Private Pilot Knowledge

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1
ARROW
Airworthiness certificate (never expires)
Registration Certificate (renewed every seven years)
Radio Station License (Required for international)
Operating Limitations (Found in the approved flight manual or Pilot's operating handbook)
Weight and balance data
2
What is the acronym to remember the special use airspaces?
MCPRAWN
3
how can you find out if a restricted area is hot?
1-800-wx-brief
EFB
FAA SUA website
4
MCPRAWN
MOA
CFA
Prohibited
Restricted
Alert Area
Warning Area
National Security Area
5
What at the two types of fatigue?
chronic and acute
6
What are the two types of stress?
chronic and acute
7
Airthworthiness DIE
Documents (ARROW)
Inspections (AV1ATES)
Equipment (A TOMATO FLAMES)
8
What color is a temporary registration?
pink
9
How long is a temporary registration valid for?
12 months
10
Where can you find known atc delays?
NAS website
11
What should you look for in an alternate?
Fuel, maintenance facilities
12
What is wet sump?
When the oil is stored in the oil pan
13
What is dry sump?
When oil is stored outside the engine
14
What is a stable atmosphere?
The ability for it to resist vertical motion
15
What layer of the atmosphere do we fly in?
troposphere
16
What is the acronym to remember required inspections?
AV1ATES
17
Open door checklist
Airspeed 87
Close vents
open storm windows
latch side then top
18
What 3 things cause compass oscillation?
aircraft acceleration, turbulence, magnetic dip
19
What is area of ambiguity?
When you are 90° abeam the selected radial, the to/from flag will fluctuate
20
piper archer glide ratio
9.5:1
21
What does the archer glide ratio mean?
For every 1,000 feet of altitude lost, the aircraft can travel forward about 9,500 feet
22
What type of aircraft don't require an ELT
Single seat, agricultural, gliders ballons etc
23
what is the significance of 14500 feet msl in the classification of airspace
Serves as the floor of the class E and ceiling for golf
24
Acronym to remember VOR limitations
CARL
25
CARL
Cone of confusion
Area of ambiguity
reverse sensing
line of sight
26
When can you begin logging night flight time?
end of evening Civil twilight and beginning of morning Civil twilight
27
When should position lights be used?
From sunset to sunrise
28
For passenger night time currency, what times count?
an hour before sunrise and hour after sunset
29
How many miles wide is a Victor airway?
8 miles, 4 each side
30
What are 5 factors that can affect takeoff distance?
Heavy loads, high altitudes, high temperatures, runway coondition, engine wear
31
what are the basic advantages of an alternator over a generator
Better efficiency, smaller, lighter
32
At what RPM does the engine make 180hp?
2700
33
What do MELs apply to?
(my) Specific airplanes by tail number
34
Where is a KOEL found?
In the POH
35
Acronym for inop equipment decision making
MKART
36
MKART
MEL
KOEL
ADs
Regs
Type certificate data sheet
37
What is the regulation for inop equipment?
91.213
38
91.213
inoperable equipment
39
What conditions are required to be considered a severe thunderstorm?
50 knot surface winds, 3/4 inch hail or tornadoes
40
Minimum safe altitude anywhere:
An altitude that allows for a landing should the engine fail without undue hazard
41
Minimum safe altitude over a congested area
1000ft above the highest obstacle, 2,000ft horizontal
42
Minimum safe altitude other than a congested area
500ft over the surface

If over open water: 500ft from any person, vessel, vehicle or structure
43
Minimum oil
2 quarts
44
Maximum oil
8 quarts
45
School minimum oil
6 quarts
46
Oxygen requirements 12,500-14,000
More than 30 minutes, minimum flight crew must use supplemental
47
Oxygen requirements above 14,000
Oxygen required for required crew entire duration
48
Oxygen requirements above 15,000
All occupants must be supplied oxygen
49
Oxygen requirements
12,500-14,000: More than 30 minutes, required crew must use supplemental

