Advanced Drone Operations Certificate

RPAS

CARs

CARAC

VLOS

CARC

SFOC

RPAS are regulated according to the ...

Operations using RPAS that do not fall within the scope of the regulations will require a ... (this includes operating an RPAS beyond VLOS)

Any area of land, water (including the frozen surface thereof) or other supporting surface used, designed, prepared, equipped or set apart for use either in whole or in part for the arrival, departure, movement or servicing of aircraft and includes any buildings, installations and equipment situated thereon or associated therewith.

An aerodrome in respect of which a Canadian aviation document is in force.

The pilot having responsibility and authority for the operation and safety of the aircraft during flight time.

Who enforces air law?

ICAO. A United Nations agency. Used to ensure local civil aviation operations and regulations conform to global norms.

What are the four classifications of aerodromes?

What are the two types of airports?

Canada's official airport directory. Contains information on all registered Canadian and Atlantic aerodromes and certified airports.

An advisory service used to exchange information to help with safety.

ATF where ground station exists.

ATF where no ground station exists.

ATF

What are the three parts of an aerodrome?

Parts of an airport or aerodrome used for the surface movement of aircraft.

Parts of the airport intended for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and movement of aircraft (ie. runways).

Area intended for the loading and unloading of passengers and cargo, the refueling, servicing, maintenance, and parking of the aircraft, and movement of any equipment needed for this purpose.

Runways are numbered for the purpose of ...

The number assigned to a runway corresponds to its ... Rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees and for convenience the last zero is omitted.

The runway number is displayed on the ...

What end of the runway is the degrees used to determine the numbering?

Taxiways are labeled according to the ...

How many numbers would a single runway that allows takeoff/landing in both directions have?

If there are two runways that are parallel to each other, what are added?

Runways generally use ______________________ north.

Runways in the Northern Domestic Airspace use _________________ north.

Used to determine the wind direction and approximate speed.

The safest way to takeoff and land an aircraft is ....

Two types of wind indicators

Wind blows in the big end and out the small end. Velocity of the wind is indicated by the extension.

A standard windsock will fly perfectly horizontal in a wind of ...

A windsock will hang approximately 30 degrees below the horizontal in a wind of only ...

Area on the opposite side of then landing runway from the downwind leg. Approach into this area should be made at our above circuit height.

Corridor lying between the center of the landing runway and its upwind end.

A flight path opposite to the direction of landing, parallel to the runway.

Right angle to direction of landing and downwind of the approach.

Flight path in the direction of landing.

What are the two sets of rules for flying any aircraft?

IFR

VFR

RPAS pilots must follow what rules for flying? VFR or IFR?

All airspace over Canadian land mass, the Canadian Arctic and Archipelago, and certain areas over the high seas.

Canadian domestic airspace (CDA) is divided into what two areas?

Close proximity to the north magnetic pole disturbs the use of a compass making it unreliable.
All aircraft in this airspace must use true track calculations. Runway numbering is oriented to true north and night flights must be under IFR and include a gyroscopic heading indicator.

All aircraft flying in Northern Domestic Airspace must use what calculations?

Direction of flight is determined by a magnetic track and airways. Runways are assigned numbers based on magnetic bearing. Surface winds are reported in magnetic degrees.

ATC service is provided and split into High Level Airspace and Low Level Airspace.

Not controlled by an Air Traffic Control (ATC). Aircraft are still required to follow Canadian Aviation Regulations.

Lack of information of other aircraft in uncontrolled airspace increases the risk of collision so pilots should continuously monitor frequency ...

≥ 18,000 feet ASL

< 18,000 feet ASL

Canadian Domestic Airspace is divided into how many classifications?

High level controlled airspace.
IFR only.
Clearance required.
Mode C or S transponder required.
Separation provided to all aircraft.

Used for altitudes above 18,000 feet. Numbers are altitude with the last 2 digits removed.

FL180 to FL600

FL230 to FL600

FL270 to FL600

Low level controlled airspace.
12,500 feet ASL to 17,999 feet ASL.
Subject to ATC clearances..
Two-way communication and radio navigation aids.
Mode C or S transponder required.
Separation provided to all aircraft.
VFR must file a flight plan including altitude and route requested to receive ATC clearance.

Associated with terminal control area (ie. Large airports).
Usually have a 10 nm radius and up to 12,500 feet.
VFR subject to clearances.
Becomes class E when tower is not in operation.
Mode C or S transponder required.
Separation provided to all IFR and VFR as necessary.

