1What is the most common cause of small bowel obstruction?
Intra-abdominal adhesions (75%)
2What percentage of SBO cases are caused by neoplasms?
Approximately 3%
3What is the hallmark of complete SBO?
Obstipation (absence of stool and flatus)
4What are the classic SBO X-ray findings?
Dilated small bowel >3 cm, air-fluid levels, and paucity of colonic gas
5What is the diagnostic threshold for air-fluid levels in SBO?
At least 3 air-fluid levels
6What is the most reliable imaging test for SBO?
CT scan
7What is the typical CT finding in closed-loop obstruction?
U-shaped or C-shaped dilated loops with converging mesenteric vessels
8What CT findings suggest strangulated SBO?
Bowel wall thickening, pneumatosis intestinalis, portal venous gas, and poor contrast enhancement
9What is the initial management of uncomplicated SBO?
IV fluids, electrolyte correction, NPO, and NGT decompression
10When is surgery indicated in SBO?
Failed conservative treatment or signs of strangulation
11What is the most common cause of postoperative ileus?
Abdominal surgery and bowel manipulation
12What distinguishes ileus from mechanical SBO on auscultation?
Ileus has diminished bowel sounds; SBO has hyperactive, high-pitched sounds
13When does small intestinal peristalsis typically return after surgery?
24 hours
14When does gastric motility typically return after surgery?
48 hours
15When does colonic motility typically return after surgery?
2–5 days
16What is the most reliable indicator of returning bowel motility?
Passage of flatus or bowel movement
17What is Crohn's disease?
Chronic idiopathic transmural inflammatory disease that can affect any part of the GIT
18What is the most commonly affected site in Crohn's disease?
Distal ileum (75%)
19What is the characteristic distribution of Crohn's disease?
Skip lesions
20What layers are affected in Crohn's disease?
All bowel wall layers (transmural)
21What is the characteristic mucosal appearance of Crohn's disease?
Cobblestoning
22What is the earliest lesion in Crohn's disease?
Aphthous ulcers
23What is the pathognomonic mesenteric finding in Crohn's disease?
Creeping fat (fat wrapping)
24What antibody is associated with Crohn's disease?
ASCA positive, pANCA negative
25What type of granulomas occur in Crohn's disease?
Non-caseating granulomas
26What is the main diagnostic procedure for Crohn's disease?
Ileocolonoscopy
27What is the characteristic histologic finding in intestinal tuberculosis?
Caseating granulomas
28What is the main surgical procedure for Crohn's complications?
Segmental resection with end-to-end anastomosis
29What is the purpose of stricturoplasty?
Widening a narrowed intestinal lumen without bowel resection
30What is the indication for Heineke-Mikulicz stricturoplasty?
Short strictures less than 12 cm
31What is the indication for Finney stricturoplasty?
Longer strictures up to 25 cm
32What is a contraindication to stricturoplasty?
Abscess or fistula
33What is an intestinal fistula?
Abnormal communication between two epithelialized hollow surfaces
34What defines a low-output fistula?
Less than 200 mL/day
35What defines a high-output fistula?
More than 500 mL/day
36What is the most important external fistula in surgery?
Enterocutaneous fistula
37What is the most common cause of enterocutaneous fistula?
Iatrogenic injury
38What does FRIENDS stand for in fistula management?
Foreign body, Radiation, Infection, Epithelialization, Neoplasm, Distal obstruction, Short tract
39What is the most useful initial investigation for enterocutaneous fistula?
CT scan
40What is the most sensitive test for identifying fistula origin?
Fistulogram
41What is the initial management of enterocutaneous fistula?
Stabilization, sepsis control, nutrition, and output control
42What medication decreases high-output fistula drainage?
Octreotide
43What is the most common benign small intestinal neoplasm?
Adenoma
44Which adenoma subtype has the highest malignant potential?
Villous adenoma
45What is the most common primary malignant tumor of the small intestine?
Adenocarcinoma
46What is the most common location of small bowel adenocarcinoma?
Duodenum
47What is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the small intestine?
Gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)
48What cells give rise to GIST?
Interstitial cells of Cajal
49What immunohistochemical marker identifies GIST?
CD117 (KIT)
50What is the preferred surgical treatment for localized GIST?
