PLATELET STRUCTURE

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1
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2
Identify the synonym for platelets provided in the handwritten notes.
Thrombocyte
3
Fill in the blank: Platelets arise from a bone marrow cell called a ________.
Megakaryocyte.
4
True or False: Platelets are important in both primary and secondary hemostasis.
True.
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5
Describe the appearance of platelets regarding their cytoplasm and nuclear material.
Cells with granular cytoplasm but no nuclear material.
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6
Identify where platelets cluster relative to RBCs within a blood vessel.
Near the center of the blood vessel.
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7
Identify the movement of platelets and WBCs from venules into the splenic pulp.
Moving back and forth.
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8
Identify the average lifespan of a platelet according to the primary note.
+/-9.0 days
9
Identify the range of platelet lifespan mentioned in the notes.
8-10 days.
10
Identify the normal number of platelets seen per 100x field on a Wright-stained PBS.
-7 to 21 cells.
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11
Fill in the blank: Thrombocytes are believed to enter the ________ initially, where they remain for two days.
Spleen.
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12
Identify the fraction of the total number of platelets found in the active splenic pool.
-1/3.
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13
Identify the fraction of the total number of platelets found in the circulating blood.
-2/3.
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14
Identify the type of platelets that appear in compensation for thrombocytopenia.
Retticulated Platelets.
15
Identify the type of platelets newly released from megakaryocytes that still contain residual RNA.
  • Reticulated Platelets
16
Identify the diameter of a Reticulated platelet in a PBS.
Exceeds -6 µm
17
Identify the Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) reached by stress platelets.
-12 to 14 fL.
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18
Identify the clinical use of Reticulated Platelets regarding thrombocytopenia.
Differentiate bone marrow failure from peripheral destruction.
19
Identify the clinical use of Reticulated Platelets regarding medical procedures.
Early predictor of bone marrow recovery after chemotherapy and transplantation.
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20
True or False: Reticulated platelets are potentially prothrombotic and associated with cardiovascular disease.
True.
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21
Identify the average normal size of a platelet in um
-2.5 µm.
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22
Identify the reference range for Mean Platelet Volume (MPV) of platlets.
6.8-10.2 FL
23
Identify the handwritten reference range for MPV in platelets
-6.8-10.2 fL.
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24
Identify the anticoagulant that causes platelets to swell, increasing MPV by approximately 20% in the first hour.
EDTA.
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25
Identify the tim required for EDTA specimens to be utilized in measuring MPV.
-1 to 4 hours old.
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26
Identify the X-linked disorder characterized by small platelets.
Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WAS).
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27
Enumeration: List the infections included in the TORCH acronym associated with small platelets.
Toxoplasma, Other agents, Rubella virus, Cytomegalovirus, Herpesvirus.
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28
Identify the inheritance pattern of May-Hegglin Anomaly (MHA).
Autosomal Dominant.
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29
Enumeration: List the four clinical characteristics of May-Hegglin Anomaly.
Leukopenia, variable thrombocytopenia, giant platelets, and Dohle body-like inclusions in leukocytes.
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30
True or False: Giant platelets in May-Hegglin Anomaly are associated with WBC inclusions.
True.
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31
Identify the shape of a resting platelet.
Biconvex.
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32
Identify the shape of an activated platelet.
Spherical with pseudopodia.
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33
Identify the appearance of platelets on a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear.
Lavender and granular.
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34
Identify the centrally located, granular part of a platelet.
Chromomere.
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35
Identify the peripherally located, non-granular part of a platelet.
Hyalomere.
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36
Identify the process by which megakaryocytes develop from hematopoietic stem cells.
Megakaryocytopoiesis.
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37
Identify the major regulator of platelet production, also known as Megakaryocyte Growth and Development Factor.
Thrombopoietin (TPO).
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38
Identify the primary organ that produces Thrombopoietin.
Liver.
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39
Identify the molecular weight of Thrombopoietin.
-70,000 Dalton.
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40
Identify the percentage of homology Thrombopoietin possesses with erythropoietin (EPO).
-23%.
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41
Identify the receptor site for TPO present at all maturation stages.
MPL-TPO.
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42
Fill in the blank: TPO concentration in the plasma is ________ proportional to platelet and megakaryocyte mass.
Inversely.
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43
Enumeration: List three cytokines that function with TPO to stimulate megakaryocytopoiesis.
IL-3, IL-6, and IL-11.
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44
Identify the largest cells in the bone marrow.
Megakaryocyte.
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45
Identify the size range of a megakaryocyte.
-30-160 um.
46
Describe the nucleus and cytoplasm of a megakaryocyte.
Multilobulated nucleus and abundant granular cytoplasm.
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47
Identify the percentage of bone marrow cells represented by megakaryocytes.
Less than -0.5%.
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48
Identify the number of megakaryocytes typically found per 10x low-power field.