Similar to class C, but for smaller airports or aerodromes.
Usually has a 5 nm radius and a height of 3,000 feet.
Two-way radio communication must be enabled prior to entry.
Transponder may be required.
Separation is to IFR only.
Becomes class E when tower is not in operation.

High level controlled airspace above FL600.
Both IFR and VFR permitted.
Designed where an operational need exists for a controlled airspace, but certain requirements are not met.
Used for low level flight routes and aerodromes with very little traffic.
Separation is to IFR only.
Includes low level airways, control area extensions, and transition zones.
Transponder may be required.

Restricted.
Special use - controlled or uncontrolled.

All uncontrolled airspace.
ATC has no authority or responsibility to control traffic.
ATS provides flight information and alerting services.
Low level air routes.

What class of airspace to RPAS pilots want to fly?

ATC

ACC

Provided by airport control towers to aircraft and vehicles on maneuvering in the vicinity of an airport.

provided by ACCs to IFR and VFR flights in specified control areas.

Provided by ACCs or TCUs to IFR and VFR flights operating within specified control areas.

Provided by ATC units to IFR aircraft operating within the radar service area.

Notifies appropriate organizations regarding aircraft in need of search and rescue services.

Provides reserved airspace for specified air operations in controlled airspace.

Collects, processes, and disseminates information about aircraft flights operating in Air Defense Identification Zones.

Provides advance notification to customs officials for transborder flights at specified ports of entry.

Is provided by ATC units to assist pilots by supplying information about known hazardous flight conditions.

Provided from ATC for an aircraft to proceed within controlled airspace under specific conditions.

Clearance is identified by the use of the word ...

A directive issued by an air traffic control unit for air traffic control purposes.

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Flight visibility for controlled airspace

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Flight visibility for uncontrolled above 1,000 feet AGL

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Flight visibility for uncontrolled below 1,000 feet AGL

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Distance from cloud for controlled airspace

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Distance from cloud for uncontrolled above 1,000 feet AGL

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Distance from cloud for uncontrolled below 1,000 feet AGL

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Height above surface for controlled airspace

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Height above surface for uncontrolled above 1,000 feet AGL

(Weather minimums for VFR flights) Height above surface for uncontrolled below 1,000 feet AGL

In order to operate a drone over _______ g, you must have the appropriate pilot certificate.

If you fly where you're not allowed or don't follow the rules you can be fined up to ...

For basic operation of a recreational drone, you must fly below _______ meters above ground level.

For basic operation of a recreational drone, you must fly away from bystanders, at a minimum horizontal distance of ______ meters.

For basic operation of a recreational drone, you must fly _______ km away from airports.

For basic operation of a recreational drone, you must fly ________ km away from heliports.

If you carry a live creature onboard you can be fined up to ______________ as an individual.

If you fly a drone into transponder airspace without prior authorization, you may be fined up to ___________ for a person.

If you operate a drone under the influence of drugs or alcohol or within 12 hrs of consuming alcohol, you may be fined up to _____________________ for a person.

If you carry a dangerous payload such as weapons or explosives, you may be fined up to _________________ for a person.

Terms that represent aircrafts which have the capability to operate without an individual present onboard.

Remotely Piloted Aircraft Systems (RPAS) is the proper term and encompasses:

Two methods to control a RPAS

VLOS

unaided visual contact at all times with a remotely piloted aircraft that is sufficient to be able to maintain control of the aircraft, know its location, and be able to scan the airspace in which it is operating in order to perform the detect and avoid functions in respect of other aircraft or objects.

BVLOS

Flying BVLOS in Canada requires an ...

_______________ give pilots notice to be extra vigilant for drones in their flight path.

The location and equipment being used to control the RPA.

Provide Longitudinal Control - "Roll"

Moves the RPA either left or right - "Yaw"

Provides Lateral Control- "Pitch"

Three main controls of helicopter RPA

Allows the pilot to move in any direction: forward, rearward, left, and right.

Moves the Helicopter up & down by adjusting the pitch on the blades.

Control the pitch and thrust of the tail rotor.

The amount of current a battery can produce for 1 hour. This also represents the battery's charge and discharge rate, which is measured in Amp-hours (mAh).

The amount of ___________ contained in a battery is measure in Watt-hours (WHr)

The potential difference and is measured in Volts. This is an important parameter since it directly affects the speed at which a motor spins.

LiPo battery cells have a voltage of approximately ...

