Biology

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a part of the body's chemical defense system against infection? a. Urine b. Hydrochloric acid c. Agranulocyte d. Lysozyme

Accepted Answer

c. Agranulocytes Agranulocytes are a type of white blood cell and therefore are not a part of the body's chemical defense system.

Question 2

Which of the following is considered an example of naturally acquired passive immunity?

a. Attenuated (live) vaccine injection
b. Breastfeeding
c. Inactivated (killed) vaccine injection
d. Exposure to a disease and subsequent immunity

Accepted Answer

b. breastfeeding
Natural passive immunity occurs when live antibodies are transferred from one individual to another, such as when anti-bodies are transferred from a mother to her baby via breast milk.

Question 3

Worms lack which of the following? a. Eyes and brain b. Brain c. Eyes d. Nerve centers

Accepted Answer

a. eyes and brain Worms lack both eyes and a brain, but they do have nerve centers.

Question 4

Which organelle is responsible for generating ATP that is used for chemical energy? a. Mitochondria b. Vesicle c. Ribosome d. Golgi apparatus

Accepted Answer

a. mitochondria The mitochondrion is often referred to as the "power plant" of the cell, because it generates ATP, the cell's source of chemical energy.

Question 5

Which of the following is true with regard to eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?

a. Prokaryotic cells can contain lysosomes.
b. Eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
c. Prokaryotic cells can contain lysosomes and eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
d. Prokaryotic cells have a nucleus.

Accepted Answer

- Eukaryotic cells have mitochondria.
One of the major differences between eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells is that eukaryotic cells contain organelles, such as mitochondria, whereas prokaryotic cells do not.

Question 6

Positive feedback is a mechanism used by the body that results in amplification or enhancement of a signal that has already been activated. An example of this would be:

a. Slowing metabolism in response to starvation
b. Shivering to increase temperature
c. Blood vessels regulating blood pressure
d. The release of oxytocin to increase contractions during childbirth

Accepted Answer

- The release of oxytocin to increase contractions during childbirth
Contractions in childbirth are considered a positive feedback loop because each contraction stimulates the brain to release more Oxytocin, which in turn stimulates more contractions.

Question 7

When placed in a hypotonic solution, a cell will do which of the following? a. Remain the same b. Disintegrate c. Swell d. Shrink

Accepted Answer

- swell
Water always moves from areas of higher concentration to lower concentration. A hypotonic solution contains less solutes and more water then the contents inside of the cell, so water will move from outside of the cell to inside, causing it to swell.

Question 8

Which is NOT an effect of photo-oxidation? a. Increase in tensile strength b. Discoloration c. Increase in brittleness d. Loss of surface smoothness

Accepted Answer

- Increase in tensile strength
Photo-oxidation occurs when UV light and ozone break down the surface of polymers. The result is the material becoming more brittle and discolored and less strong and smooth.

Question 9

The movement of a substance across a cell membrane from low to high concentration is known as what? a. Passive transport b. Diffusion c. Active transport d. Facilitated diffusion

Accepted Answer

- Active transport Active transport is the movement of molecules against their concentration gradient, such as when moving from low to high concentration.

Question 10

During which stage of mitosis does the single cell split into two separate daughter cells? a. Telophase b. Cytokinesis c. Anaphase d. Prophase

Accepted Answer

- Cytokinesis Cytokinesis occurs late in the process of mitosis and is marked by a single cell splitting into two daughter cells.

Question 11

Which of the following is NOT an example of an ecosystem? a. Marine b. Desert c. Ozone d. Grassland

Accepted Answer

- Ozone
An ecosystem is the interaction between living and non-living things in their environment. The ozone does not mean this definition as living and non-living things do not live and interact there.

Question 12

Decomposition occurs fastest in which type of environment? a. Moist, oxygenated b. Very dry, deoxygenated c. Very wet, deoxygenated d. Very dry, oxygenated

Accepted Answer

- Moist, oxygenated The microbes involved in decomposition need oxygen and they function quicker at higher temperatures, which is why decomposition occurs at faster rates in moist, oxygenated areas.

