Ch14 (from the book)

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1
How do you define hypersensitivity?
exaggerated response to a typically harmless antigen that results in injury to tissue
2
What is Type I hypersensitivity known as?
anaphylactic hypersensitivity
3
What generally happens in anaphylactic hypersensitivity?
exposure to antigen induces production of IgE antibody, which binds to mast cells and basophils
4
What happens results after the production of IgE?
degranulation with release of chemical mediators that produce allergy symptoms
5
What is Type II hypersensitivity known as?
antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
6
What antibody is present in type II hypersensitivity?
IgG and IgM
7
How does type II hypersensitivity lead to cell damage?
complement-mediated lysis;
dysfunction of the cell by blocking the binding of a ligand to a surface receptor;
over stimulation of cell's function
8
What is Type III hypersensitivity known as?
complex-mediated hypersensitivity
9
What antibody is present in type III hypersensitivity?
IgG or IgM
10
What does IgG or IgM do in type III hypersensitivity?
react with soluble antigens to form complexes that precipitate in the tissues and activate complement;
recruits PMNs to site causing injury
11
How does Type IV hypersensitivity differ from the other 3 types?
uses sensitized T cells rather than antibodies
12
What is type IV hypersensitivity referred to as?
cell-mediated hypersensitivity
13
What happens in type IV hypersensitivity?
release of cytokines that induce inflammation and tissue damage
14
What types are classified as immediate hypersensitivity?
Types I, II, and III
15
What happens in immediate hypersensitivity reactions?
symptoms develop within minutes to hours after antigen exposure
16
What type is classified as delayed hypersensitivity?
type IV
17
What is delayed hypersensitivity reactions?
reaction not seen until 24-48 hrs after antigen contact
18
What is type I hypersensitivity generally known as?
allergies
19
What are the antigens that trigger type I called?
allergens
20
What is the main antibody of Type I hypersensitivity?
IgE
21
Recall: What is the purpose of IgE?
bind to receptors on mast and basophils
22
What is the problem with IgE in allergic hypersensitivity?
reactions produce a large amt of IgE in response to small concentration of allergen
23
What is atopy?
inherited tendency to develop classic allergic responses to naturally occurring inhaled or ingested substances
24
What are the key components in type I hypersensitivity?
IgE, mast, basophils, eosinophils
25
When does type I allergic response being?
when individual is exposed to allergen and produces specific IgE
26
What synthesizes IgE?
B cells and plasma cells
27
What regulates IgE production?
Type 2 helper T cells (Th2)
28
What is the normal immune response and t helper cells?
balance between Th2 and Th1 to provide protective immunity and not harm host
29
What happens to T helper in allergies?
immune response shifted so that Th2 cells predominate, resulting in production of cytokines
30
What cytokines are released in allergies due to Th2?
IL-4, IL-13
31
What is the purpose of the cytokines released by Th2?
final differentiation of B cells that codes IgE
32
What are the 2 major phases of type I?
sensitization
activation
33
What happens in the sensitization phase of type I?
the IgE antibody attaches to FcɛRI that binds to Fc
34
Where are FcɛRI mostly found?
mast cells and basophils
35
What processes allergens from environment?
Langerhans and dendritic cells
36
What happens after allergens and processed from environment?
transported to MHC class II to lymphoid tissue where IgE synthesis occurs
37
What is the antigen receptor on mast and basophils?
IgE
38
What are the principal effector cells of immediate hypersensitivity?
mast cells
39
Where are mast cells concentrated?
around small blood vessels, lymphatics, nerves, and granular tissue
40
What is special of mast cells?
have cytoplasmic granules that store numerous preformed inflammatory mediators
41
Where are basophils found?
peripheral blood
42
What is different of basophils compared to mast?
basophils have fewer (but larger) granules than mast
43
What do basophils respond to?
chemotactic stimuli during inflammation
44
What happens when there is subsequent binding of allergen to IgE-sensitized mast and basophils?
triggers degranulation with release of inflammatory mediators
45
What is the first step of the activation phase of type I?
adjacent cell-bound IgE crosslinked causing aggregation of the surface FcɛRI receptors
46
What does the aggregation of the surface FcɛRI receptors do?