How many spare LiPo batteries with 100-160 WHr can be carried on a commercial flight in checked luggage?

LiPo batteries bigger than ________________ cannot be carried on commercial flights.

A DJI drone LiPo battery should be discharged to a minimum of ...

The voltage of a battery
drops drastically closer to a ...

Should batteries be stored fully charged?

An internal combustion engine which completes a power cycle with two strokes (up and down movements) of the piston during only one crankshaft revolution.

An internal combustion (IC) engine in which the piston completes four separate strokes while turning the crankshaft.

A Critical piece on fixed wing and helicopter UAVs. Control Ailerons, Flaps, rudders, landing gear, etc.

Any load carried by the drone that is not part of it's flight or control system. Most commonly, drone _________ are sensors, from cameras, multispectral, hyperspectral, and LIDARs.

A deprivation of oxygen to the brain that can reduce alertness, cause fatigue and dizziness, and in more extreme cases unconsciousness and even death.

The most common type of hypoxia that affects pilots. It is caused by high altitudes and can be prevented by using onboard oxygen systems.

Caused by an over abundance of carbon monoxide in the blood.

Caused by an inadequate supply of blood to the brain. Can be caused by G-forces.

Caused by chemical poisoning or high blood alcohol.

Pilots should not operate above ________________ at night without an oxygen system available.

A pilot's judgment and ability are reduced beginning at ________________ ASL.

According to CARs, you must wait a minimum of _____ hours after consuming any amount of alcohol before operating a drone.

Affects a pilot's performance by degrading his alertness and decision making capability. RPAS operators should get sufficient rest.

Adversely affects a pilot's mental and physical abilities.

Can make person sluggish and efficiency will be impaired.

confusion concerning one's sense of position or movement in relation to the ground, usually only occurs with reduced visual references.

lines and sizes of objects can cause their spatial location in relation to one another to be confused. This effect can make distant airplanes and obstacles look farther away or closer than they actually are.

A set of step by step instructions prepared by an organization to help carry out complex routine operations.

A list of items to be checked or activities to be completed at different stages of an operation to ensure no items are missed and an RPAS mission can be carried out successfully and safely.

Lines of constant pressure. Similar to a topographic map and elevations.

the barometric pressure at the location of the barometer, typically at an aerodrome or weather station.

29.92 "HG or 1013.25 MB

based on average air temp for the past 12 hours and the standard lapse rate of 1.98℃/1000'

the instrument that reads the aircraft's height above sea level by sensing the atmospheric pressure.

If your altimeter is set higher than the actual atmospheric pressure, you altimeter will say you are LOWER/HIGHER than you actually are.

the height above sea level at a given barometric pressure under standard conditions (ie. the height recorded by the altimeter when set to 29.92" Hg)

the pressure altitude corrected for temperature (the performance altitude)

Higher temperatures will cause a __________ density altitude, which will reduce an aircraft's performance.

the atmospheric temperature which varies with pressure and humidity below which water droplets begin to condense and dew can form on objects.

Air rises and expands, molecular collisions decrease, so temperature decreases.

Air sinks and compresses, collisions increase, so temperature increases.

Vertical transport of heat and humidity.

Horizontal transport of heat and humidity.

____________ atmosphere tends to resist vertical motion.

____________ atmosphere encourages vertical motion.

a body of air that has uniform properties of temperature and humidity in any horizontal direction

What are the 3 types of air masses?

Cold air mass

Moderate air mass

Warm air mass

very cold, very dry, stable air mass.

cold, moist, unstable (in lower levels) air mass.

cold, moist, unstable air mass.

hot, very moist, unstable air mass.

A narrow transition zone between two air masses where a rapid change in temperature and moisture content occur from one air mass to the other.

front between continental arctic air mass and maritime arctic air mass.

front between maritime arctic air mass and maritime polar air mass.

front between maritime polar air mass and maritime tropical air mass.

Occur when a cold air mass advances and undercuts a warm air mass. Produces clouds, precipitation (showers, thunderstorms, tornadoes, etc), temperature drops, increased surface winds, and dramatic wind shifts.

Clockwise wind shift.

Occur when a warm air mass overrides a slow retreating cold air mass. Usually less abrupt than a cold front.

Warm front: light to moderate warm rain will occur over an extensive area. Near the front, the evaporating rain will produce ceilings near or at ground level, referred to as frontal fog.

Warm front: cumulonimbus clouds will be found producing areas of heavy showers.