Question 13

In a bird or a bee, the crop is responsible for what? a. Aiding in flying b. Maintaining balance when perched c. Storing food prior to digestion d. Helping to grind food

Accepted Answer

- Storing food prior to digestion The crop is a muscular pouch that is part of the bird's digestive system.

Question 14

One partner benefitting while the other is harmed is what form of symbiotic relationship? a. Predation b. Commensalism c. Cannibalism d. Parasitism

Accepted Answer

- Parasitism Parasitism is a non-mutual relationship where one organism benefits or feeds off another but does not kill them, such as with human head lice.

Question 15

The stigma of a flower serves what purpose? a. To bait pollinators b. To collect pollen c. To manufacture pollen d. To fertilize

Accepted Answer

- To collect pollen The stigma collects pollen at pollination. Stigmas can either be long and thin or globe-shaped.

Question 16

Mycology is defined as the study of what? a. Microorgansims b. Parasites c. Fungi d. Muscles

Accepted Answer

- Fungi Mycology is the study of fungi and its properties and taxonomy.

Question 17

Which of the following taxonomic ranks is arranged to show broadest, most inclusive to narrowest, most exclusive?

a. Species, Genus, Family
b. Species, Family, Class
c. Phylum, Species, Order
d. Kingdom, Phylum, Class

Accepted Answer

- Kingdom, Phylum, Class From broadest to most narrow, the order of taxonomic rank is: Life, Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

Question 18

The ability of an open system to regulate its internal environment to maintain stable conditions is... a, Homeostasis b. Biofeedback c. Osmosis d. Negative Feedback

Accepted Answer

- Homeostasis Homeostasis is defined as the regulation of variables so that internal conditions remain stable and balanced.

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT a biotic factor? a. Rock b. Worm c. Rose d. Child

Accepted Answer

- Rock A biotic factor is a living thing such as a plant or animal. Rocks do not meet this definition.

Question 20

Which is not a morphology of bacterial classification? a. Vibrio b. Bacillus c. Coccus d. Gram

Accepted Answer

- Gram
Bacteria are classified according to their morphological features, including cell shape, motility, and Gram stain reaction. Although positive or negative reaction to the Gram stain test is a morphological feature of bacteria, it is not a bacterial classification.

Question 21

Halophile archaebacteria only survive in which type of environment? a. Heat b. Cold c. Low pH d. Salt

Accepted Answer

- salt The word "halophile" derives from a Greek word meaning "salt-loving."

Question 22

What are bacteria that need oxygen to survive called? a. Anaerobic b. Oxyphobic c. Oxyphillic d. Aerobic

Accepted Answer

- Aerobic Aerobic bacteria need oxygen to live and grow, whereas anaerobic bacteria do not.

Question 23

Where do bacteria live? a. In the human body b. All of these c. In the water d. In the soil

Accepted Answer

- all of these Bacteria are found in various places, including soil, water, and in the human body.

Question 24

What is the cilium-like structure present in certain bacteria cells that allows them to attach to a host tissue? a. Fimbria b. Cilia c. Tentacles d. Flagella

Accepted Answer

- Fimbria Fimbria are appendages found on many Gram-negative (and some Gram-positive) bacteria that allow them to attach to other bacteria, cells, or inanimate objects.

Question 25

Which of the following is a disease not caused by bacteria? a. Diphtheria b. Parkinson's c. Cholera d. Syphilis

Accepted Answer

- Parkinson's Parkinson's is a degenerative disorder of the central nervous system and is not caused by bacterial infection.

Question 26

Thigmotropism is the oriented growth of an organism in response to which of the following? a. Light b. Heat c. Gravity d. Physical contact

Accepted Answer

- Physical contact Thigmotropism occurs when a plant grows in response to stimuli or touch. Climbing vines are an example of a plant that exhibit this phenomena.

