Pain/Sedation

60 flashcardsby Madi
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1
Nociceptive pain is our _____ pain that's r/t some kind of _______ or _____ pain
- Acute
- Somatic (skin, bone, connective tissue)
- Visceral ( internal organs)
2
Functional pain is d/t an abnormal presence of or inappropriate activation of the ______ w/in the _______
- Pain pathways
- Nervous system
3
Opiates are the mainstay of _____ & _____ acute pain. It works on our _______ receptors to inhibit ________
- Moderate and severe
- Central opioid
- Pain pathways
4
Morphine IV dose is _________ & continuous infusion dose is _______. Duration is ____
- IV dose: 0.1 – 0.2 mg/kg IV q 3-4 hours
- 0.1 mg/kg/hr
- 3-5 hrs
5
Meperidine (Demerol®) is an opiate that has an active metabolite, _________, which is a ________. It's a poor choice for pt w/ ______ or hx of _______. Assoc. w/ ______ & _______
- Normeperidine
- CNS stimulant
- Renal dysfunction
- Seizures
- Dependance & Euphoria
6
In most places, meperidine (Demerol®) for children is limited only to _________
Post operative trimmers
7
Fentanyl can accumulate in the blood and cause a _______ effect or it can cause _______, meaning patients become _______ to it no matter how much you inc. the dose
- Compounding
- Tachyphylaxis
- Refractory
8
PCA is used to control moderate-to-severe _______ pain, _____ pain, and _______ pain
- Post-operative
- Sickle cell
- Cancer
9
Ketorolac (toradol): Limit IV use to ____ days due to ADR’s
5
10
Etomidate (Amidate®) is an ultra short acting, non ______, _______ like compound that causes sedation. Not assoc. w/ _____ or ______
- Barbiturate
- Steroid
- Hypotension or inc. ICP
11
Lorazepam (Ativan®) IV dose: ______ mg/kg/dose Q____ hours
- 0.05-0.1
- 6
12
Lorazepam (Ativan®) has fewer _______ than other benzos, but it contains ______ that can be toxic to _____
- Drug interactions
- Preservatives
- Neonates
13
Benzodiazepines potentiate ______ (neuro inhibitory transmitter) & have sedative, ________, ________ and anticonvulsant properties
- GABA
- Hypnotic
- Amnestic
14
Prior to procedure you need to obtain patients “AMPLE” history...This stands for
- Allergies
- Medications
- Past medical history
- Last meal
- Events leading up to scenario
15
Pre-Sedation Evaluation includes ______, ______, & ______
Length of procedure; painful v. non-painful; location
16
Minimum Fasting Time Period for clear liquids is ____ hrs; Breast milk is ____ hrs; Formula/milk is ____ hrs; & Solid foods is _____ hrs
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 8
17
Depolarizing or agonist NMBA produces muscle paralysis through binding with ________, allowing for ________ and then paralysis
- Acetylcholine receptor
- Muscle contraction
18
Non-depolarizing or antagonist NMBA produces muscle paralysis through ________ at the ________ receptor site and does not allow for _______
- Competitive binding
- Acetylcholine
- Depolarization
19
Most common nerves used for TOF are the _____ & _____ nerves
Facial and ulnar
20
Desired number of elicited twitches w/ TOF is at least _____
- ¼
21
Pediatric patients receiving sedation and/or analgesic agents greater than or equal to ___ days are at risk for withdrawal
5
22
Withdrawal is seen in 100% of pediatric patients receiving opioids or benzodiazepines for >___ days and will require a slow sedation taper
9
23
Assessment tools for withdrawal include neonatal assessment scale for infants <____ old and the Withdrawal Assessment Tool (WAT) for ______
- 1 month
- Infants and children
24
Patients who have received opioids or other sedative agents for _____ days, benefit from switching from IV agents to ______
- 5 days
- ATC long-acting oral agents
25
If s/s of withdrawal are observed during the weaning process, an IV dose of “rescue” morphine _______ mg/kg or lorazepam ______ mg/kg should be given
- 0.05-0.1 mg/kg
- 0.05-0.1
26
The most common adjunctive therapy to smooth sedation titration and minimize withdrawal is the use of _______
Clonidine
27
Iatrogenic risk factors of delirium: sleep deprivation, _______, _______, ______, and psychoactive meds
Restraints, tubes/catheters, pain
28
Long term outcomes of delirium: Inc. risk for psychological conditions (PTSD), _______, & _____
- Disorientation
- Language problems
29
The neonatal infant pain scale tool evaluates _____, _____, & ______. It is used in patients < _______ & ranges from 0-7
- Respiratory pattern, facial expression, and level of alertness
- 1 y.o
30
Opioid analgesics work on ______ opioid receptors including ____, ____, & ____ receptors. The predominant receptor is _____
- Central
- Mu, delta, and kappa
- Mu
31
NSAIDs work by inhibiting _______, thereby blocking the production of ______ & _______
- COX (cyclooxygenase enzymes)
