Cardiac Boards Review

158 flashcardsby Madi
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1
P wave= ______ ; this is when the atria will _____ forcing blood into the _____
- atrial depolarization
- Collapse
- ventricles
2
QRS wave= _______ during this the ventricles _____ & push the blood into the _______ or _____. during the QRS wave is also about when _________ or _______ occurs
- ventricular depolarization
- contract
- aorta or the pulmonary artery
- atrial repolarization
- Relaxation
3
During the plateau phase of the EKG your at the __________ and your beginning to relax
Height of your contraction
4
Ventricular repolarization happens throughout the _____ phase & the ______; during the T wave you see a more ______
- plateau
- T wave
- Rapid change in the ventricular repolarization
5
Long QT syndrome is a delay in the ______ process with a QTc > _____ seconds
- ventricular repolarization
- 0.46 ( normal = < 0.44 sec.)
6
Long QT can also be acquired & is usually a result of _______
electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia or hypocalcemia
7
Patients with _______, ______ & _______ can also develop long QT syndrome
hypothyroidism, anorexia nervosa, and head trauma
8
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy occurs when the heart muscle (usually ventricles & septum) ______ & ______ creating _______ of the ventricles making it hard for the heart to ______
- enlarges and thickens
- narrowing or blockage
- pump
9
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can also result in _______ of the ventricles leading to problems with your ______ valve
- Stiffening
- Mitral
10
Dilated cardiomyopathy is the ___________ causing _______ of the ventricular wall in the ventricular septum so the muscle is very weak and don't pump effectively leading to _____
- Dilation of all 4 chambers where the ventricle wall are NOT thickened
- narrowing
- Dec. CO & clots
11
Restrictive Cardiomyopathy develop b/c the ventricle walls and septum become ____ but don't necessarily ____ and don't allow the ventricles to ________ to normal volume
- rigid, but don't necessarily thicken
- relax and fill
12
The etiology of cardiomyopathies they can be congenital, assoc. w/ diff. malformation syndromes, such as ______ and ________ and other neuromuscular disorders. Also, different inborn errors of metabolism
Noonans syndrome, Duchenne muscular dystrophy
13
The definition of shock is an imbalance between
oxygen demand and oxygen delivery to the body's tissues
14
Cardiogenic shock is the inability to deliver oxygen effectively because
your heart suddenly can't pump enough blood to meet your body's needs
15
Cardinal signs of cardiogenic shock include _______, _______, ______, _________
JVD, *gallop*, pulsus paradoxus (tamponade), murmurs (structural lesions)
16
Pulses paradoxus is a decrease in their _______ blood pressure during ________ > 10, usually as a result of cardiac tamponade
- systolic
- inspiration
17
Ionized calcium is essential for _______
cardiac contraction
18
Children < 1 y.o have less calcium stores in their myocardium, so we generally like their ionized calcium to be > _______. kids > 1y.o it should be > ________
- 1.2
- 1
19
What electrolytes are important to monitor in a pt. in cardiogenic shock?