14,000: Required crew must use continous supplemental oxygen

15,000: All occupants must be provided oxygen
50
Private pilot privileges
Can act as PIC within your privileges
PSCRIPT
Can fly at night
Can fly with pax
51
Private pilot limitations
Can't fly for compensation or hire
Must pay pro rata
Can only fly VFR
52
What regulation has the medical chart?
61.23
53
How often do you need an exam for basicmed?
Every 48 months.
54
What happens when your first or second class expires?
It reverts to a third class
55
Category in respect to airmen certification
Broad, like airplane or rotorcraft
56
Class in respect to airmen
Specific design features, like single engine land
57
Type in respect to airmen
Specific models
58
Category in respect to aircraft certification
Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, Transport
59
Class in respect to aircraft certification
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider etc
60
Type in respect to aircraft certification
Specific aircraft models of similar designs
61
How long is a convective sigmet valid?
2 hours
62
How long is a standard sigmet valid for?
4 hours
63
What are the types of sigmets
Convective, standard, cyclonic, and volcanic ash.
64
What are the types of airmets
S (Widespread IFR)
T (Turbulence)
Z (Icing)
65
What is a SIGMET?
an aviation weather advisory that alerts pilots to severe weather hazards that pose a danger to all aircraft.
66
What are the different conditions that warrant a sigmet? (6 items)
thunderstorms, dust and sand storms, volcanic ash, severe icing, severe turbulence, cyclones
67
What are the requirements for a convective sigmet
severe thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms, continous line of at least 60nm, wide area coverage of at least 40% of 3000 square miles
68
What are the types of occluded fronts?
Cold and warm
69
What conditions can you expect with a cold front occlusion?
A mix of both warm and cold front conditions
70
What conditions can you expect with a warm occlusion?
Typically the weather is more severe than the state weather in a cold front occlusion. Embedded thunderstorms, rain, and fog.
71
How long is the airworthiness certificate valid for?
Indefintely as long as the aircraft meets its approved type desgin and is in a condition for safe operation.
72
How long is an aircraft registration valid for?
Seven years
73
Where can the operating limitations be found?
Approved flight manual or POH
74
IMSAFE (91.17)
Illness
Medication
Stress
Alcohol
Fatigue
Emotion/eating
75
PAVE (Preflight general)
Pilot
Aircraft
enVironment
External Factors
76
Acronym for 91.17
IMSAFE
77
Required aircraft documents
Airworthiness certificate (never expires)
Registration Certificate (renewed every seven years)
Radio Station License (Required for international)
Operating Limitations (Found in the approved flight manual or Pilot's operating handbook)
Weight and balance data
78
Required aircraft maintenance inspections
Annual inspection
VOR Check
100 hour inspection
Altimeter
Transponder
ELT
Static System
79
AV1ATES
Annual Inspection: Every 12 calendar months (91.409) (Must be done by an A&P IA)
VOR Check: Every 30 days (required for IFR only) (91.171)
100 Hour inspection: Required if flying for hire (91.409)
Altimeter: Every 24 calendar months (91.411) (Required for IFR only)
Transponder: Every 24 calendar months (91.413)
ELT: Every 12 calendar months; battery replaced if used for more than 1 cumulative hour or if 50% of the usable battery life has expired (91.207)
Static System: 24 Calendar months (91.411)
80
How often is a VOR check required? (And reg)
Every 30 days. (91.171) (For IFR flight)
81
When is a 100 hour inspection required? (When and the Reg)
Required if flying for hire (91.409)
82
How often does the altimeter need to be inspected? (And reg)
Every 24 calendar months (91.411)
83
How often does the transponder need to be inspected? (and what is the reg)
Every 24 calendar months (91.413)
84
When does the ELT need to be inspected? (and reg)
Every 12 calendar months; battery replaced if used for more than 1 cumulative hour or if 50% of the usable battery life has expired (91.207)
85
How often does the ELT need to be inspected?
Every 12 calendar months; battery replaced if used for more than 1 cumulative hour or if 50% of the usable battery life has expired (91.207)
86
Acronym for minimum required equipment for VFR flight.
A TOMATO FLAMES (91.205)
87
Minimum required equipment for VFR flight. 91.205
Altimeter