Question 27

Which chemical(s) carry an impulse along a nerve cell? a. Scandium and iron b. Iron and sodium c. Hydroxyapatite d. Sodium and potassium

Accepted Answer

- Sodium and potassium Nerve signals are carried out in part by the coordinated movement of sodium and potassium ions across the cell membrane.

Question 28

Which of the following is true of viruses? a. Some are parasitic, some are not b. They are acellular c. They are larger than bacteria d. heir genetic material can be composed of DNA, RNA, or both

Accepted Answer

- They are acellular
Viruses are considered acellular because they do not have organelles or cytoplasm. All viruses are parasitic, as they depend on a host source to be able to reproduce. Viruses can be composed of either DNA or RNA, both not both. If they are composed of RNA, they are called a retrovirus. Viruses are typically much smaller than bacteria.

Question 29

Which of the following is a correct description of metaphase during mitosis?

a. The nuclear envelope disappears and the chromosomes begin to attach to the spindle that forms along the axis of the cell.
b. Chromosomes gather on either side of the now separating cell.
c. Chromosomes start to separate.
d. Chromosomes align along the center of the cell.

Accepted Answer

- Chromosomes align along the center of the cell

Question 1 Explanation:
During metaphase, the chromosomes align along the center of the cell. During prometaphase the nuclear envelope disappears and the chromosomes start to attach to the spindle. Anaphase is when the chromosomes start to separate. Telophase is when the chromosomes gather on either side of the now separating cell

Question 30

Where can ribosomes be found inside a cell?

a. Attached to the endoplasmic reticulum and in the cytoplasm.
B. Only in the cytoplasm.
C. Only attached to the endoplasmic reticulum.
D. None of the above.

Accepted Answer

- Attached to the endoplasmic reticulum and in the cytoplasm Ribosomes can be found in two places: attached to the endoplasmic reticulum (Rough ER) or free floating in the cytoplasm.

Question 31

What is the role of the Golgi apparatus in the cell?

A. To provide intracellular digestion.
B. To provide transportation of materials throughout the cell.
C. To uptake food through the cell membrane.
D. To produce cellular respiration.

Accepted Answer

- To provide transportation of materials throughout the cell.
Question 3 Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is responsible for transport of materials throughout the cell. Intracellular digestion occurs within lysosomes, while food uptake is the job of vacuoles. Cellular respiration is the function of mitochondria.

Question 32

What characteristic of water allows for hydrogen bonding between molecules? A. Its high specific heat. B. Its cohesive properties. C. Its covalent bonds. D. Its polar nature.

Accepted Answer

- Its polar nature. Question 4 Explanation: Although all the other characteristics about water are true, water's polar nature is what allows for hydrogen bonding between molecules.

Question 33

Which of the following is the MOST inclusive in the hierarchic system of organization? A. Kingdom. B. Class. C. Genus. D. Species

Accepted Answer

- Kingdom

Question 5 Explanation:
The most inclusive classification is Kingdom, which includes all forms of life on earth. The most EXCLUSIVE would be Species. The mnemonic "King Philip Came Over For Great Spaghetti," can be used to recall the order of the system from most inclusive to least inclusive.

Question 34

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated? A. G1 B. S C. G2 D. D1

Accepted Answer

- S phase
Question 6 Explanation:
The G1, S, and G2 phases are called interphase. S phase is when DNA is replicated. (G1 = growth phase, G2 = second growth phase and preparation for division). There is no such thing as the D1 phase.

Question 35

Which of the following processes reduces cells originally classified as diploid to haploid? A. Meiosis. B. Mitosis. C. Both meiosis and mitosis. D. Neither meiosis and mitosis.

Accepted Answer

- Meiosis. Question 7 Explanation: Meiosis is a process of cellular division where cells begin as diploid and end as haploid.

Question 36

Which of the following is an example of a cell created by meiosis? A. Kidney cell. B. Sperm cell. C. Brain cell. D. Skin cell.

Accepted Answer

- Sperm cell.