Ical, phosphorus, sodium and potassium
20
Cardiogenic shock will sometimes present with a _____ CVP pre fluid resuscitation. These patients require _____ and ______ NOT fluids
- high
- Dopamine and Milrinone
21
Milrinone helps improve you ____ and ____ of your heart, helping it to work better
CO and Contractility
22
Inotropes help with the ______ of the heart
Contractility
23
Chronotropes help with sustaining the ______ of the heart
rate
24
Lusitropy is increasing the hearts ability to _____
relax
25
For a patient who has a decreased CO but an increased SVR (ex. HF), you need to start them on an ________ ± a _______
- Inotrope
- Vasodilator
26
For a patient who has an increased CO and decreased SVR, you need to start them on a ________
Vasopressor
27
For a patient who has a decreased CO and decreased SVR, you need to start them on an _______ and a ______
Inotrope and vasopressor
28
Digoxin (Digitalis) MOA
Helps increase your Intracellular calcium by blocking the sodium potassium ATPase pump, therefore increasing contractility
29
Digoxin (Digitalis) is a _____ used to tx _____
- + Inotrope
- CHF
30
Adverse effects of Digoxin include arrhythmias, __________ , ________, N/V, anorexia, diarrhea, _______, ________, & fatigue
- Severe bradycardia
- SA/AV node block ( d/t derangement of ca in cell)
- HA, blurry vision
31
ACE inhibitors & angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) both ________ Which therefore decreases the ___________ and therefore lowers the blood pressure
- block the prod. or effects of angiotensin 2
- pulmonary vascular resistance
32
Sympathoplegic Agents (ex. Clonidine) dec BP by decreasing your ______ and _______ by working on _______ and _____ receptors that are centrally located. These can cause _______ side effects
- SVR
- CO
- alpha and beta
- Neurologic
33
Direct vasodilators work directly at the site of Arterial or venous ______ and force them to ______ therefore dec BP
- smooth muscles
- relax
34
The main category of drugs you'll see in this direct vasodilator are the __________ . Other drugs include _______, __________, & ______
- calcium channel blockers
- Hydralazine, nitroglycerin, and nitroprusside
35
Sodium channel blockers reduce the uptake of sodium into the cell prolonging the ______ and the _______ helping to space out that rhythm. These drugs include ______ & ______
- QRS
- QT's
- procainamide and lidocaine
36
Beta Blockers decrease the _________ through the heart, thereby ___________ , and also reset the heart conduction to prevent or break arrhythmias
- conduction velocity
- slowing the heart rate
37
Potassium channel blockers prolong the ________ duration of that cell thereby reduce or correct any arrhythmias
action potential
38
Calcium channel blockers slow the ___________ through the calcium channels. They especially affects the _____ node therefore decreasing the ______ through the heart. They work by _________ and are recommended for children with ______
- influx of calcium ions
- AV node
- conduction velocity
- widening blood vessels which decreases cardiovascular resistance
- asthma
39
Endocarditis occurs when there is an injury to the endothelium (usually the valves) leading to infection and then _______. It will also increase the ________ of the heart
- Vegetation
- Metabolic demand (i.e CHF)
40
Complications of endocarditis include ________ , structural injury, __________, or ________
- CHF
- abscess
- embolism
41
Myocarditis is an inflammation or infection of the myocardium as well as ________
Cardiac Dysfunction (Dec. CO)
42
Cardiac Muscle Action Potential Phase 0: _______ occurs with which there is an _______ of your _____ & ______ that goes into the cell
- Depolarization
- influx
- sodium and calcium
43
Cardiac Muscle Action Potential Phase 1: _____ channels close
Sodium
44
Cardiac Muscle Action Potential Phase 2: Influx of ______ and then _____ will rapidly come out of the cell
- calcium
- potassium
45
Cardiac Muscle Action Potential Phase 3: Rapid ________ where your ____ channels close and an influx of ____ into the cell
- repolarization
- calcium
- potassium
46
Cardiac Muscle Action Potential Phase 4: you go below into your ______
- resting potential
47
AV node is the communication between the ____ and the _____ and it provides the ________. It also represents your ______ on EKG
- Atria and ventricles
- Atrial contraction
- PR interval
48
Bundle of His and Purkinje fibers have a ______ intrinsic rate. Has it's own dominant(backup) rate to provide CO in case the ______. It also provides ______
- slower
- atria fail
- ventricular contraction
49
SA node is the _____ of the heart; represents your _______ on EKG
- Pacemaker
- P wave
50
The QRS represents the flow going down your _______ on EKG
Bundle of His
51
The Purkinje fibers represent your _______ process or _______ wave
- repolarization
- T wave
52
P wave represents _______ of the ______ in response to ____ node triggering
- Depolarization
- Atria
- SA
53
PR interval represents delay of ____ node to allow _______
- AV
- ventricles to fill
54
QRS complex represents _______ of the _______; also in that process your triggering the _______ to _______ and allow blood to go into ventricles
- Depolarization of the ventricles
- Atria to contract
55
ST segment represents the beginning of ________; It should be ______
- ventricular repolarization
- flat
56
T wave represents when the _______ actually _____
- Ventricles
- Repolarize
57
12 lead EKG Septal view: _____ and _____
V1 and V2
58
12 lead EKG Anterior view: _____ and _____
V3 and V4
59
12 lead EKG Lateral view: _____, _____ and _____, _____ and _____
lead 1, aVR and aVL, V5 and V6
60
12 lead EKG Inferior view: _____, and _____, _____
lead 2 and 3, aVF
61
*Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) is the most common cause of ________ and has a ________ murmur with a ______ click
- non-ischemic mitral regurgitation
- systolic-ejection
- mid-systolic
62
Patients with mitral valve prolapse may present with ______, ______, or ________
palpitations, atrial fibrillation, or syncope.