Segmental resection without lymphadenectomy
51What medication is used for metastatic GIST?
Imatinib (Gleevec)
52What is the main treatment for small bowel lymphoma?
Chemotherapy (CHOP)
53What is the most common extranodal lymphoma involving the small intestine?
Intestinal lymphoma
54Where is small intestinal lymphoma commonly located?
Terminal ileum, particularly Peyer's patches
55What is the most common location of small intestinal neuroendocrine tumors?
Ileum (appendix is the most common overall GI site)
56What causes carcinoid syndrome?
Systemic release of serotonin and other mediators, usually with liver metastases
57What are the classic manifestations of carcinoid syndrome?
Flushing, diarrhea, hypotension, and tachycardia
58What is the most effective pharmacologic treatment for carcinoid syndrome?
Octreotide
59What is Meckel's diverticulum?
True diverticulum caused by incomplete obliteration of the vitelline duct
60During which embryonic week does Meckel's diverticulum originate?
8th week
61Where is Meckel's diverticulum located?
Antimesenteric ileum, approximately 2 feet from the ileocecal valve
62What is the Rule of 2s for Meckel's diverticulum?
2% prevalence, 2:1 male predominance, 2 feet from ileocecal valve, 2 inches long, symptomatic before age 2
63What is the gold standard diagnostic test for Meckel's diverticulum?
Tc-99m pertechnetate scan
64What is the most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum in children?
Bleeding
65What is the most common complication of Meckel's diverticulum in adults?
Intestinal obstruction
66What is an acquired intestinal diverticulum?
False diverticulum containing mucosa and submucosa without muscularis propria
67What is the most common location of acquired small bowel diverticula?
Duodenum, particularly periampullary
68What is the most sensitive investigation for jejunoileal diverticula?
Enteroclysis
69What is acute mesenteric ischemia?
Sudden reduction in intestinal blood supply causing bowel ischemia and possible infarction
70What is the most common cause of acute mesenteric ischemia?
Arterial embolism
71What is the most common source of mesenteric arterial emboli?
Cardiac emboli
72What is the hallmark symptom of acute mesenteric ischemia?
Abdominal pain out of proportion to physical findings
73What is the initial imaging test for acute mesenteric ischemia?
CT scan
74What is the most reliable diagnostic investigation for acute mesenteric ischemia?
Angiography
75What is non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia?
Mesenteric vasospasm without mechanical vascular obstruction
76What medication can be infused intra-arterially for non-occlusive mesenteric ischemia?
Papaverine
77What is the most common location of venous mesenteric thrombosis?
Superior mesenteric vein
78What is pneumatosis intestinalis?
Presence of gas within the bowel wall
79What is short bowel syndrome?
Residual small bowel less than 200 cm with significant malabsorption
80What vitamin is primarily absorbed in the terminal ileum?
Vitamin B12
81Where are bile salts primarily reabsorbed?
Terminal ileum
82What is the primary treatment for short bowel syndrome?
Nutritional support, including TPN when necessary
83What is intussusception?
Telescoping of one bowel segment into another
84What is the most common type of pediatric intussusception?
Ileocolic
85What is the characteristic imaging finding in intussusception?
Target or donut sign
86What is Dance's sign?
Empty right lower quadrant due to intussusception
87What is the usual initial treatment for uncomplicated pediatric intussusception?
Hydrostatic reduction
88What is SMA syndrome?
Compression of the third portion of the duodenum between the SMA and aorta
89What aortomesenteric angle suggests SMA syndrome?
Less than 22°
90What aortomesenteric distance suggests SMA syndrome?
Less than 8 mm
91What is radiation enteritis?
Intestinal injury caused by radiation exposure
92At what cumulative radiation dose does radiation enteritis commonly occur in the reviewer?
At least 4,500 cGy
93What is chylous ascites?
Accumulation of triglyceride-rich, milky lymphatic fluid in the peritoneal cavity
94What is the most important initial test for chylous ascites?
Paracentesis
95What is the gold standard investigation for identifying lymphatic leakage?
Lymphangiography
96What is the adult small intestine length?
Approximately 4–6 meters
97What are the three segments of the small intestine?
Duodenum, jejunum, and ileum
98Which small intestinal segment is primarily retroperitoneal?
Duodenum
99What is the length of the duodenum?