Question 8 Explanation:
Sperm contain 23 chromosomes that are combined with another 23 from an egg to produce a diploid combination. Meiosis replicates sex, or sperm, cells and mitosis replicates somatic, or body, cells.

Question 37

The Krebs cycle is a process described as:

A. the creation of ATP and Pyruvate.
B. the creation of GTP and NADH.
C. the process by which plants take in carbon dioxide and produce oxygen.
D. a linear method of creating energy.

Accepted Answer

- the creation of GTP and NADH

Question 9 Explanation:
This description is the most correct. The Krebs cycle involves creating energy in the form of 2 GTPs (which convert to ATP) and NADH (and FAHD2 which donate the electrons to the ETC), not harvesting it, and it is not only used by plants. In addition, it is cyclical, not linear. ATP and Pyruvate are created by glycolysis.

Question 38

The plasma membranes of cells are composed of: A. a single layer of phospholipid molecules. B. a bilayer of phospholipid molecules. C. proteins that act as transport highways. D. mitochondria.

Accepted Answer

- a bilayer of phospholipid molecules Question 10 Explanation: Plasma membranes are composed of a bilayer of phospholipid molecules.

Question 39

Which of the following activities does NOT lead to cellular energy production? A. Glycolysis. B. Gluconeogenesis. C. Oxidative Phosphorylation. D. Cellular Respiration.

Accepted Answer

- Gluconeogenesis

Question 11 Explanation:
Cellular respiration leads to glycolysis while Oxidative Phosphorylation (a type of cellular respiration), and both create energy by catabolism. Gluconeogenesis is the creation of sugar using energy.

Question 40

Using garden peas, which of the following scientists discovered the basic principles of genetics? A. Galileo. B. Mendel. C. Curie. D. Hawking.

Accepted Answer

- Mendel Question 12 Explanation: Gregor Mendel discovered, through careful experimentation with garden peas, that there existed genetic properties to account for certain characteristics.

Question 41

The alternative versions of a single gene are known as: A. traits. B. characteristics. C. RNA. D. alleles.

Accepted Answer

- Alleles Question 13 Explanation: Alleles are alternative versions of a single gene that codes for a certain trait.

Question 42

What device makes it possible to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring of sexual reproduction? A. Punnett square. B. Chi square. C. PCR. D. Microscope.

Accepted Answer

- Punnett square Question 14 Explanation: A Punnett square makes it possible to predict the genotype/phenotype by listing alleles and their various possible combinations and likelihoods

Question 43

The traits which an organism shows (as opposed to what its genes code for), is known by which of the following terms? a. Phenotype. b. Genotype. c. Stereotype. d. Classification.

Accepted Answer

- phenotype

Question 15 Explanation:
The phenotype of an organism is a demonstration of the genes expressed, rather than what they actually code for (genotype). Phenotype can be remembered as the physical characteristics of an organism.

Question 44

An organism that has a genotype of two dominant alleles for one gene is: A. Heterozygous. B. Homozygous. C. Multiparous. D. Nulliparous

Accepted Answer

- Homozygous Question 16 Explanation: When an organism possesses the same type of alleles for one gene, it is homozygous. The prefix homo- indicates same, and the prefix hetero- indicates different.

Question 45

The method by which mRNA is created is begun by which of the following processes? A. Replication. B. Translation. C. Splitting. D. Transcription.

Accepted Answer

- Transcription. Question 17 Explanation: Transcription is the first step in the creation of mRNA from a strand of DNA.

Question 46

Which scientists are responsible for describing the structure of DNA? a. Watson and Crick. b. Watson and Holmes. c. Holmes and Croiger. d. Brown and Curie.

Accepted Answer

- Watson and Crick. Question 18 Explanation: Francis Crick and James D. Watson are the scientists responsible for describing the double helix structure of DNA.

Question 47

All genes can be described using the Punnett Square method. True or False? A. True B. False

Accepted Answer

- False Question 19 Explanation: False. There are many more complicated forms of genetic expression available than the simple genetics represented by the Punnett Square.