63
Patients with mitral valve prolapse are more likely to suffer from both ________ and ________
anxiety and panic attacks
64
Mitral valve prolapse is more frequent in patients with _________, _________, and _______
Marfan syndrome, polycystic kidney disease, and Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
65
A 6-month-old presents to the ED w, SVT. HR= 200 bpm w/ a cap refill > 2 sec, BP 63/40, and a faint brachial pulse. She is lethargic and mottled. Adenosine is ineffective, and expert consultation is delayed. What is the next step in the treatment of this infant?
Synchronized cardioversion with 0.5 to 1 J/kg
66
Criteria for Kawasaki disease Mnemonic = Warm CREAM
Warm= fever > 5 days
- C=conjunctivitis, bilateral and nonpurulent
- R=rash
- E=extremity edema and erythema of hands and feet with later peeling
- A=adenopathy, typically cervical, >1.5 cm
- M=mucosal, strawberry tongue, red, cracked lips
67
Pt. w/ Kawasaki dz need to be assessed for evidence of _______ or _______ via __________
- coronary artery aneurysms or ectasia
- Transthoracic echocardiography
68
Transesophageal echocardiography is used to assess for ________ associated with rheumatic fever and infectious endocarditis
valvular damage
69
TOF is comprised of four heart defects:
1.
2.
3.
4.
1. VSD
2. Pulmonary stenosis
3. dextroposition or overriding aorta
4. R. Ventricular hypertrophy
70
The most common murmur in newborns with TOF is primarily due to the _______ obstruction. It is a __________ murmur heard at the _________ border due to _________
- right ventricular outflow
- loud, harsh systolic ejection
- left upper sternal
- pulmonic stenosis
71
Kawasaki disease is a ______ of medium and small vessels that can lead to ________. It is initially treated with _____ and ______
- vasculitis
- coronary artery aneurysms
- IVIG and high-dose aspirin
72
What is the best treatment option for Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?
Ablation
73
Innocent murmurs are most common in children _______ y.o. They are often _______ , _________ murmurs at the _________ or ________ border w/o radiation & are loudest in the _____ position due to changes in afterload decreasing the effects of gravity in the aorta.
- 3 to 7
- musical or vibratory
- short, systolic ejection
- left midsternal or lower sternal
- supine
74
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a significant cause of sudden cardiac death in _______
young people, including well-trained athletes
75
The most appropriate management in Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is
avoidance of volume depletion
76
Right to left shunting is when you have _______ blood that shunts to the ________ circulation; aka _______
- deoxygenated
- systemic
- Cyanotic
77
Left to right shunting is when ________ blood shunts to the ________ circulation; aka ______
- Oxygenated
- Pulmonary
- Acyanotic
78
PDA is the connection between _________ and __________ ~5 to 10mm distal to the subclavian artery
- pulmonary artery
- descending thoracic aorta
79
In utero - PVR is ______ causing blood to shunt from the _______ to the ______. Out of utero - PVR _______ causing blood to shunt from the _______ to the _______.
- very high
- PA to the aorta (right to left shunting)
- decreasing
- aorta to the PA (left to right shunting)
80
The PDA functionally closes _______ and anatomically closes around ______ d/t reduction of _______
- first couple days of life
- week 2-3
- Prostaglandin production
81
In utero - septum formation occurs between the _____ and ______ week of gestation
- 4th
- 6th
82
ASD causes predominately _______ shunting
left to right
83
Symptoms of an ASD appear to worsen once _________ in first few weeks of life & pt are at risk for right ventricle to _____ & ________
- PVR decreases
- dilate and hypertrophy
84
S/S of a PDA include tachycardia, ________ murmur , __________, failure to thrive, may see cardiomegaly on CXR in large PDAs
- continuous systolic murmur audible along the left sternal border
- wide pulse pressure with low diastolic pressure
85
S/S of ASD include _________ & ________, tachycardia, May see cardiomegaly on CXR, ________ murmur
- Breathlessness & tachypnea
- Systolic ejection murmur
86
ASD Post op complications include arrhythmias - _________ & _______ ; _________ syndrome
- JET &complete AV heart block
- post-pericardiotomy syndrome
87
post-pericardiotomy syndrome have discrete symptoms such as fever, chest pain, __________ , generalized weakness. Risk is reduced with prophylactic use of ________
- pericardial rub
- NSAIDs (Toradol)
88
Eisenmenger syndrome is a major risk with ______. It causes an increase in _______ pressure, resulting in _______ shunting causing ______
- VSDs
- PA pressure
- right to left
- cyanosis
89
S/S of VSD include __________, symptoms of ___________ , _________ murmur, CXR may see increase in pulmonary vascular markings (pulmonary overcirculation)
- failure to thrive
- CHF
- systolic reguritant murmur?......VSD will present with a harsh holosystolic heart murmur audible along the left sternal border.