initiates complex intracellular signaling events that increase intracellular calcium
47
What does the complex intracellular signaling events involve?
multiple phosphorylation, influx of Ca+, and secretion of cytokines
48
What does an increase in calcium do?
triggers degranulation of mast and basophils, releasing chemical mediators that were stored in granules
49
What are the primary mediators released?
histamine, heparin, ECF-A, neutrophil chemotactic factor, and proteases
50
What are the effects of the primary mediators?
early-phase symptoms of allergic reactions by binding to receptors on target organs
51
What phase do you see secondary mediators?
late phase
52
What are the secondary mediators?
platelet activating factor (PAF), prostaglandins (PG) D2, leukotrienes (LT), B4, C4, D4, E4, cytokines
53
What is the purpose of the late phase in type I?
cells exit circulation and infiltrate allergen filled tissue, releasing additional mediators that prolong the hyperactivity and lead to tissue damage
54
What plays a large role in late phase of type I?
eosinophils
55
What does eosinophils do in late phase?
release variety of toxic molecules and inflammatory mediators from granules, contribute to ongoing damage
56
What is tissue remodeling?
structural changes due to persistent inflammation
(thickening of smooth muscle, changes in connective tissue, bld and lymph vessels, mucus glands, nerves)
57
What does the development of IgE responses depend on?
genetic and environmental triggers
58
How can genes affect allergic response?
1. affects where & how microbes and allergens enter;
2. recognition of ag by innate
3. susceptibility due to adaptative immunity (cytokine and T cell ability)
4. influence long term consequence of allergies
59
How does environment influence allergic response?
early exposure to diverse microbial populations protect against allergies by inducing beneficial Th1 responses (and away from Th2 atopic reactions)
60
What is anaphylaxis?
severe system response caused by inflammatory mediators from mast and basophils
61
What are the clinical manifestations of type I hypersensitivity?
rhinitis (hay fever), asthma, food allergies, urticaria (hives), eczema, angioedema (deep in dermal area), systemic anaphylaxis
62
How does anaphylactic shock happen?
allergen introduced into bloodstream, absorbed in gut or skin
63
What are the symptoms of anaphylactic shock?
bronchial constriction, decreased BP, laryngeal edema, rapid secretion of mast mediators
64
What are the treatments for type I hypersensitivity?
1. allergy avoidance
2. drug therapy
3. monoclonal anti-IgE antibody
4. allergy immunotherapy (AIT)
65
What are the drug therapies for type I hypersensitivity?
antihistamines, bronchodilators, mast cell stabilizers, corticosteroids, Epi pens, leukotriene receptor antagonists
66
What does monoclonal anti-IgE antibody do?
binds to C3ɛ on IgE so that IgE can't bind to FcɛRI receptors
67
What is allergy immunotherapy (AIT)?
induce immune tolerance to specific allergen by gradually increases doses over time
68
What is the point of AIT?
shift patients immune response to Th1 type and induce Tregs that release IL-10
69
What does IL-10 do?
redirects immune to produce allergen-specific IgG4 'blocking' antibodies that combine with antigen before it can attach to IgE and trigger degranulation
70
What is in vivo skin allergy testing?
percutaneous test or intradermal that can detect hypersensitivity to allergens, indicated by wheal and flare reaction
71
Why do allergy test start at skin testing?
procedure is less expensive, more sensitive to serologic, and provides immediate results
72
What's the difference between percutaneous and intradermal?
percutaneous: allergens applied to upper layers of skin
intradermal: higher doses of allergens between layers of skin (greater risk of anaphylaxis)
73
What does radioallergosorben test determine?
specific IgE
74
what does a positive allergen-specific IgE test indicate?
sensitization to the allergen
75
What is the purpose of allergen-specific IgE testing (noncompetitive)
used to detect allergen-specific IgE in pt serum
76
What is the difference between total serum IgE and allergen specific IgE?
total serum - uses anti-IgE bound to solid phase
allergen specific - uses antigen bound to solid phase
77
What is the proportion of fluorescence indicate in total serum IgE (RIST)?
fluorescence is in proportion to the amount of allergen-specific IgE in the sample
78
What does RIST stand for?
radio immunosorbent test
79
What is the point of total IgE?
uses labeled IgE to compete with pt IgE for binding sites on a solid phase coated with anti-IgE
80
What is type II hypersensitivity known as?
antibody-mediated cytotoxic hypersensitivity
81
What is the underlying mechanism of type II hypersensitivity?
involved IgG and IgM antibodies direct against antigens found on cell surfaces (self or heteroantigens)
82
What does Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity depend on?
abnormal production of IgG or IgM directed against tissue antigens or a normal reaction to foreign antigens expressed on host
83
What are the 3 major effects of antibody binding?