Tachometer (each engine)
Oil pressure indicator (each engine)
Manifold pressure gauge (each engine)
Airspeed Indicator
Temp gauge (each engine)
Oil temp gauge (each engine)

Fuel quantity gauge (each tank)
Landing gear position lights
Anti-collision lights (certified after 1996)
Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
ELT
Safety belts (certified after 1986)
88
A TOMATO FLAMES
Altimeter

Tachometer (each engine)
Oil pressure indicator (each engine)
Manifold pressure gauge (each engine)
Airspeed Indicator
Temp gauge (each engine)
Oil temp gauge (each engine)

Fuel quantity gauge (each tank)
Landing gear position lights
Anti-collision lights (certified after 1996)
Magnetic direction indicator (compass)
ELT
Safety belts
89
Minimum required equipment for VFR night
Same as VFR AND

Fuses (spare)
Landing light (if for hire)
Anti-collision lights
Position lights (nav lights)
Source of power (such as battery)
90
Required pilot documents for PIC (61.3)
Pilot certificate
Photo ID
Medical Certificate
Radio operator permit (if outside US)
91
How long is an AIRMET valid for?
6 hours
92
How long is a SIGMET valid for?
4 hours
93
What is the standard lapse rate?
2c / 1000ft
94
Air is stable if....
the adiabatic lapse rate is greater than the ambient lapse rate
95
What are the types of fog?
Upslope
Precipitation
Advection
Ice
Radiation
Steam
96
What is the acronym to remember the types of fog?
UPAIRS
97
What type of aileron does the Archer have?
Differential ailerons.
98
What do differiential ailerons do?
Deflects further upward than the downward one to counteract the yawing effect created by the downward aileron
99
What type of flaps does the Archer have?
Slotted flaps
100
What is the benefit of slotted flaps?
Better performance at slower speeds
101
What type of propeller does the archer have?
Sesinich fixed pitch
102
What type of engine does the archer have?
Lycoming
Horizontally opposed
Air cooled
Normally aspirated
Direct drive