90
Medication tx for VSD: Initially - manage symptoms of CHF w/ diuretics, _________ (______), optimize nutrition
afterload reducers (Enalapril)
91
Post- op management of VSD: may need _______ infusion and/or pacing d/t risk for arrhythmias such as ______ & _____; initiation of _____
- Milrinone
- Complete heart block and JET
- Diuretics
92
Atrioventricular Septal Defect (AVSD) more frequently seen in pt. with ______ & _____
- Trisomy 21 (Down’s Syndrome)
- Trisomy 18 (Edward’s Syndrome)
93
AVSD is the failure of the central portion of the anterior/posterior cushions to fuse causing underdevelopment of _______ & _____ valve. These valves are termed _______
- mitral and tricuspid
- right and left AV valve
94
Complete AVSD includes a VSD, ASD, ________ and __________
- anomalous AV valves
- left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
95
In pt. with AVSD, PVR _______ leading to ________
- decreases
- left to right shunting
96
PVR is often persistently _______ in those with complete AVSD and Tri. 21, reducing speed of development of CHF but often more ________ d/t _______ shunting
- increased
- cyanotic
- right to left shunting
97
Tx of AVSD include diuretics, _____ agents, and avoid ______
- Afterload reduction agents
- Anemia
98
Post-op considerations for AVSD: it is imperative to prevent ______ and ________
volume overload and systolic hypertension
99
Truncus Arteriosis is when the _______, _______, and _______ arise from a single vessel with a ______ present
- aorta, coronary arteries and pulmonary arteries
- VSD
100
Truncus Arteriosis is most commonly associated with _________
22q11 delation (DiGeorge Syndrome)
101
In pt. w/ Truncus Arteriosis you usually see significant ______ shunting d/t large ______ causing inc. risk for _______ into pulmonary vascular beds leading to _________
- left to right
- VSD
- diastolic runoff
- coronary ischemia
102
Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR) has ________ return somewhere other than the _______
- Pulmonary veins
- LA
103
In TAPVR, if PVs are NOT obstructed it produces ________ shunting
Left to Right
104
On CXR, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR) will show a ______ sign
Snowman
105
Coarctation of the Aorta is a _________ of the descending aorta often at the level of the _______, distal to the _____ artery d/t an infolding of the ________
- narrowing
- ductus arteriosus
- left subclavian
- tunica media
106
Coarctation of the Aorta results in _________ from severe ______ to the ____. ---> ______ shunting across the ________
- cardiogenic shock
- obstruction
- LV output
- left to right
- foramen ovale
107
Pt. with Coarctation of the Aorta are at risk for _______, _________, & _______
mitral regurg, renal failure and NEC
108
In sever cases of Coarctation of the Aorta, neonates may need ______ to help with antegrade flow across coarc
- PGEs
109
In pt. with Coarctation of the Aorta you need to monitor ________ . preductal reflects saturations of the _______
- pre- and post-ductal saturations
- LV
110
A chest radiograph in pt. w/ Coarctation of the Aorta will reveal ______, but the _______ is the diagnostic test of choice
- cardiomegaly
- echocardiography
111
Coarctation of the aorta can be identified later in childhood with
hypertension and decreased pulses from upper to lower extremities
112
Coarctation of the Aorta post-op management: manage HTN d/t risk for ______ and _______; Consider ENT evaluation for risk of accidental ________ injury
- anastomosis leaks and bleeding
- laryngeal nerve
113
Interrupted Aortic Arch is the complete ______ between the ______ & _____ ends of the aortic arch. commonly associated with ____ in 70% of the cases
- discontinuity
- proximal and distal
- VSD
114
An Interrupted Aortic Arch is ________ dependent. if closure of PDA and no ASD/VSD, likely develop ________, _________, and ________ d/t no way to properly perfuse ______ part of body. Encourage _________ shunting across the PDA
- Ductal
- cardiogenic shock, metabolic acidosis, and multi organ dysfunction
- descending
- Right to Left shunting
115