1. cell is destroyed
2. function of cell is inhibited
3. function of cell is increased above normal
84
How does cell damage lead to destroyed cell?
1. activation of classical complement and formation of MAC (for cell lysis)
2. coating cell surface promotes opsonization and phagocytosis
3. ADCC
85
How can opsonization occur in antibody binding?
1. through binding of IgG to mq and PMNs or
2. binding surface C3b to complement receptors on phagocytic cells
86
How does ADCC binding lead to a destroyed cell?
binding stimulates release of cytotoxic enzymes that destroy the cell
binding of IgG to antigen on cell surface and to the Fc receptors on mq and NK
87
What are some examples of type II destruction of cell?
HDN, transfusion reactions, autoimmune hemolytic anemia
88
How does antibody binding inhibit cell function?
when antibody blocks the binding of ligand to its receptor, resulting in dysfunction
89
What is an example where antibody binding inhibits cell function?
myasthenia gravis (autoimmune disease)
90
What happens in myasthenia gravis?
patients produce autoantibodies to receptors on muscle cells for the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACH)
91
What does ACH normally do?
binds to receptors on muscle cells, stimulating contraction and movement
92
What does ACH in myasthenia gravis do?
ACH receptor blocks binding of ACH, leading to muscle weakness
93
How can antibody binding lead to increased cell function (than normal)?
binding of antibody to self-antigen stimulates the cell; leading to overproduction of cell product
94
What disease does antibody binding lead to stimulation of cell produces?
Graves disease (autoimmune disorder of the thyroid gland)
95
What happens in grave's disease?
patients produce antibodies against the receptor for TSH
96
What does TSH normally do?
binds to TSH receptors and stimulates thyroid cells to produce hormones that increase metabolism
97
What happens to TSH in grave's disease?
autoantibody binds to TSH receptor, resulting in unregulated production of thyroid hormones (increased metabolism = hyperthyroidism)
98
What are the clinical examples of type II hypersensitivity?
transfusion reactions, HDN, autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture's syndrome, Hashimoto's disease
99
What are isohemagglutinins?
naturally occurring Anti-A and Anti B antibodies from ABO blood group
100
How do acute hemolytic transfusion reactions occur?
patient has been exposed to the antigen before and has preformed antibodies to it
101
What are hemolytic transfusion reactions associated with?
ABO blood group incompatibilities and IgM antibodies
102
What antibody is responsible for delayed hemolytic reactions?
IgG
103
What antigens are involved in delayed reaction?
Rh, Kell, Duffy, Kidd
104
What happens in delayed reaction?
antibody-coated RBCs are removed extravascularly in the spleen or in the liver
105
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
in infants of mothers who have been exposed to blood-group antigen on the baby cells that differ from their own
106
What is severe HDN called?
erythroblastosis fetalis
107
What is the most common antigen involved in severe HDN?
D antigen (of Rh blood group)
108
When does exposure of D antigen happen in HDN?
during the birth process when fetal cells leak into mothers in first born
109
How is HDN treated?
exchange transfusion to replace antibody-coated RBCs, Rhogam
110
What is autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
directed against self-antigens; form antibodies against their own RBC
111
What are the two kinds of autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
warm reactive antibodies (at 37 degrees) and cold reactive antibodies (below 30 degrees)
112
How is warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia characterized?
formation of IgG antibody that reacts most strongly at 37 degree
113
What is idiopathic autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
underling cause of antibody production is unknown
114
What diseases are associated with warm hemolytic anemia?
