1What does the OSI session layer do?
Establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions.
2Which OSI layer is the session layer?
Layer 5.
3What is simplex communication?
Communication in one direction only.
4What is half-duplex communication?
Communication in both directions, but only one direction at a time.
5What is full-duplex communication?
Communication in both directions simultaneously.
6Which OSI layer is the presentation layer?
Layer 6.
7What does the OSI presentation layer do?
Formats, translates, encrypts, and compresses data.
8What is data conversion at the presentation layer?
Translating data between formats or encodings.
9What is encryption?
Transforming readable data into ciphertext using a cryptographic algorithm and key.
10Which OSI layer is the application layer?
Layer 7.
11What does the OSI application layer provide?
Network services to user applications.
12Which protocols operate at the application layer?
HTTP, FTP, SMTP, DNS, and Telnet.
13What is a host-based application architecture?
A central host performs application functions while terminals provide user interaction.
14What is a client/server architecture?
Clients request services or resources from servers.
15What is cloud computing?
On-demand access to shared computing resources over a network.
16What is an N-tier application architecture?
An application divided into multiple tiers with separate responsibilities.
17What is a peer-to-peer architecture?
An architecture in which devices can act as both clients and servers.
18What are the four main application processing functions?
Data storage, data access, processing logic, and user interface.
19What is the data storage function?
Maintaining application data for later use.
20What is the data access function?
Retrieving and modifying stored data.
21What is processing logic?
The rules and calculations that manipulate application data.
22What is the user interface function?
Allowing users to interact with an application.
23What is a network port?
A transport-layer number identifying an application or service on a host.
24What is a network socket?
A communication endpoint identified by an IP address and port within a transport protocol.
25Which protocol commonly uses TCP port 80?
HTTP.
26Which port does FTP use for its control connection?
TCP port 21.
27Which port does FTP traditionally use for active-mode data connections?
TCP port 20.
28Which protocol commonly uses TCP port 23?
Telnet.
29Which protocol commonly uses TCP port 25?
SMTP.
30What architecture does the World Wide Web primarily use?
Client/server.
31What does a web browser send to request a resource?
An HTTP request.
32What does a web server return after receiving an HTTP request?
An HTTP response.
33What is malware?
Software designed to damage, disrupt, or gain unauthorized access to systems.
34What is a denial-of-service attack?
An attack that makes a service unavailable to legitimate users.
35Which OSI layer is the data link layer?
Layer 2.
36What is the primary function of the data link layer?
Delivering frames across a local network link.
37What data unit does the data link layer use?
A frame.
38How does the data link layer build on the physical layer?
It organizes transmitted bits into frames and controls local link delivery.
39What type of address is used at Layer 2?
A MAC address.
40What is a MAC address?
A link-layer identifier assigned to a network interface.
41What is the usual length of an Ethernet MAC address?
48 bits.
42How does a switch learn MAC addresses?
It records incoming frames’ source MAC addresses and arrival ports.
43How does a switch forward a frame with a known destination MAC address?
It sends the frame through the associated destination port.
44What does a switch do with an unknown unicast destination?
Floods the frame through other eligible ports in the same VLAN.
45What is bridging?
Connecting LAN segments and forwarding frames using MAC addresses.
46What does CSMA/CD stand for?
Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection.
47What does carrier sensing in CSMA/CD mean?
Checking whether the shared medium is idle before transmitting.
48What happens after a collision in CSMA/CD?
Devices stop transmitting, wait a randomized backoff interval, and retry.
49Where is CSMA/CD used?
Shared, half-duplex Ethernet.
50Does full-duplex switched Ethernet use CSMA/CD?
No.
51What does STP stand for?
Spanning Tree Protocol.
52What problem does STP prevent?
Layer 2 switching loops.
53How does STP prevent loops?
It blocks redundant paths to create a loop-free topology.
54What is the STP root bridge?
The reference switch used to calculate the spanning tree.
55How does STP choose the root bridge?
The switch with the lowest bridge ID becomes the root.
56How does STP support resiliency?
It can activate an alternate path after a topology failure.
57What is link aggregation?
Combining multiple physical links into one logical link.
58What does LACP stand for?
Link Aggregation Control Protocol.
59What does LACP do?
Negotiates and maintains a group of aggregated links.
60What are two benefits of link aggregation?
Increased aggregate bandwidth and link redundancy.
61What is a hierarchical backbone?
A backbone organized into multiple network tiers.
62What is a flat backbone?
A backbone with little or no hierarchical layering.
63What is a collapsed backbone?
A backbone concentrated in a central device or small group of devices.
64Which OSI layer is the network layer?
Layer 3.
65What is the primary function of the network layer?
Routing packets between networks using logical addresses.
66What data unit does the network layer use?
A packet.
67What type of address does IP routing use?
An IP address.
68What is a routed protocol?
A protocol whose packets can be forwarded between networks.
69What is an example of a routed protocol?
IP.
70What is a routing protocol?
A protocol routers use to exchange reachability and route information.
71What is a routing table?
A list of destination networks and the routes used to reach them.
72What is a next hop?
The next router to which a packet is forwarded.
73What is static routing?
Routing using manually configured routes.
74What is dynamic routing?
Routing that uses protocols to learn and update routes automatically.
75What is path determination?
Selecting a route to a destination network.
76What is a routing metric?
A value used to compare routes.
77What are examples of routing metrics?
Hop count, bandwidth, delay, and cost.
78What is routing convergence?
The state in which routers have consistent routing information after changes.
79What is routing load balancing?
Distributing traffic across multiple available paths.
80What is distance-vector routing?
Routing that exchanges destination distances and next-hop information with neighbors.
81What is link-state routing?
Routing that distributes link information so routers can calculate paths from a topology map.
82What is an interior gateway protocol?