Approximately 25–30 cm
100What ligament marks the duodenojejunal junction?
Ligament of Treitz
101Which small intestinal segment comprises the proximal 40% after the duodenum?
Jejunum
102Which small intestinal segment comprises the distal 60%?
Ileum
103Which segment has more Peyer's patches?
Ileum
104Which segment has longer vasa recta?
Jejunum
105Which segment has more mesenteric fat and arterial arcades?
Ileum
106What is the predominant absorptive cell of the small intestine?
Enterocyte
107Which intestinal cells secrete mucus?
Goblet cells
108Which intestinal cells secrete antimicrobial peptides?
Paneth cells
109Which intestinal cells sample antigens over Peyer's patches?
M cells
110Where is Meissner's plexus located?
Submucosa
111Where is Auerbach's plexus located?
Between the circular and longitudinal muscle layers
112What is the main function of Auerbach's plexus?
Regulation of peristalsis
113What is the main function of Meissner's plexus?
Regulation of mucosal secretion and vascular tone
114Which transporter absorbs glucose and galactose?
SGLT1
115Which transporter absorbs fructose?
GLUT5
116Where is vitamin B12 absorbed?
Terminal ileum, bound to intrinsic factor
117Which hormone stimulates gallbladder contraction?
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
118Which hormone stimulates pancreatic and intestinal secretions?
Secretin
119Which hormone stimulates the migrating motor complex?
Motilin
120Which hormone inhibits intestinal motility and secretion?
Peptide YY
121Which hormone stimulates intestinal epithelial proliferation?
GLP-2
122What is the appendix?
A narrow, blind-ended tubular organ arising from the cecum
123Where is the base of the appendix located?
At the convergence of the three taeniae coli
124What is the average length of the appendix?
Approximately 6–9 cm
125What is the most common cause of acute appendicitis?
Luminal obstruction, commonly by a fecalith
126What is the most common cause of appendiceal obstruction in children?
Lymphoid hyperplasia
127What are the four stages of acute appendicitis?
Obstruction, congestion, suppuration, and gangrene/necrosis
128What nerve fibers initially transmit appendicitis pain?
C fibers
129Where is the initial pain of appendicitis usually located?
Periumbilical region
130Which nerve fibers transmit localized appendicitis pain?
A-delta fibers
131Where does appendicitis pain typically migrate?
Right lower quadrant
132What is the most common organism associated with appendicitis?
Escherichia coli
133Which anaerobic organism is commonly associated with appendicitis?
Bacteroides
134What is McBurney's point?
Point approximately one-third of the distance from the right ASIS to the umbilicus
135What is Rovsing's sign?
Left lower quadrant pressure produces right lower quadrant pain
136What is the psoas sign?
Pain with resisted right hip flexion or extension
137What does a positive obturator sign suggest?
Pelvic appendix irritation
138What is Dunphy's sign?
Increased abdominal pain with coughing
139What is the MANTRELL or Alvarado score's maximum?
10 points
140How many Alvarado points are assigned for RLQ tenderness?
2 points
141How many Alvarado points are assigned for leukocytosis?
2 points
142What Alvarado score indicates high probability of appendicitis?
9–10 points
143What is the preferred diagnostic approach for appendicitis according to the reviewer?
History and physical examination
144What pregnancy-related test should be obtained in reproductive-age females with suspected appendicitis?
Serum beta-hCG
145What is the standard surgical treatment for acute appendicitis?
Appendectomy
146What is stump appendicitis?
Inflammation of residual appendiceal tissue after appendectomy
147What is the most common malignant tumor of the appendix?
Carcinoid (neuroendocrine tumor)
148What operation is generally recommended for appendiceal adenocarcinoma?
Right hemicolectomy
149What are the three possible outcomes of appendiceal rupture?
Peritonitis, periappendiceal abscess, and phlegmon
150What is Cantlie's line?
Functional division of the liver following the middle hepatic vein
151What structures does Cantlie's line extend between?
Gallbladder fossa and inferior vena cava
152What is the falciform ligament?
Surface anatomical landmark separating the apparent right and left liver lobes
153Which structure divides the functional right and left liver?
Middle hepatic vein
154What is the largest solid organ in the body?
Liver
155What is the approximate adult liver weight?