Interrupted Aortic Arch CXR will show ______, ______, ______
cardiomegaly, pulmonary edema, ventricular enlargement
116
Oxygen saturations in a pt. w/ Interrupted Aortic Arch will be ______ on upper half of the body and _______ in the lower half of the body
- high (>90%)
- low (70-80%)
117
Single ventricle is a spectrum of cardiac abnormalities with hallmark of _______ of the ______ & _____. ______ & _____ valves often abnormal, large _____ usually present
- hypoplasia
-LV and ascending aorta
- mitral and aortic
- PDA
118
Stage 1 Procedure: Norwood/Hybrid complications include _____, _____, _______
- Low-cardiac output syndrome
- Bleeding
- Clotting of shunt (true medical emergency! Call
surgeon!)
119
Stage II: Glenn complications include ______, ______, _____, ______
- increased Glenn pressures
- HTN
- LCOS
- hypoxemia
120
Stage III: Fontan complications include _____, ____, ____
- HTN
- LCOS
- hypoxemia
121
Pulmonary stenosis is associated with _______
Tetralogy of Fallot
122
In Pulmonary valve stenosis the right ventricle often _______ with ________ at the main PA
- hypertrophied
- post-stenotic dilation
123
Critical Pulmonary Stenosis is _____ dependent with ______ shunting
- ductal dependent (PDA)
- left to right
124
Subvalvular pulmonary stenosis will have a _______ right ventricle d/t diffuse ________ of the infundibular portion of the RV
- double chamber
- fibromuscular narrowing
125
Pulmonary stenosis frequently seen in ________ syndrome and _________ syndrome
- Noonan’s Syndrome
- Alagille Syndrome
126
There are concerns for __________ with pulmonary stenosis
reduced RV compliance
127
4 major components of Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)
- VSD
- Right ventricular outflow tract obstruction (pulmonary atresia or pulmonary valve stenosis)
- RV hypertrophy
- Overriding aorta
128
Blood flow in TOF is usually provided by the ____ and/or ______
- PDA
- MAPCAs (major aortopulmonary collateral arteries)
129
S/s of TOF include cyanosis within ______ hours of life (can vary depending on MAPCAs), respiratory distress and tachypnea, _______ murmur in ______ sternal border but is quiet during ________
- first few
- Harsh systolic murmur
- left upper
- a hypercyanotic spell
130
In pt. with TOF you'll see a _______ heart on CXR due to _______
- boot-shaped
- R ventricular enlargement
131
Treatment goal for TOF: relieve the _________ and close the _____. If pulmonary atresia - will need ___
- RVOT obstruction
- VSD
- PGEs
132
“TET spell” management goals: increase ____ & ___, provide oxygen and _____ to decrease ______, fluid bolus to _______, _______ to increase SVR, and knees to chest
- PBF and SVR
- morphine
- PVR
- increase RV preload
- phenylephrine
133
TOF post-op management: will likely have _____ and will need _______. Risk of ______
- Stiff RV
- Milrinone
- JET
134
Pulmonary Atresia with Intact Ventricular septum will have an atretic pulmonary valve with NO ____, usually with an ____, and abnormal _____ valve
- VSD
- ASD
- tricuspid
135
Pulmonary Atresia with Intact Ventricular septum: _____ shunting necessary for systemic blood flow and blood is oxygenated via the _______
- right to left
- PDA (left to right shunting)
136
D-TGA (Dextro): Flipping of the ____ and the ____ artery. Aorta arises from the _____ and pulmonary artery arises from the _____
- aorta
- pulmonary
- RV
- LV
137
L-TGA (Levo): Flipping of the ______ & the _____
RV and LV
138
Treatment of TGA: _____ until atrial septostomy is performed, Atrial septostomy to ________, _______ to assess outflow tract obstructions and coronaries, Atrial switch performed in ________
- PGE
- widen the ASD
- cardiac cath
- first couple weeks of life
139
TGA Post-op managment: High risk for ________ -> ischemia/infarction, Monitor for ______ changes
- coronary kinking/occlusion
- ST segment
140
Ebstein Anomaly of the Tricuspid Valve is failure of the tricuspid valve leaflets to _______ from the
_______. Creates a _______ of the anterior leaflet
- detach
- ventricular septum
- sail-like deformity
141
S/S of Ebstein Anomaly of the Tricuspid Valve: varies based on the _______ and _____. ______ heart on CXR