180 hp
103
What is the acronym to remember the engine in the Archer?
LHAND
104
What type of gear does the archer have?
Tricycle with differential hydraulic toe braking
105
How many gallons does each tank hold in the Archer at tabs?
17 gallons at tabs, 32 useable (both tanks)
106
How does the airspeed indicator work?
It compares the pressure between the pitot and the static port
107
What are the gyroscopic systems?
Heading indicator, attitude indicator, and turn coordinator
108
$V_{S0}$
Stall speed landing config (45 knots)
109
$V_{S1}$
Stall speed no flaps (50)
110
$V_X$
Best angle (64)
111
$V_Y$
Best rate (76)
112
$V_{FE}$
Maximum flap extension (102)
113
$V_A$
Maneuvering Speed (113)
114
$V_{NO}$
Max structural cruise (125)
115
$V_{NE}$
Never exceed (154)
116
What is the total useable fuel in the archer (Tabs and Full)?
32 gallons at tabs; 48 full
117
What conditions are associated with a warm front?
Steady rain, widespread clouds, poor visibility, stratifrom clouds, low ceilings
118
What is a warm front?
A warm front is when a warm air mass advances and replaces a colder body of air, covering the cold air and forcing it out below
119
What conditions are associated with a cold front?
thunderstorms, towering cumulus, precipitation
120
What is a stationary front?
A stationary front is when the forces of two air masses are relatively equal, causing them to not move.
121
What is an occluded front?
When a faster-moving cold front catches up to a warm front, forcing the warm air up.
122
What type of front is this?
Stationary front
123
What type of front is this?
Occluded front
124
How does a high pressure system move?
Clockwise, outwards, and downwards
125
How does a low pressure system move?
Counter-clockwise, inwards, and upwards
126
What is a Sierra AIRMET mean?
Widespread IFR
127
What does a Tango AIRMET mean?
Turbulence
128
What does a Zulu AIRMET mean?
Icing
129
How does GUMPS apply to the Archer?
Gas
Undercarriage (N/A)
Mixture (Full rich)
Prop (N/A)
Switches (LDG Light and fuel pump on)
130
What altitude is used for ground reference maneuvers?
Between 600 and a 1000' AGL, or 1,200' MSL (TOP) ~1100' MSL
131
What speed do you enter for turns around a point?
Cruise speed (100-115)
132
How do you enter for turns around a point?
On a tailwind
133
How do you enter for S-Turns?
On a tailwind
134
What altitudes for performance maneuvers?
No lower than 1,500' AGL
(So ~1,800 MSL)
135
What speed do you fully retract flaps at for recovery from slow flight/stalls?
76 knots
136
When do you retract the second notch of flaps while recovering?
Once there is a postive climb rate.
137
What speed do you descend at for power-off stall?
65 knots
138
What speed do you aim for for a power-on stall before applying full power?
70-75 knots
139
Engine fire during start procedure
Keep starter on
Mixture cut
Throttle open
turn off fuel pump and fuel selector
140
Engine failure during flight restart procedure
76 knots
switch tanks
fuel pump on
mixture rich
carb heat on
turn each mag on/off one at a time
141
Power off landing checklist
close throttle and mixture
turn off mags
turn off battery
turn off alternator
turn off fuel
Crack door open
142
Electrical fire checklist
Verify emerg battery armed
Master batt off
alternator off
vents open
cabin heat off
extinguish fire
143
Emergency descent procedure
Throttle to idle
aim for 120 knots
bank 30-45 degrees
144
Spin recovery acronym
PARE
145
PARE
Power- idle
Ailerons- Neutal
Rudder opposite the turn
Elevator forward to break the stall, then back to level flight
146
How do you slip?
bank into the wind, Full rudder opposite the wind
147
Forward slip speed
Over 80 knots
148
Class B airspace requirements (Entry, Equipment, Visibility)
ATC Clearance, two-way radio communications
Mode C transponder (while inside the veil)
3sm, Clear of clouds
149
Mode C Veil description
Surrounds most Class B airports within 30nm.
Mode C transponder required
150
Class C airspace requirements (Entry, visibility, restrictions)
Establish and maintain two-way radio prior to entering, mode c transponder, adsb-out


3 miles visibility, 500 below, 1,000 above, 2000 horizontal
151
Class D airspace requirements
Establish and maintain two-way radio communication
3-152
152
Short field rotate speed
55 knots
153
Climb out speed for short field
64 knots
154
Vy speed for short takeoff
76 knots
155
What is the standard temperature at sea level?
15C 59F
156
How far should a pilot stay away from a thunderstorm, and what are the risks of flying too close?
At least 20nm

hail, turbulence, lightning
157
Squawk 7700
General emergency
158
General emergency Squawk
Squawk 7700
159
Squawk 7600
Lost communications
160
Lost communications squawk
Squawk 7600
161
Squawk 7500
Hijacking
162
Hijacking squawk
Squawk 7500
163
What are the characteristics of an aft CG?
Unstable
Takeoff ground roll decreased
Stall speed decreases
Cruise speed increases
bad stall recovery characteristics
164
What are the characteristics of a forward CG?
more stable
takeoff ground roll increased
stall speed increases
cruise speed decreases
165
What are the four forces acting on a plane in flight?
Lift, thrust, drag, weight
166
What are the two types of drag?
Parasitic and Induced
167
What are the three types of parasitic drag?
Form drag
Skin friction
Interference
168
When is wake turbulence the worse? (conditions and event)
Heavy, clean, and slow

During takeoff
169
How do wing tip vortices move?
Downwards and outwards
170
What are the four left-turning tendencies?
P-factor
Gyroscopic precession
Torque
Spiraling slipstream
171
When are left-turning tendencies the most prominient?
During high angle of attacks and high power settings.
172
What causes P-factor?
The propeller's descending blade experiencing a greater angle of attack (bigger bite of air) than the ascending blade, causing more thrust on one side causing a yaw to the left
173
What is gyroscopic precession, and type of plane does it primarily affect?
As the air hits the top of the prop, due to Newton's law of motion, will be applied at a 90 degrees later, creating a yaw to the left.