1,200–1,500 g
156What is the fibrous covering of the liver?
Glisson's capsule
157What are the components of the portal triad?
Portal vein, hepatic artery, and bile duct
158What is the Pringle maneuver?
Temporary clamping of the hepatoduodenal ligament to control hepatic inflow
159What is the approximate contribution of the hepatic artery to liver blood flow?
25%
160What is the hepatic arterial buffer response?
Hepatic artery dilation when portal venous flow decreases
161What is Couinaud segment I?
Caudate lobe
162Which Couinaud segments comprise the left lateral section?
Segments II and III
163Which Couinaud segment corresponds to the left medial section?
Segment IV
164Which segments comprise the right anterior section?
Segments V and VIII
165Which segments comprise the right posterior section?
Segments VI and VII
166Where do caudate lobe veins drain?
Directly into the inferior vena cava
167Which hepatic vein is the functional transection landmark?
Middle hepatic vein
168What does the left umbilical vein become after birth?
Ligamentum teres
169What does the ductus venosus become after birth?
Ligamentum venosum
170What is the primary function of the liver in carbohydrate metabolism?
Glycogen storage and glucose regulation
171What is the main function of Kupffer cells?
Phagocytosis of microorganisms and debris
172What is the main function of hepatocytes?
Metabolism, detoxification, and bile production
173What does ALT primarily indicate?
Hepatocellular injury
174What does AST indicate?
Hepatocellular injury, but it is less liver-specific than ALT
175What laboratory pattern suggests cholestasis?
Elevated alkaline phosphatase and GGT
176What laboratory measurement reflects hepatic synthetic function?
Albumin and prothrombin time/INR
177What does elevated direct bilirubin suggest?
Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia, often from impaired excretion
178What is acute liver failure?
Acute severe hepatic dysfunction with coagulopathy and encephalopathy in a patient without established cirrhosis
179What are the major causes of acute liver failure?
Drug-induced injury, viral hepatitis, and other severe hepatic insults
180What is the Child-Turcotte-Pugh score used for?
Assessment of cirrhosis severity and prognosis
181What are the five Child-Turcotte-Pugh parameters?
Bilirubin, albumin, INR/PT, ascites, and encephalopathy
182What CTP score corresponds to Class A?
5–6
183What CTP score corresponds to Class B?
7–9
184What CTP score corresponds to Class C?
10–15
185What is the MELD score used for?
Assessment of end-stage liver disease and transplant prioritization
186What is portal hypertension?
Increased pressure within the portal venous system
187What is the most common cause of portal hypertension?
Cirrhosis
188What is the most serious complication of portal hypertension?
Variceal hemorrhage
189What are the major portosystemic collateral sites?
Esophageal, gastric, rectal, and paraumbilical regions
190What is the initial pharmacologic treatment for acute esophageal variceal bleeding?
Vasoactive therapy such as octreotide
191What is the preferred endoscopic treatment for bleeding esophageal varices?
Endoscopic variceal ligation
192What procedure creates a portosystemic shunt to reduce portal pressure?
TIPS (transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt)
193What is hepatocellular carcinoma?
Primary malignancy arising from hepatocytes
194What is the strongest established risk factor for hepatocellular carcinoma?
Cirrhosis
195What tumor marker is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
196What is the Milan criterion for liver transplantation?
Single tumor ≤5 cm or up to three tumors each ≤3 cm, without gross vascular invasion or extrahepatic spread
197What is the most common cause of gallstones?
Cholesterol supersaturation of bile
198What are the two major types of gallstones?
Cholesterol stones and pigment stones
199What is the most important risk factor for gallbladder carcinoma?
Gallstones
200What gallstone size is associated with increased gallbladder cancer risk?
Greater than 3 cm
201What is the most common presentation of acute cholecystitis?
Right upper quadrant pain, fever, and positive Murphy's sign
202What is Murphy's sign?
Inspiratory arrest caused by pain during palpation of the right upper quadrant
203What is the preferred initial imaging for suspected gallstones?
Right upper quadrant ultrasonography
204What is the initial treatment for acute cholecystitis?
Supportive care, antibiotics when indicated, and early cholecystectomy
205What is the critical view of safety in laparoscopic cholecystectomy?
Identification of only two structures entering the gallbladder before division
206What is Calot's triangle?