- Inflammatory cytokines and prostaglandins
32
Signs of opioid overdose include respiratory depression, lethargy, ______, _____, _______ skin, and decreased level of consciousness
- Euphoria
- Pinpoint pupils (Miosis)
- Cool and clammy
33
Etomidate IV dose= _______, onset = _____, duration= _____
- 0.1-0.3 mg/kg
- <1 min
- 3-5 minutes
34
Ketamine: produces _______ as well as sedation/analgesia. IV dose= _______, IM= _____
- dissociative amnesia
- 1-1.5 mg/kg
- 4-5 mg/kg
35
Propofol is a _______ agent that may be used for _____ sedation, use In ______ or ______, must have anesthesia provider or credentialed physician
- general anesthetic
- status asthmaticus or status epilepticus
36
Benzodiazepines: sedative, hypnotic, amnestic, and anticonvulsant properties, no _____
Intrinsic analgesic properties
37
Rocuronium new reversal agent= ______. Has less ____ than old
- Sugamadex
- Bradycardia
38
Vecuronium reversal agent
neostigmine
39
Weaning: Moderate risk (5-7 days): decrease dose
20% every day
40
Weaning: High risk (8-30 days): decrease dose
10-20% every other day
41
Morphine significant side effects:
respiratory depression, severe hypotension, syncope, *peripheral vasodilation*, orthostatic
hypotension, noncardiogenic pulmonary edema, CNS depression, increased intracranial pressure, *histamine release*
42
Fentanyl side effects:
*Chest wall rigidity & nasal pruritis*, orthostatic hypotension, *arrhythmia, syncope, bradycardia and CNS depression
43
Methadone side effects:
life threatening respiratory depression, *prolonged QT interval or torsade de pointes*, death, cardiac arrhythmias, increased intracranial pressure and histamine release
44
Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) is a __________ with potent sedative and mild analgesic properties. Dosing =
- Selective alpha-agonist
- 0.5-2 mcg/kg/hr
45
Dexmedetomidine (Precedex) side effects:
respiratory acidosis, pulmonary edema, bradycardia, sinus arrest, hypotension, and
hypertension
46
Clonidine is used for ______.... Significant side effects:
- child pain management
- when combined with stimulants, patients may suffer serious cardiovascular events or sudden
death
47
Ketamine preserves ______ & _____, can raise _____ or _____. Assoc. w/
- cardiopulmonary stability and airway
- ICP or BP
- horizontal nystagmus, hallucinatory emergence rxns, hypersalivation, * laryngospasm, inc. cerebral blood flow
48
Propofol significant side effects:
- propofol infusion syndrome (severe
metabolic acidosis, hyperkalemia, lipemia, rhabdomyolysis, hepatosplenomegaly, cardiac failure and kidney failure)
- Hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia, respiratory depression
49
Flumazenil is used for _____
- benzo reversal
50
Flumazenil black box warning
- may result in seizures in patients dependent on medication
- Patients may experience resumption of sedation after flumazenil has worn off
51
Neostigmine is used for ______
- nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocking (Vec) reversal agent
52
Administer neostigmine w/ ____ or _____ to ____
- atropine or glycopyrrolate
- limit salivation, bronchoconstriction, laryngospasm, dyspnea, respiratory arrest, bradycardia, asystole, AV block, agitation, seizures, and salivation
53
Lorazepam (Ativan®) significant side effects:
- respiratory depression, apnea, bradycardia, **circulatory collapse
- **High dose or long term use of parental formulation may result in toxicity (lactic acidosis, osmotic gap, renal failure)
54
Diazepam (valium) significant side effects:
- sudden hypotension, cardiac arrest
- **laryngospasm and apnea or respiratory depression may result from rapid IV push
55
Use Diazepam (valium) w/ caution in neonates- parental and rectal gel formulations contain...
benzoic acid, benzyl alcohol, and
sodium benzoate (increased risk of jaundice -> kernicterus)
56
Etomidate (Amidate®) is assoc. w/ _______. other significant side effects:
- Resp. depression, myoclonus and *adrenal crisis (Adrenal suppression may result after a single dose)
- apnea, laryngospasm, bradycardia, tachycardia, hypertension
57
Pentobarbital is used for ______. Significant side effects:
- procedural sedation, hypnotic
- respiratory depression, apnea, laryngospasm, arrhythmias, bradycardia, hypotension, syncope, angioedema
58
Hydromorphone
Significant side effects: respiratory depression (esp if preexisting respiratory condition), hypotension (may be
exaggerated in patients with hypovolemia), orthostatic hypotension, peripheral vasodilation, CNS depression, increased intracranial pressure, histamine release
59
Methadone similar to morphine- start dose at _____ , then wean to ____
- 0.1 mg/kg q6 hrs
- q12
60
Fentanyl IV dose= _____
1-4 mcg/kg Q 1hr
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