Tailwheel
174
What is torque (left turning tendency)
As the prop moves clockwise, from the pilot seat, the plane rotates in the opposite direction
175
What is slipstream spiral?
The backwash of air from the prop spirals around the plane hitting the vertical stabilizer
176
What altitude does Class E airspace start at?
700ft agl or 1,200 ft AGL
177
What altitude does Class D airspace start at?
At the surface
178
What altitudes does class G extend to?
Surface up to 1200 AGL (wherever class E airspace begins)
179
What type of airspace is depicted?
Class B
180
What type of airspace is depicted?
Class C
181
What type of airspace is depicted?
Class D
182
What type of airspace is depicted?
Class E
183
What type of area is this?
Prohibited Area
184
Class B Airspace Boundaries
Typically 10,000 ft. MSL surrounding busiest airports. Tailored to fit each airport's needs (lateral and vertical).
185
Class B Airspace Cloud Clearance & Visibility Requirements
>Clear of clouds
>3 SM visibility
186
Class B Airspace Speed Limits
250 kts
Under shelf - 200 kts
187
Class C Airspace Boundaries
Typically surface to 4,000 ft MSL
>Inner surface area: surface to 4,000 ft & 5 NM diameter
>Outer shelf area: 1,200 ft MSL to 4,000 ft MSL & 10 NM diameter
188
Class C Airspace Cloud Clearance & Visibility Requirements
1,000 ft above,
500 ft below,
2,000 ft horizontal

3 SM visibility
189
Class C Airspace Speed Limit
200 knots
190
Class D Airspace Dimensions
Typically surface to 2,500 ft AGL.
4 NM diameter.
191
Class D Airspace Cloud Clearance & Visibility Requirements
>1,000 ft above,
500 ft below,
2,000 ft horizontal
>3 SM visibility
192
Class D Airspace Speed Limit
200 kts
193
What does Class E beginning at the surface look like?
Dashed magenta
194
What does Class E beginning at 700ft AGL look like?
Shaded magenta
195
What does Class E beginning at 1,200 AGL look like?
Shaded blue
196
What does nonstandard Class E look like?
Zipper line
197
What do victor airways look like?
Light blue lines
198
How far out do you make your first radio call for Class Delta (towered)?
10 miles
199
What 3 distances do you make your traffic calls for untowered?
10, 5 and 3
200
OSUN
Overshoot South, undershoot North
201
ANDS
Accelerate North, Decelerate South
202
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums 1,200ft AGL and below Day
1 SM
203
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums 1,200ft AGL and below Night
3 SM
204
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums 1,200ft AGL and below Day and Night
1SM; 3SM
205
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums Below 10,000ft MSL Day
1 SM
206
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums Below 10,000ft MSL Night
3 sm
207
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums Below 10,000ft MSL Day/Night (Different)
1SM, 3SM
208
Class G VFR Visibility Minimums At or above 10,000ft MSL (Day and Night) (Same)
5SM
209
Class G VFR Visibility and Cloud Minimums

1,200ft AGL and below DAY
1SM,
Clear of clouds
210
Class G VFR Visibility and Cloud Minimums

1,200ft AGL and below NIGHT
3SM,

1000 feet above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal
211
Class G VFR Visibility and Cloud Minimums

Below 10,000ft MSL DAY
1SM, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal
212
Class G VFR Visibility and Cloud Minimums

Below 10,000ft MSL NIGHT
3SM,
1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal
213
Class G VFR Visibility and Cloud Minimums