Warm front: most likely only middle or high clouds will be present.

Cold fronts. Nature of the weather is dependent on:

Warm fronts. Nature of the weather is dependent on:

How much the warm air mass overrides the cold air mass.

Cloud with fairly layered, uniform base with little
distinguishing features.

Cloud with very distinguished features with sharp outlines in the form similar to cotton ball -like structures

Wispy, feathery clouds made of ice crystals that form at high levels.

High elevation clouds, layered across the sky.

A cloud at a high altitude consisting of a series of regularly arranged small clouds resembling ripples.

Clouds at mid-level that form a light sheet that lets the sun or moon show as a bright spot.

Medium level cumulus cloud that is higher than regular cumulus clouds. Lead to precipitation.

Altocumulus clouds that grow vertically and show tower-like extensions.

Clouds that are low-level, uniform layer, usually very dark, that bring strong precipitation.

Low elevation layered clouds with tops and bottoms rounded.

A type of cumulus cloud that is tall and gray, and associated with thunderstorms.

a cloud, usually stratus, that is in contact with the ground. Forms when the saturation point is reached and there are sufficient condensation nuclei. When air cools, it's ability to hold water
vapour reduces, causing water to condense.

forms on clear nights when the ground loses heat through radiation. The cooling ground cools the air directly in contact with it. If the air is moist and is cooled below the dew point, fog is formed. It usually dissipates a few hours into the day as sunlight heats up the ground.

Formed when warm moist air drifts over a colder land or water surface. It is most common in coastal areas, and can persist for hours since water is not rapidly heated or cooled.

Forms when air moving up a slope cools due to adiabatic cooling, until dew point is reached. This can occur as easterly winds across the prairies blow air over rising terrain.

Forms when cold air is passing over a warm water surface. The evaporation of water into the cold air causes the air to become saturated and fog forms.

Forms by the addition of moisture into the air from evaporating rain or drizzle. This type of fog usually occurs along warm fronts and is sometimes called frontal fog.

Forms in moist air under extremely cold and calm conditions when water vapour from man-made
sources (combustion or jet engines) is added into the air. The air cannot hold any water vapour, and therefore the water vapour sublimate directly into tiny ice crystals.

forms under clear skies, high relative humidity, and no wind. The clear skies allow for nocturnal cooling to occur and the metal surfaces of an aircraft will drop below the dew point temperature.

Air in the northern hemisphere is deflected to the ____________ due to the CCW rotation of the earth

In the northern hemisphere, if you stand with your back to the wind and raise your left hand to your side, it will point in the area of low pressure.

Land heats up faster than the water and as a result air rises over the land and the air sinks over the water causing air to flow inland from the water.

The opposite of a sea breeze which occurs during night time because the land cools faster than the water does. Air flows from the land out to the water.

Mountain slopes/sides of valleys warm during the daytime hours and as a result the air warms and rises and wind rushes up the slopes/valleys.

Mountain slopes/sides of valleys cool during the evening hours as a result the air cools and become denser and the air slides/flows down the mountain or valley slope. Can occur on ice or snow covered slopes during the day. High speed winds can occur in the base of the valley as the wind rushes to escape.

Strong winds develop in the warm sector in front of an approaching cold front. Form between 500 ft and 5000 ft. Can cause turbulence and wind shear effects.

As the earth begins to cool an nocturnal inversion develops in the lower few thousand feet and all mixing action stops and wind becomes calm below the inversion zone. The top of the inversion zone becomes a "frictionless surface" and wind accelerates along the top approx. 700ft to 2000 ft AGL with max speeds around 2 to 3 hours after midnight.

results from surface heating or cold air moving over warmer ground. Can be present over warm ground such as a black plowed field.

air flowing over hills or mountains is lifted up and can cause turbulence.

due to surface obstructions like bluffs, hills, mountains, buildings and trees.

a drastic change in wind speed or direction which can be devastating to aircraft

occurs when sub-zero surface comes into contact with moist air. Through sublimation, the water vapour turns directly into ice forming a coating of ice.

Three conditions for thunderstorm development

Stages of thunderstorm development

in developing stages 3000 ft/minute or 50 ft/sec! Fully formed and severe storms can be more than double this!

the result of precipitation failing and dragging air down with it in the mature stage.

as precipitation falls beneath the cloud, it evaporates absorbing heat from the surroundings. This results in the descending air becoming colder and therefore denser than the surrounding air leading to the air accelerating downwards and hitting the ground and spreading outwards in all directions. This is the cold wind felt shortly before an approaching thunderstorm up to 25 kms in front of the storm! This process creates more cells through the lifting action it
produces.

gust front causes a large change in wind direction, up to 180° which is very dangerous for aircraft, especially while landing or taking off.