An anatomical space used to identify the cystic artery and related structures during cholecystectomy
207What is choledocholithiasis?
Presence of gallstones within the common bile duct
208What type of jaundice is commonly caused by CBD stones?
Obstructive jaundice
209What is the gold standard procedure for common bile duct stone clearance?
ERCP
210What is Charcot's triad?
RUQ pain, fever, and jaundice
211What is Reynolds' pentad?
Charcot's triad plus hypotension and altered mental status
212What is acute ascending cholangitis?
Infection of the biliary tree associated with biliary obstruction
213What is the preferred initial definitive treatment for acute cholangitis?
Biliary drainage, commonly through ERCP, alongside supportive care and antibiotics
214What is gallstone ileus?
Mechanical intestinal obstruction caused by a gallstone entering the bowel through a biliary-enteric fistula
215What is Bouveret syndrome?
Gastric outlet obstruction caused by an impacted gallstone near the pylorus or duodenum
216What is a choledochal cyst?
Congenital cystic dilatation of the extrahepatic and/or intrahepatic bile ducts
217What is the classic triad of choledochal cyst?
Jaundice, abdominal pain, and palpable abdominal mass
218What is the definitive treatment for choledochal cyst?
Surgical excision of the affected extrahepatic biliary tree with biliary reconstruction
219What is the most common presentation of cholangiocarcinoma?
Painless obstructive jaundice
220What is a Klatskin tumor?
Perihilar cholangiocarcinoma involving the hepatic duct confluence
221What classification is used for perihilar cholangiocarcinoma?
Bismuth-Corlette classification
222What is the most common location of colorectal cancer?
Distal colon and rectosigmoid region
223What is the dominant risk factor for colorectal cancer?
Increasing age
224What proportion of colorectal cancers are sporadic?
Approximately 80%
225What proportion of colorectal cancers are familial or hereditary?
Approximately 20%
226What is the most common symptom of colorectal cancer?
Change in bowel habits
227What is the most common presentation of right-sided colon cancer?
Occult bleeding and iron-deficiency anemia
228What is the typical presentation of left-sided colon cancer?
Altered bowel habits and intestinal obstruction
229What are the major hereditary colorectal cancer syndromes?
FAP and Lynch syndrome
230What is familial adenomatous polyposis?
Autosomal dominant disorder characterized by hundreds to thousands of colorectal adenomas
231What gene is associated with classic FAP?
APC gene
232What is the lifetime colorectal cancer risk in untreated classic FAP?
Nearly 100%
233What is attenuated FAP?
A milder form with approximately 10–100 adenomas, often right-sided
234What is Lynch syndrome?
Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer caused by mismatch repair gene defects
235Which genes are associated with Lynch syndrome?
MLH1, MSH2, MSH6, PMS2, and EPCAM
236What is Gardner syndrome?
FAP associated with osteomas, epidermoid cysts, and supernumerary teeth
237What is Muir-Torre syndrome?
Lynch-associated syndrome with sebaceous tumors and internal malignancies
238What is Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
Hamartomatous polyposis with mucocutaneous pigmentation
239What is juvenile polyposis syndrome?
Hereditary hamartomatous polyposis characterized by numerous juvenile polyps
240What is the most important preventive treatment for adenomatous colorectal polyps?
Endoscopic polypectomy
241What is the Haggitt classification used for?
Depth of invasion in pedunculated malignant colorectal polyps
242What is the Kikuchi classification used for?
Depth of submucosal invasion in sessile malignant colorectal polyps
243What does TNM staging describe?
Tumor extent, lymph node involvement, and distant metastasis
244What is total mesorectal excision?
Complete removal of the rectum and surrounding mesorectal tissue
245What is the circumferential resection margin?
Radial margin surrounding the rectal tumor and mesorectal specimen
246What imaging is particularly useful for local rectal cancer staging?
Pelvic MRI
247What tumor marker is used in colorectal cancer surveillance?
CEA
248What is the operation for a low rectal cancer requiring removal of the sphincter complex?
Abdominoperineal resection
249What is the consequence of abdominoperineal resection?
Permanent end colostomy
250What is the purpose of a right hemicolectomy?
Removal of the right colon with associated lymphovascular drainage
251What is the most common form of inflammatory bowel disease?