At or above 10,000 (night or day) (they are the same)
5SM,

1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1SM horizontal
214
Class E airspace Visibility and Cloud Minimums above 10,000ft
5SM,
1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1SM horizontal
215
What ATC Services are provided in Class G?
VFR Traffic Advisorires on Request (workload permitting)
216
What ATC Services are provided in Class E?
IFR/IFR Separation

VFR traffic advisories on request (workload permitting)
217
What are the visibility and cloud requirements for Class D (day and night?)
3SM,
1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontal
218
The cloud and visibility requirements for Class D are the same both day and night.
  • False
  • True
219
What services are available in Class C?
IFR/IFR Separation
IFR/VFR Separation

VFR Traffic Advisories on request (workload permitting)
220
What services are available in Class B?
All aircraft separation
221
What altitudes does Class A airspace extend to?
18,000ft MSL up to and including FL600
222
Eastman Ground Frequency
121.175
223
Eastman Tower/CTAF frequency
124.55
224
Eastman ATIS frequency
119.425
225
What regulation covers airspace?
91.155
226
What are the standard pressures (both in. HG and millibars)
29.92 in HG

1,013.25 millibars
227
How long does a First Class :*\medical last?
Over 40: 6 Calendar Months
Under 40: 12 Calendar month
228
What does the 'N' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
NOTAMs
229
What does the 'W' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Weather reports and forecasts
230
What does the 'K' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Known traffic delays
231
What does the 'R' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Runway length of intended use
232
What does the 'A' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Alternatives available
233
What does the 'F' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Fuel requirements
234
What does the 'T' in the NWKRAFT preflight acronym stand for?
Takeoff and landing performance data
235
For a pilot under 40, how long does a First Class medical certificate provide First Class privileges?
12 calendar months
236
For a pilot over 40, how long does a First Class medical certificate provide First Class privileges?
6 calendar months
237
How long is a Third Class medical valid for a pilot under age 40?
60 calendar months
238
How long is a Third Class medical valid for a pilot age 40 or over?
24 calendar months
239
What is the maximum certificated takeoff weight for an aircraft operated under BasicMed?
12,500 pounds
240
What is the maximum number of occupants permitted in an aircraft flown under BasicMed?
7 occupants
241
To qualify for BasicMed, a pilot must have held a valid FAA medical certificate after what date?
July 14, 2006
242
Under BasicMed, what is the maximum speed allowed?
250 knots
243
What is the maximum altitude allowed for flight under BasicMed?
18,000 feet MSL
244
What is Bernoulli’s Principle as applied to lift?
An increase in fluid speed over the top of the wing results in a decrease in pressure, creating an upward force from the low pressure below the wing
245
What is the chord line of an airfoil?
An imaginary straight line connecting the leading and trailing edges
246
What is the definition of Angle of Attack?
The angle between the chord line and the relative wind
247
What are the three types of ADs?
One-time
Recurrent
Emergency
248
What are the three types of Airworthiness Directives?
One-time
Recurrent
Emergency
249
What does "IA" mean on an inspection?
It means that the work was completed by an A&P with an Inspection Authorization.
250
When is an A&P with an Inspection Authorization required?
For annuals.
251
What are the four characteristics of Unstable Air?
Cumuliform clouds
Showery Precipitation
Rough air
Good visibility (except in blowing obstructions)
252
What are the characteristics of stable air?
Stratifrom clouds and fog
Continuous Precipitation
Smooth air
Fair to poor visiblity in haze and smoke
253
What is dewpoint?
Dew point is the temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated with water already present in the air
254
If temperature and dew point spread is small and decreasing, and above freezing, what is about to occur ?
Condensation, clouds and fog
255
How does radiation fog form?
ground cools the air to dew point on calm, clear nights
256
How does Advection fog form?
warm, moist air moves over cold surface, winds are required for this fog to form and it forms primarily over coastal regions
257
warm, moist air moves over cold surface, winds are required for this fog to form and it forms primarily over coastal regions
Advection fog
258
How does Upslope fog form?
Fog formed as moist, stable air flows upward over a topographic barrier such as a mountain
259
How does steam fog form?
Cold, dry air moves over warm water. Common over bodies of water during the coldest times of the year
260
How does Ice fog form?
Occurs in cold weather when temperature is below freezing and water vapor forms into ice crystals
261
How does precipitation fog form?
forms when rain evaporates as it falls through a layer of cool air
262
Soft field takeoff procedure
Full aft yoke, no stopping
lift off at lowest airspeed
maintain ground effect until 64kts for obstacle, or 76kts for no obstacle
at 1000' AGL transition to cruise climb 87 knots
263
ONE
Odd North East
264
CCCCC
Confess
Conserve
Circle
Climb
Call
265
Planes certficated after what year require anti-collision lights?
1996
266
Planes certficated after what year require shoulder belts?
1986
267
PSCRIPT
Pro-rata
Salesman (aircraft) (200hr TT)
Charity (500tt)
Rescue
Incidental
Production
Tow a glider (100 PIC)
268
How many hours does an aircraft salemanwith a PPL need?
200 hours
269
How many hours does a PPL need for charity flights?
500 hours 91.146
270
How many hours does a PPL need to tow a glider?
100 hours PIC
271
5 P's
Plan
Plane
Pilot
Passengers
Programming
272
Go around procedure
Full power, pitch for climb
Retract flaps first notch
Pitch for Vy (76)
Positive rate, second notch
Retract last notch and pitch for 76
Annonce
273
What is the Base speed for a normal landing?
80 knots
274
What is the final speed for a normal landing?
70 knots
275
What RPM when abeam the numbers for a normal landing?
1,500-1,900 RPM
276
What airpseed when abeam the numbers?
90 knots
277
What base airspeed for a shortfield approach?
80kts
278
What airspeed on final for a short field approach?
65kts
279
Nose High unusual attitude
Full throttle
Allow nose to fall
Roll wings level
280
Nose low unusual attitude
Close throttle
Roll wings level
Pitch for level flight attitude
281
What altitude for slow flight/stalls?
No lower than 1,500' AGL
282
What is a Special Flight Permit and how is it obtained?

