuris, Strongyloides, Giardia, and various amoebae.
124
What insects or bugs may be found as contaminants in urine?
Lice, fleas, bedbugs, mites, and ticks.
125
What are the specific urinary bladder cancer markers?
NMP (Nuclear Matrix Protein) and BTA (Bladder Tumor Antigen).
126
What are the morphological characteristics and possible source of spermatozoa in urine?
Oval, slightly tapered head; Long, flagella-like tail; May be present after sexual intercourse.
127
What are the characteristics and major constituent of mucus threads in urine?
Low refractive index; Major constituent is Tamm-Horsfall protein (Uromodulin).
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