- tricuspid regurg
- ASD
- “Wall to wall”
142
Tx of Ebstein Anomaly of the Tricuspid Valve: Often need to avoid _______. Surgical repair often involves ______
- valve replacement (worse outcomes, freq replacements w/ growth)
- palliation
143
Vascular Ring: Aortic arch causes _______ of the ________
- compression
- esophagus and/or trachea
144
S/S of Vascular Ring include ______, ______, and ____
seal bark cough, dyspnea, dysphagia
145
The immediate goal of therapy for a hypertensive crisis is to decrease the BP to a safe level with the use of IV medications including ________. You should reduce the BP no more than _____
- nicardipine, labetalol, esmolol, or hydralazine
- 25% to 33% of the overall goal reduction within the first 6 to 12 hours.
146
______ is the most common symptom of acute endocarditis and can be high with hemodynamic instability
- Fever
147
Infants and children have different presentations of CHF. Children will present with ______. , whereas infants will have ______
- fatigue, exercise intolerance, anorexia, abdominal pain, dyspnea, and cough,
- tachypnea, feeding difficulties (e.g., decreased volume or time spent feeding), poor weight gain, excessive perspiration (especially when feeding), and excessive irritability.
148
The ________ after cardiac transplant are the most critical in terms of risk factors and procedure success
- first 72 hours
149
______ & _______ are the most common reasons for early transplant failure. Primary management goals in this time frame include...
- Primary graft failure and right heart failure associated with increased peripheral vascular resistance
- maintaining blood pressure, adequate coronary perfusion and cardiac output, and initiation of immunosuppression therapies.
150
Torsades de pointes is commonly associated with ______. _______ is the first-line therapy.
- hypomagnesemia
- Treatment of hypomagnesemia with administration of magnesium sulfate
151
Pericarditis occurs when the layers of the pericardium become inflamed as a result of many different etiologies, including
- bacterial and viral infectious processes, metabolic disorders, medication reactions, and Kawasaki disease, among others
152
The symptoms of acute pericarditis include
chest pain and fever. A pericardial friction rub is often noted on auscultation.
153
The treatment of pulmonary hypertension is focused on managing the acute events by providing a stable environment and
lowering pulmonary vascular resistance through stabilizing hemodynamics and treating acidosis and hypercarbia, and then supporting the chronic illness.
154
Milrinone is a nonspecific vasodilating agent like sildenafil and prostaglandin which would be used first line in the treatment of pulmonary hypertension.
155
Sildenafil and tadalafil, otherwise known as Viagra and Cialis, are phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors which affect the nitric oxide pathway. These medications increase pulmonary artery vasodilation and inhibit vascular remodeling, thus lowering pulmonary arterial pressure and pulmonary vascular resistance
156
Postpericardiotomy syndrome is ___________ which can occur following cardiac surgical procedures as well as other thoracic surgery. Laboratory findings will include....
- an inflammatory process of the pericardial sac
- lymphocytosis on CBC w/ diff and elevated inflammatory markers. (ESR & CRP)
157
The typical dosing of epinephrine is ________, but higher dosing has been used, up to 5 μg/kg/minute. When using higher doses, the....
- 0.1 to 1 μg/kg/minute
- alpha effects will be prominent, resulting in tachycardia and overall inhibition of end-organ perfusion.
158
Complete heart block is best managed with a pacemaker that is set at _______. The individual letters relate to _____.
- DDD
- first, chamber paced; second, the chamber sensed; and third, the response to a sensed event.
- both the atrium and the ventricle will need to be paced in order to provide AV (atrial ventricular) synchrony and improve cardiac output. Therefore, DDD mode would be selected.
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