1What property must a nucleus have to give an NMR signal, and which nuclei have it?
A nonzero spin, which gives it a magnetic moment (a tiny bar magnet).
Paired protons and neutrons cancel: even + even → spin 0 (12C, 16O invisible; in water only 1H is seen). One odd number → half-integer spin (1H, 13C, 31P: 1/2; 23Na: 3/2). Both odd → integer spin (2H, 14N: 1).
Trap: integer spin is not zero spin; 2H and 14N are MR-visible.
2
How many energy states does a spin-1/2 nucleus like 1H have in B0, and what are their energies?
Two: m = +1/2 (α: along B0, lower energy) and m = −1/2 (β: against B0, higher energy).
In general 2I + 1 states, m = −I … +I (spin-1 2H or 14N has three). Along B0: μz = γħm and E = −γħmB0, so ΔE = γħB0.
Trap: the spin's magnitude is ħ√(I(I+1)) (ħ√3/2 for 1H), not ħ·I.
3
Why is 1H the default nucleus for MRI?
It is the most abundant nucleus in tissue (water, fat) and the most sensitive (largest γ of the common nuclei).
Signal grows with the number of spins and with γ (bigger γ → bigger energy gap and stronger induced voltage). 1H wins on both, so 13C, 31P etc. give far weaker signals.
4
What does the gyromagnetic ratio γ tell you?
How strongly a nucleus's magnetism couples to a field, and therefore how fast it precesses per tesla.
It is fixed for each isotope (μ = γ × angular momentum). For 1H: γ = 267.5 × 10^6 rad/s/T, i.e. γ/2π = 42.58 MHz/T. Different nuclei → different γ → different operating frequency and coil tuning.
5
What is the proton Larmor frequency at 14.1 T?
About 600 MHz.
f_L = (γ/2π) × B0 = 42.58 MHz/T × 14.1 T ≈ 600 MHz. Other fields: 9.4 T → ≈ 400 MHz, 3 T → ≈ 128 MHz.
6
ω vs f in the Larmor equation
f counts cycles per second (Hz); ω counts radians per second. ω = 2πf.
So ω_L = γB0 uses γ in rad/s/T, while f_L = (γ/2π)B0 uses 42.58 MHz/T.
Trap: answers that are off by exactly 2π (≈ 6.28) come from mixing the two.
7
What does B0 do to the protons before any RF pulse?
It splits them into two energy levels (Zeeman splitting) with gap ΔE = γħB0 = h·f_L.
A stronger field gives a bigger gap. A photon at exactly f_L carries exactly ΔE, which is why the RF has to be at the Larmor frequency.
8
How big is the population excess in the lower energy state, and why so small?
Tiny: roughly 10 per million at 3 T, about 50 per million at 14.1 T (body temperature).
Boltzmann: n_low/n_high = exp(ΔE/kT). The Zeeman gap is far smaller than thermal energy kT, so the two levels are almost equally filled. Only the small surplus produces magnetization.
9
What sets the equilibrium magnetization M0?
M0 ∝ ρ·B0/T: more protons, a stronger field or a colder sample → more magnetization.
ρ (proton density) = more arrows to add; B0 widens the gap → bigger surplus; temperature T shrinks the surplus. Full form: M0 = ρ(γħ)^2·B0/(4kT).
Trap: M0 depends on B0, not on B1.
10
Why is MR called an insensitive technique?
Only the tiny population surplus (ppm level) contributes; almost all the spins cancel each other.
That is why MR needs strong magnets, efficient coils and averaging, and why mM-level molecules (MRS metabolites) are so hard to see next to water.
11
What happens to M0 and f_L if B0 is doubled?
Both double: M0 ∝ B0 and f_L ∝ B0.
The induced voltage grows even more than M0, because faster precession changes the coil flux faster. This is the main reason for building high-field scanners.
12
What is the net magnetization M, physically?
The vector sum of all the nuclear magnetic moments in a small volume.
Picture millions of arrows: opposite ones cancel, the small surplus along B0 survives. MRI only ever manipulates and measures this sum, never individual spins.
13
Longitudinal vs transverse magnetization
Longitudinal (Mz) points along B0 (z); transverse (Mxy) lies in the plane perpendicular to B0.
Only Mxy rotating around B0 induces a voltage, so only Mxy is "seen". Mz is the reservoir that an RF pulse converts into Mxy. Mxy = √(Mx^2 + My^2).
14
What do Mz, Mx and My equal at equilibrium, and why is there no signal?
Mz = M0, Mx = My = 0.
The transverse parts of individual spins point in random directions and cancel. M lies along B0, so nothing rotates and the flux through the coil doesn't change. An RF pulse is needed to tip M.
15
What is Larmor precession?
A tipped magnetic moment rotating around the B0 axis at f_L, like a spinning top wobbling around gravity.
B0 exerts a torque on the moment. Precession keeps the tilt and the length the same; it only rotates the direction. Stronger local field → faster precession.
16
Frequency vs phase of a precessing spin
Frequency = how fast it goes around; phase = where it is on its circle right now.
Like runners on a circular track: two can run at the same speed but be at different places (different phase). MRI uses both: frequency encoding and phase encoding.
17
What is phase coherence and why does the signal depend on it?
Coherence = the transverse arrows point the same way at the same moment, so they add up to a large Mxy.
If the phases fan out, the arrows cancel and the signal falls even though every spin is still precessing. Signal loss (T2, T2*) is really loss of phase alignment.
18
Why is the Larmor equation behind almost everything in MR?
Frequency follows the local field, so anything that changes the field a spin feels changes its frequency.
Gradients (→ position encoding), electron shielding (→ chemical shift, MRS) and imperfect B0 (→ dephasing, T2*) all act through f = (γ/2π)·B_local.