-2-4.
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49
Identify the least mature megakaryocyte lineage-committed progenitor.
Burst-forming unit (BFU-Meg).
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50
Identify the most mature megakaryocyte progenitor that loses its capacity to divide and performs endomitosis.
Light-density CFU (LD-CFU-Meg).
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51
Identify the specific cell type that all megakaryocyte progenitors resemble under a microscope.
Lymphocytes.
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52
Identify the process of nuclear division without cytoplasmic division.
Endomitosis.
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53
Identify the stage MK-I in terminal megakaryocyte differentiation.
Megakaryoblast.
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54
True or False: Megakaryoblasts can be reliably distinguished from myeloblasts using light microscopy.
False.
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55
Identify the cytoplasmic structure that begins to develop in the MK-I stage.
Demarcation system (DMS).
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56
Identify the stage MK-II in terminal megakaryocyte differentiation.
Promegakaryocyte.
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57
Identify the morphological feature used to identify the MK-II stage.
Appearance of nuclear lobularity.
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58
Identify the most abundant terminal stage of megakaryocyte differentiation.
MK-III (Megakaryocyte).
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59
Identify the number of platelets one megakaryocyte may shed.
-2,000-4,000.
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60
Identify the stage of terminal differentiation characterized by a round nucleus and 2 to 6 nucleoli.
MK-I.
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61
Identify the stage of terminal differentiation where nucleoli are not visible and the nucleus is multilobed.
MK-III.
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62
Identify the only terminal stage that can perform platelet shedding.
MK-III.
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63
Enumeration: List the three stages that undergo endomitosis during thrombopoiesis.
LD-CFU-Meg, MK-I, and MK-II.
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64
Identify the component of the platelet ultrastructure that provides phospholipids for activation and coagulation.
Platelet Plasma Membrane.
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65
Identify the neutral phospholipids found in the outer plasma layer.
Phosphatidylcholine and sphingomyelin.
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66
Identify the anionic phospholipid that supports platelet activation by supplying arachidonic acid.
Phosphatidylinositol.
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67
Identify the anionic phospholipid that serves as a coagulation factor (Factor III).
Phosphatidylserine.
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68
Identify the ligand for the GP Ib/IX/V complex.
VWF and thrombin.
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69
Identify the bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the GP Ib/IX/V complex.
Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
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70
Identify the ligand for the GP IIb/IIIa integrin receptor.
Fibrinogen and VWF.
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71
Identify the bleeding disorder caused by a deficiency of the GP IIb/IIIa receptor.
Glanzmann's thrombasthenia.
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72
Identify the ligand for the STR receptors P2Y1 and P2Y12.
Adenosine diphosphate (ADP).
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73
Identify the inhibitory receptor that binds Prostaglandin I2 (Prostacyclin).
IP.
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74
Identify the receptor associated with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT).
FcyIIA (CD32).
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75
Identify the integrin found on alpha-granule membranes that serves as a marker for in vivo platelet activation.
P-selectin (CD62).
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76
Identify the protein that forms platelet microtubules.
Tubulin.
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77
Describe the effect of cold temperature on platelet shape due to microtubule disassembly.
Platelets become round.
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78
Identify the protein that forms microfilaments located between microtubules and the membrane.
Actin.
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79
Identify the intermediate filaments that help maintain platelet shape.
Desmin and Vimentin.
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80
Identify the approximate number of alpha-granules in each platelet.
-50 to 80.
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81
Identify the system through which alpha-granule and lysosome contents flow during secretion.
Surface Connected Canalicular System (SCCS).
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82
Enumeration: List the four substances lysosomes stain positive for.
Arylsulfatase, beta-glucuronidase, acid phosphatase, and catalase.
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83
Identify the condensed remnant of the rough endoplasmic reticulum that sequesters calcium.
Dense Tubular System (DTS).
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84
Identify the specific substance whose synthesis is blocked by aspirin ingestion.
Thromboxane A2.
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85
Identify the mechanism of action for Aspirin.
Cyclooxygenase inhibitor.
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86
Identify the alpha-granule protein that functions to inhibit heparin.
Platelet factor-4 (PF4).
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87
Enumeration: List three growth factors present in platelet alpha-granules.
EGF, PDGF, and TGF-beta.
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88
Identify the number of dense granules typically found per platelet.
-2 to 7.
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89
Identify the alternative name for dense granules.
Delta granules.
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90
Enumeration: List the contents of dense granules using the mnemonic MP CHASE.
Magnesium, Phosphate, Calcium, ADP, ATP, Serotonin, and Epinephrine.
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91
Identify the specific dense granule component that is a vasoconstrictor binding to endothelial cells.
Serotonin (5-HT).
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92
Identify the role of divalent cations like Ca2+ and Mg2+ in platelets.
Support platelet activation and coagulation.
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