Question 48

The term pleiotropy is best defined as:

a. A condition in which multiple genes are missing.
b. A situation in which one gene remains unexpressed.
c. One gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits.
d. Two genes affected by a single allele.

Accepted Answer

- One gene influencing multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits.

Question 20 Explanation:
Pleiotropy describes conditions where one gene has multiple effects on phenotypic traits. The prefix pleio- means "many," or "more," and -tropy means "way."

Question 49

Which molecules are responsible for the base pairing action in DNA? a. Phosphate groups. b. Sugar molecules. c. Nitrogenous bases. d. Codons.

Accepted Answer

- Nitrogenous bases. Question 21 Explanation: Base pairs are formed by hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases (ATGC) while the sugar and phosphate make up the 'back bone

Question 50

Glycolysis is the conversion of _______ to ______ in the process of cellular respiration. a. Glucose, pyruvate. b. Pyruvate, glucose. c. NADH, pyruvate. d. NADH, ATP.

Accepted Answer

- Glucose, pyruvate. Question 22 Explanation: Glycolysis is the conversion of glucose to pyruvate and is the first step in the process of cellular respiration.

Question 51

The oxidation of the NADH molecules to produce oxygen and water in cellular respiration takes place in a series of steps defined as:

a. Cellular inspiration.
b. Krebs cycle.
c. Electron transport chain.
d. Cellular conversion.

Accepted Answer

- Electron transport chain. Question 23 Explanation: The electron transport chain oxidizes NADH molecules to produce oxygen and finally to produce water.

Question 52

For every glucose molecule utilized during cellular respiration, approximately how many ATP molecules can be produced? A. 14 to 18. B. 18 to 25. C. 32 to 36. D. 68 to 70.

Accepted Answer

- 32 to 36.
Question 24 Explanation:

Cellular respiration can generate from 32 to 36 molecules of ATP for every single glucose molecule broken down. The number of ATP is described as a range because the reaction is not perfect and will sometimes yield more or less ATP.

Question 53

Cells with a high rate of protein synthesis generally have a large number of which of the following cellular structures? a. Mitochondria. b. Ribosomes. c. Lysosomes. d. Golgi apparati.

Accepted Answer

- Ribosomes Question 25 Explanation: Ribosomes aid in protein synthesis. Therefore, cells with a high rate of protein synthesis tend to have a large number of ribosomes.

Question 54

A scientist is proposing an experiment to study the effect of a certain chemical on rat brain development. The scientist believes that this chemical will enhance the rats' brain development. Which of the following terms describes this step of the scientific process?

a. Hypothesis.
b. Experiment.
c. Analysis.
d. Conclusion.

Accepted Answer

- Hypothesis

Question 26 Explanation:
The scientist has formed a hypothesis, a statement of certain events or happenings, and is ready to conduct his experiment. Analysis is not a step in the scientific method.

Question 55

Which of the following is a correct description of the shape of frozen water molecules? a. Ladder. b. Block. c. Parallel. d. Lattice.

Accepted Answer

- Lattice Question 27 Explanation: When frozen, water molecules form a lattice structure. This is the reason that ice appears to "expand" in comparison to water.

Question 56

What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids?

a. Saturated fatty acids contain double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.
b. Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.
c. Saturated fatty acids often contain two or more pairs of double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.
d. There is no difference between saturated and unsaturated fatty acids.

Accepted Answer

- Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds, unlike unsaturated fatty acids.

Question 28 Explanation:
Saturated fatty acids contain no double bonds, while unsaturated fatty acids do contain double bonds.

Question 57

Diets that contain high amounts of saturated fatty acids are linked to what disease type? a. Renal. b. Coronal. c. Cardiovascular. d. Pleural.

Accepted Answer

- Cardiovascular Question 29 Explanation: Diets containing high amounts of saturated fatty acids have been linked to cardiovascular problems. Cardiovascular refers to the heart and blood vessels.