Ulcerative colitis
252What is the characteristic distribution of ulcerative colitis?
Continuous mucosal inflammation beginning in the rectum
253What layers are primarily affected in ulcerative colitis?
Mucosa and submucosa
254What is the characteristic distribution of Crohn's disease compared with ulcerative colitis?
Crohn's has skip lesions; ulcerative colitis has continuous disease
255Which inflammatory bowel disease has greater colorectal cancer risk with extensive longstanding colitis?
Ulcerative colitis
256What is the comb sign in Crohn's disease?
Engorgement of mesenteric vasa recta
257What is diverticulosis?
Presence of colonic diverticula
258What is diverticulitis?
Inflammation of colonic diverticula
259What is the most common site of colonic diverticula?
Sigmoid colon
260What is the most common location of anal fissures?
Posterior midline
261What is the classic symptom of anal fissure?
Severe tearing pain during defecation
262What is the first-line treatment for acute anal fissure?
Stool softeners, fiber, hydration, and warm sitz baths
263What is the surgical treatment for chronic anal fissure?
Lateral internal sphincterotomy
264What are internal hemorrhoids located relative to the dentate line?
Above the dentate line
265What are external hemorrhoids located relative to the dentate line?
Below the dentate line
266What is the classic symptom of internal hemorrhoids?
Painless bright-red rectal bleeding
267Why are external hemorrhoids painful when thrombosed?
They are covered by somatically innervated anoderm
268What are the four grades of internal hemorrhoids?
Grade I no prolapse; II spontaneous reduction; III manual reduction; IV irreducible
269What is the treatment for grade III–IV hemorrhoids?
Hemorrhoidectomy when indicated
270What is the principle of rubber band ligation?
Compression causes hemorrhoidal tissue necrosis and subsequent sloughing
271What is an anorectal abscess?
Localized collection of pus in the anorectal spaces
272What is the definitive treatment for anorectal abscess?
Surgical drainage
273What is a fistula-in-ano?
Abnormal tract connecting the anal canal to perianal skin
274What is Goodsall's rule?
Anterior external openings usually follow a straight tract; posterior openings usually curve to the posterior midline
275What is Fournier's gangrene?
Necrotizing infection of the perineal and genital fascia
276What is the definitive treatment for Fournier's gangrene?
Urgent surgical debridement and broad-spectrum antibiotics
277What is pilonidal disease?
Hair-containing sinus or abscess in the intergluteal cleft
278What is the most common permanent ileostomy configuration?
End ileostomy (Brooke)
279What is the recommended location of a stoma?
Through the rectus muscle and below the belt line
280What is the main pancreatic duct called?
Wirsung's duct
281What is the accessory pancreatic duct called?
Santorini's duct
282Where does the main pancreatic duct usually open?
Major duodenal papilla
283Where does the accessory pancreatic duct usually open?
Minor duodenal papilla
284What is the primary exocrine function of the pancreas?
Secretion of digestive enzymes and bicarbonate
285What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?
Regulation of blood glucose through islet hormones
286Which pancreatic cells produce insulin?
Beta cells
287Which pancreatic cells produce glucagon?
Alpha cells
288Which pancreatic cells produce somatostatin?
Delta cells
289Which pancreatic cells produce pancreatic polypeptide?
PP cells
290What is acute pancreatitis?
Acute inflammation of the pancreas
291What are the two most common causes of acute pancreatitis?
Gallstones and alcohol
292What is the most characteristic pain of acute pancreatitis?
Severe epigastric pain radiating to the back
293Which laboratory enzyme is most useful for diagnosing acute pancreatitis?
Serum lipase
294What are the two commonly used diagnostic criteria for acute pancreatitis?
Serum lipase/amylase at least three times normal and characteristic abdominal pain
295What is the Ranson score used for?
Assessment of acute pancreatitis severity and prognosis
296What is BISAP used for?
Early severity and mortality risk assessment in acute pancreatitis
297What are Cullen's and Grey Turner's signs associated with?
Severe hemorrhagic pancreatitis
298What is Cullen's sign?
Periumbilical ecchymosis
299What is Grey Turner's sign?
Flank ecchymosis
300What is the initial management of acute pancreatitis?
IV fluid resuscitation, analgesia, and appropriate nutritional support