What can it be used for?
A permit issued by the FAA to an aircraft that does not currently meet airworthiness requirements but is capable of safe flight.

Can be used for:
Flying to a base for repairs
Delivering/exporting
Evacuating from danger
283
What are the Owner/Operator’s primary responsibilities regarding aircraft maintenance?
Maintain the aircraft in an airworthy condition.
Ensuring Maintentance is properly recorded
Complying with all ADs
284
What is a Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
A (MEL) is an FAA- approved, aircraft-specific document that lists the equipment which can be broken or not working while still allowing the plane to fly safely.
285
What is a kinds of Operation Equipment List (KOEL)?
A KOEL identified which equipment is required for a specific type of operation.
286
What is a METAR?
An hourly surface observation
287
What is windshear?
A sudden change in wind speed or direction
288
What is a microburst?
An intense, localized downdraft associated with thunderstorms that can cause severe windshear
289
What is Special VFR (SFVR)?
An ATC clearance allowing a pilot to operate within the lateral boundaries in weather less than basic VFR.

1sm clear of clouds
290
SVFR Requirements
1 SM & COC
291
What are the requirements for flying after Scuba Diving?
Wait 12 hours for flights up to 8,000'

24 hours for flights above 8,000' or for any dive required controlled ascent.
292
Stationary Front associated conditions
A mix of both warm front and cold front conditions.
293
What is a trough line?
An elongated area of low pressure
294
How long are TAFs valid for?
24 or 30 hours
295
How often are TAFs issues? (Times a day and hours)
4 times a day, every 6 hours.
296
VFR Fuel Requirements day
Destination + 30 minutes at cruise
297
VFR Fuel Requirements Night
Destination + 45 minutes at cruise
298
Name the main types of icing an aircraft may encounter in-flight.
Structural, induction system, and instrument icing.
299
What are the three types of structural icing?
Claer, rime and mixed
300
How does clear ice form?
Forms after initial impact, when the liquid poriton of the drop flows over the surface and gradually freezes

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