Question 58

Based on the inherent properties of water molecules, what effect would a large body of water have on the temperature of a climate? A. Increase. B. Decrease. C. Stabilize. D. Destabilize.

Accepted Answer

- Stabilize. Question 30 Explanation: A large body of water will have a stabilizing effect on a climate due to its high specific heat property.

Question 59

Which of the following descriptions relates to water's property of cohesion?

A. Water beading together on top of a freshly waxed car.
B. An ocean stabilizing the temperature of a region.
C. Water dissolving salt to become salt water.
D. A bottle of water cracking when left in the freezer.

Accepted Answer

- Water beading together on top of a freshly waxed car.

Question 31 Explanation:
Cohesion describes the tendency of molecules of the same substance to bond together, as is demonstrated in water beading. An ocean stabilizing local temperature refers to water's high specific heat. Water dissolving salt to become saltwater refers to its potent solvent ability. The bottle of water that cracks after being left in the freezer is an example of the expansion of water during freezing due to its lattice structure.

Question 60

In DNA, adenosine will only bond with which of the following base pairs? A. Adenosine. B. Thymine. C. Guanine. D. Uracil.

Accepted Answer

- Thymine.

Question 32 Explanation:
Adenosine will only bond with thymine, and guanine will only bond with cytosine. Adenosine will bind to Uracil only in RNA. Cardiovascular refers to the heart and blood vessels. A useful mnemonic device for recalling not only the base pairings, but also whether the nucleotide is a purine or a pyrimidine is "GCAT PuPy PuPy" for DNA, and "GCAU PuPy PuPy" for RNA. This method links G to C, and A to T or U, while G and A are described as purines and C, T, and U are described as pyrimidines.

Question 61

A pea plant has alleles for the dominant tall gene (T) and the recessive short gene (t). Therefore, it appears as Tt. Which of the following will correctly describe its phenotype if there is complete dominance? And which describes incomplete dominance? (complete, incomplete)

a. Tall, Tall
b. Average. Tall
c. Tall, Average
d. Tall, Short

Accepted Answer

- Tall, Average

Question 33 Explanation:
Because the dominant allele is present, this pea plant will be tall despite its recessive gene in complete dominance. In Incomplete dominance however, the gene must be homozygous to show one trait. Otherwise the phenotype will be a mixture of the two alleles.

Question 62

What is the function of tRNA during DNA transcription?

a. tRNA bonds together amino acids and then releases them to create an elongated chain of amino acids.
b. tRNA contains codons during DNA transcription.
c. tRNA is the piece of DNA produced during transcription.
d. tRNA brings the amino acids to the site of synthesis.

Accepted Answer

- tRNA brings the amino acids to the site of synthesis.

Question 34 Explanation:
tRNA brings the amino acids to the site of protein synthesis. Ribosomes bond together amino acids and then release them to create an elongated chain of amino acids. tRNA contains anticodons, not codons, and mRNA is the new piece of DNA produced.

Question 63

The liver is an organ responsible for detoxifying the body of many harmful substances. Therefore, you might expect the liver to contain a high amount of:

a. Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
b. Lysosomes.
c. Mitochondria.
d. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Accepted Answer

- Smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Question 35 Explanation: Smooth endoplasmic reticulum has a large function in detoxifying and metabolizing many molecules.

Question 64

A scientist conducts an experiment to discover the effect of music on plant growth. He hypothesizes that the music will help plants grow at a faster rate than plants without music. By the end of the experiment, plants grown with music playing grew to an average height of 5.6 inches, while plants grown without music playing grew to an average height of 2.3 inches. Which of the following is the scientist's correct conclusion?

A. All plants grow better with music.
B. In the experiment, plants grown with music grew better than those grown without it.
C. In the experiment, plants grown without music grew better than those grown without it.
D. All plants grow better without music.

Accepted Answer

- In the experiment, plants grown with music grew better than those grown without it.

Question 36 Explanation:
This is the correct conclusion to draw from this experiment. "All plants" is too general a term. The data supports the conclusion that music aided growth.

Biology

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