viral or respiratory (mono, cytomegalovirus, chronic hepatitis)
immunoproliferative (chronic lymphocytic leukemia and lymphomas)
115
What drugs affect hemolytic anemia?
drugs capable of attaching to RBCs directly or of forming immune complexes that attach to RBC
116
How can drugs cause hemolytic anemia
1. act as haptens
2. modify RBC membrane
3. stimulate production of anti-drug antibodies
4. stimulating production of autoantibodies
117
What penicillins and cephalosporins do (generally)?
act as haptens after binding to proteins on RBC membrane; stimulate the production of anti-drug antibodies that destroy RBCs (through extravascular hemolysis)
118
What do cephalosporins do?
modify RBC membrane by facilitating binding of immunoglobulins and complement
119
What do phenacetin do?
stimulate production of anti-drug antibodies that bind to drug to form soluble immune complexes; loosely attach to RBC and cleared by intravascular hemolysis after complement binding
120
What does methyldopa do?
induce hemolytic anemia by production of autoantibodies against RBC membrane
121
Why do patients (typically) exhibit symptoms of anemia?
because of clearance of antibody-coated RBCs by mq in liver and spleen
122
Why is hemolysis primarily extravascular?
IgG is not as efficient as IgM in activating complement
123
What are cold agglutinins?
autoantibodies that react with antigens on the RBC membrane at cold temperatures
124
What antibodies are reacting in cold agglutinins?
IgM
125
What are the effects of cold agglutinins?
below 30degrees, antibodies bind to RBCs to form lattices which can obstruct the small capillaries in the skin (acrocyanosis)
126
What are paroxysmal cold hemoglobin uria?
produce a biphasic autoantibody that binds to RBCs are cold temps and activates complement at 37C to produce intermittent hemolysis
127
What infection leads to paroxysmal cold hemoglobin uria?
measles, mumps, chickenpox, and mono
128
What is Goodpasture's syndrome and example of?
organ-specific disease in which antibody is directed against a particular tissue due to combination with antibody
129
What happens in Goodpasture's syndrome?
antibody binds to glomerular BM and alveolar capillaries and triggers the complement cascade
130
What are other organ-specific autoimmune diseases?
Hashimoto's, myasthenia gravis, insulin dependent diabetes
131
What is the purpose of the direct antiglobulin test (DAT)?
to detect transfusion reactions, HDN, and autoimmune hemolytic anemia
132
What does DAT use?
patient RBCs (coated with antibody)
133
What does indirect antiglobulin test (indirect Coombs) use?
patient's serum (containing ig) along with donor blood sample
134
Why is the indirect Coombs test used?
used in crossmatching of blood to prevent a transfusion reaction
135
What does indirect coombs' test determine?
presence of a particular antibody in a patient or type patient RBCs for specific blood group antigens
136
What are the three phases of type III hypersensitivity?
1. immune complex formation
2. immune complex deposition
3. inflammatory reaction
137
How are type III reactions similar to type II?
IgG or IgM are involved and destruction is complement mediated
138
What happens when endogenous or exogenous antigens trigger antibody formation? (type III)
antigens bind to antibodies, forming circulating immune complexes. Which can later migrate out of plasma and deposit in tissues
139
How is type III different from type II?
antigen is soluble
140
What happens when soluble antigen combines with antibody?
complexes are formed that precipitate out of the serum (normally cleared by phagocytic cells)
141
What happens to soluble antigens if immune system is overwhelmed?
complexes formed at deposited in tissues, binding to complement and causing damage to tissue
142
What happens when antibody is in excess (in type III)?
complexes are insoluble, do not circulate, and are phagocytosed by mq in the lymph nodes and spleen
143
Where do immune complexes mostly affect (when antigen is in excess in type III)?
glomeruli and joints
144
What happens when antigen is in excess (in type III)?
the aggregates are smaller, freely filter out of circulation where the blood is transformed into other fluids (like urine / synovial)
145
What happens when complement binds to complexes in the tissues?
causes a release of mediators that increase vasodilation, Vaso permeability, attract mq and PMN, and enhance binding of phagocytic cells by C3b-mediated opsonization
146
What happens if target cells are too large in type III hypersensitivity?
granule and lysosome contents are released by exocytosis
147
what is the result of exocytosis?