Sudden, very strong, downdrafts of cold air associated with an advancing storm front.

Small, very intense downward winds.

What are some meteorological service available to pilots?

Airmen's meteorological information. Brief description of weather conditions/phenomena occurring along a route that may affect the safety of an aircraft.

Significant Meteorological Information. Significant advisory for a meteorological conditions affecting all aircraft.

Meteorological Aerodrome Report.

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. Essentially a METAR on a timeline.

How long is AIRMET valid for?

Runs east and west (parallel with the equator). Starts at the equator and works towards the
poles (maximum of 90°). North is positive and south is negative.

Run north and south (perpendicular with the
equator). Starts at the prime meridian and works out east or west (maximum 180 °). East is positive and west is negative.

The sun passing over a meridian and then again over that same meridian. Divided into 24 equal hours which equal 360°.

The local time of any particular meridian.

The universal time based on the prime meridian.

What time does air traffic control use?

the time from the beginning of morning civil twilight (half hour before sunrise) until the end of evening civil twilight (half hour after sunset).

the time between evening civil twilight and morning civil twilight.

A guide containing information about all Canadian Aerodromes alphabetically.

How often is a new CFS published?

5,280 ft. Used for VFR visibility requirements (AKA, VFR weather minimum).

6,080 ft (1 minute of latitude). Aviation measures distance in nautical miles.

Nautical mile per hour. Airspeed and wind speed are measured in this.

the angle or direction at which one is pointing.

the angle relative to the distance
of travel.

The direction at which you are traveling.

The direction to the geographic North Pole.

The direction a compass needle points (in the northern hemisphere).

the angle between geographic north and the north to which a compass needle points.

Are lines along the earth that indicate the areas with the same magnetic declination.

Are lines indicated where there is no magnetic declination.

Speed measured relative to the ground.

Is the speed of the aircraft in combination with the
wind speed.

A radio or radar set that emits a radio signal after receiving such a signal. With a transponder, you are visible on air traffic control (ATC) radar.

Are UAVs required to have a transponder installed?

VHF Omnidirectional Range is a short-range navaid operating if the VHF bandrange of 108.10 to 117.95. Tells a pilot his bearing from the station. It can also be used to determine your location by using two different stations.

Instrument Landing System is a radio navaid used by IFR pilots in poor visibility.

Automatic Direction Finder is a radio navaid used to home to or find the direction to any station. It uses low and medium frequency radio bands.

Distance Measuring Equipment is a radio navaid that allows a pilot to determine his distance from the station. It operates at ultra high frequencies.

combined military and civil navigation stations that combine both a VOR and DME.

Force exerted by the engine(s) on air which causes lift or forward propulsion.

Resistance of forward motion- limited by design.

Force upward to keep the UAS in flight.

Downward force due to gravity- critical in UAS design & operation.

Total Energy in a system remains constant

Drag from components that don't create lift. (Wheels, Fuselage)

Drag resulting from the body of the aircraft traveling through air.

Air clinging tot he surface of the aircraft.

That part of the drag on an airfoil that arises from the development of lift. Result of the UAV's parts that are active in producing lift.

Fixed Wing Propeller type. Located on the front or nose of the UAV and bites into clean air. Pushes high speed turbulent air back over the UAV increasing drag.

Fixed Wing Propeller type. Bites into dirty air and pushes this air behind the UAV.

controlled by center of gravity
& horizontal stabilizer.

Controlled by wing design (very
complicated physics).

Controlled by the tail fin and
fuselage shape.

barometer that calculates height above ground level.

indicates the horizontal ground speed of travel of a UAV. For Rotary wing, is the speed in any
direction.

indicates the vertical velocity, at
which the the UAV is ascending or descending.

indicates the relationship between wings and nose of an aircraft and the horizon of the earth.

Travel as surface waves which follow the Earth's contour.

Behave as "sky" waves as they are reflected off of the ionosphere. Can operate at ranges of 2250 miles or greater. Used by pilots to report position at every 5° degree of longitude change.

do not bend around the ground like ground waves nor do they behave as sky (HF) waves (bounce off the ionosphere). Instead they continue out to space. Require "line-of-sight" with the communicating station.

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