damage to host tissue; long term can be loss of tissue elements that cannot regenerate and accumulation of scar
148
What is the Arthus reaction?
inflammatory response caused by antigen-antibody combination and subsequent formation of immune that deposit in small dermal blood vessels
149
How does the complement respond to Arthus reaction?
complement is fixed, attracting PMNs and causing aggregation of platelets
150
What do neutrophils do during Arthus reaction?
release toxic products (oxygen-containing free radicals and proteolytic enzymes)
151
Why is activation of complement essential for Arthus reaction?
because C3a and C5a generated activate mast cells to release permeability factors
152
Where can Arthus reactions be seen?
after booster injections (with tetanus, diphtheria, measles vaccines)
153
What does serum sickness result from?
passive immunization of humans with animal serum
154
How does autologous antigens trigger type III hypersensitivity?
1. produces antibodies against nuclear constituents (like DNA and histones)
2. produce antibody against IgG (RA)
(autoantibodies combine with antigen to produce immune complexes)
155
What diseases are associated with type III hypersensitivity?
SLE and RA
156
Where does SLE cause main damage?
joints, skin, glomerular BM in kidneys
157
Where does RA primarily cause damage?
joints
158
What factors lead to type III hypersensitivity?
components of vaccines, bee stings, treatment with drugs, infections, viral hep, and group A strepto
159
What are the testing methods of type III hypersensitivity?
indirect immunofluorescence, enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, fluorescent microsphere multiplex immunoassays
160
What is the general way to evaluate immune complex diseases?
measuring complement levels
161
What happens to the complement during high disease activity? (type III)
complement levels decreased due to binding of some of the complement to antigen-antibody complexes
162
What plays the major role in type IV hypersensitivity?
sensitized T cell
163
What kind of reaction is type IV hypersensitivity?
delayed hypersensitivity
164
What controls the main mechanism of the classic type IV response?
Th1 subclass of Th cells
165
What happens in the sensitization phase of type IV?
Langerhans cells and mq capture antigen and migrate to lymph nodes to present to Th cells; APCs release cytokines that promote differentiation of T cells into Th1 and other Tcell subs
166
When does the effector phase of type IV begin?
When Th1 cells migrate to the site where antigen is located, inducing inflammatory reaction
167
What other substance is present in the effector phase of type IV that may cause damage to tissue cells?
cytotoxic T cells
168
What recruits mq to site in effector phase of type IV?
monocyte chemotactic protein (MCP-1 / CCL2)
169
What does Th1 do when they reach antigen site?
release cytokines to induce hematopoiesis of cells and chemokines to recruit mq to site
170
What happens to monocytes in type IV?
becomes activated mq by IFN-y and TNF-B, releasing ROS, nitric oxide, and proinflammatory mediators that require more mq and turn mq into APCs
171
What are granulomas?
organized clusters of cells developed by chronic persistence of antigen
clusters = epithelioid-shaped multinucleated fused mq with an infiltrate of WBC
172
What is the functions of a granuloma?
wall of the organism in a contained area (preventing spread)
173
How are granulomas harmful?
cells released large amount of lytic enzymes that destroy surrounding tissue and promote fibrin deposition
174
What are the two types of antigens that trigger type IV hypersensitivity?
intracellular pathogens
contact antigens
175
What are intracellular pathogens cause type IV?
Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB), m. leprae, P. carinii, Leishmania, herpes
176
What are the contact antigens of type IV?
poison ivy, poison oak, chemical urushiol (plant sap and leaves), metals
177
What are the symptoms of contact dermatitis?
skin eruptions caused by erythema, swelling, and formation of papules
178
What is the probable cause of contact dermatitis?
haptens that bind to glycoproteins on skin cells and then processed by Langerhans and eventually presented to T cells
179
What causes contact dermatitis (listed on slide)?
exposure to chemicals, poison ivy, latex
180
What is hypersensitivity pneumonitis?
allergic disease of the lung parenchyma characterized by inflammation of alveoli and interstitial spaces
181
What causes hypersensitivity pneumonitis (on slide)?
inhaled antigens
182
What is anergy?
the absence of positive reactions for all of the common antigens used in skin test
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