A routing protocol used within one autonomous system.
83What is an exterior gateway protocol?
A routing protocol used between autonomous systems.
84What is an autonomous system?
A group of networks managed under a common routing policy.
85What does RIP stand for?
Routing Information Protocol.
86What type of routing protocol is RIP?
A distance-vector interior gateway protocol.
87What metric does RIP use?
Hop count.
88What is the maximum reachable hop count in RIP?
15 hops.
89What does a RIP metric of 16 mean?
The destination is unreachable.
90What is split horizon?
A rule preventing a route from being advertised back through the interface where it was learned.
91What problem does split horizon help reduce?
Routing loops.
92What does OSPF stand for?
Open Shortest Path First.
93What type of routing protocol is OSPF?
A link-state interior gateway protocol.
94What algorithm does OSPF use to calculate shortest paths?
Dijkstra’s shortest-path-first algorithm.
95What metric does OSPF use?
Cost, typically derived from interface bandwidth.
96What does IGRP stand for?
Interior Gateway Routing Protocol.
97What type of routing protocol is IGRP?
A Cisco-developed distance-vector interior gateway protocol.
98What does EIGRP stand for?
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol.
99What type of routing protocol is EIGRP?
An advanced distance-vector interior gateway protocol.
100What algorithm does EIGRP use?
Diffusing Update Algorithm, or DUAL.
101Which factors does EIGRP use by default in its metric?
Bandwidth and delay.
102What does BGP stand for?
Border Gateway Protocol.
103What type of routing protocol is BGP?
A path-vector routing protocol.
104What is BGP’s main role?
Exchanging routing information between autonomous systems.
105What BGP attribute lists the autonomous systems a route traverses?
AS_PATH.
106What is first-hop redundancy?
Providing an alternate router if a host’s default gateway fails.
107What does VRRP stand for?
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol.
108What does VRRP provide?
A shared virtual default gateway with router failover.
109What does HSRP stand for?
Hot Standby Router Protocol.
110What does HSRP provide?
A Cisco gateway redundancy mechanism using active and standby routers.
111What does GLBP stand for?
Gateway Load Balancing Protocol.
112What does GLBP provide?
Default-gateway redundancy and load balancing across multiple routers.
113What is the core or backbone of a network?
The high-speed infrastructure connecting major network segments.
114What is a WAN?
A wide area network connecting networks across large geographic areas.
115What is a data center?
A facility housing computing, storage, and networking equipment.
116What is the distribution layer of a network?
The layer that aggregates access connections and applies network policies.
117What is the access edge of a network?
The portion where end-user devices connect.
118What is a DMZ?
A separate network segment for externally accessible services.
119What does IPAM stand for?
IP Address Management.
120What does IPAM manage?
IP address allocation, tracking, and related address-space information.
121What does DHCP stand for?
Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol.
122What does DHCP provide?
Automatic IP addressing and other network configuration settings.
123What does DNS stand for?
Domain Name System.
124What does DNS do?
Resolves domain names into IP addresses and other records.
125What does NTP stand for?
Network Time Protocol.
126What does NTP do?
Synchronizes device clocks over a network.
127What does a network hub do?
Repeats incoming signals to its other ports.
128At which OSI layer does a hub operate?
Layer 1.
129What does a Layer 2 switch do?
Forwards frames using MAC addresses.
130What does a router do?
Forwards packets between IP networks.
131What does a firewall do?
Permits or blocks network traffic according to security rules.
132What does IDS stand for?
Intrusion Detection System.
133What does an IDS do?
Monitors activity and alerts on suspected intrusions.
134What does IPS stand for?
Intrusion Prevention System.
135What does an IPS do?
Detects and actively blocks suspected malicious traffic.
136What does WAP stand for in networking?
Wireless Access Point.
137What does a wireless access point do?
Connects wireless clients to a network.
138What does a wireless range extender do?
Retransmits wireless signals to extend coverage.
139What is an IoT device?
A network-connected physical device that senses, processes, or exchanges data.
140What does VoIP stand for?
Voice over Internet Protocol.
141What does a VoIP device do?
Sends and receives voice communications over IP networks.
142What is identification in access control?
Claiming an identity, such as by entering a username.
143What is authentication?
Verifying a claimed identity.
144What is authorization?
Determining which resources or actions an authenticated identity may access.
145What is accounting in network access control?
Recording user activity and resource usage.
146What does AAA stand for?
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting.
147How do wireless networks support mobility?
Users can connect while moving within wireless coverage.
148How can wireless networks reduce installation costs?
They reduce the need for cabling to individual devices.
149How do wireless networks support scalability?
They allow additional clients to connect without individual cable runs.
150What does the IEEE 802.11 family define?
Wireless LAN standards.
151Which frequency band does 802.11b use?
2.4 GHz.
152Which frequency band does 802.11a use?
5 GHz.
153Which frequency band does 802.11g use?
2.4 GHz.
154Which frequency bands does 802.11n support?
2.4 GHz and 5 GHz.
155Which frequency band does 802.11ac use?
5 GHz.
156Which Wi-Fi generation corresponds to 802.11n?
Wi-Fi 4.
157Which Wi-Fi generation corresponds to 802.11ac?
Wi-Fi 5.
158Which Wi-Fi generation corresponds to 802.11ax?
Wi-Fi 6.
159What does WLAN stand for?
Wireless Local Area Network.
160What does OSA stand for in WLAN security?
Open System Authentication.
161Does Open System Authentication verify possession of a shared secret?
No.
162What does SKA stand for in WLAN security?
Shared Key Authentication.
163How does Shared Key Authentication verify a client?
It uses a challenge-response process based on a shared WEP key.
164What does EAP stand for?
Extensible Authentication Protocol.
165What does EAP provide?
A framework supporting multiple authentication methods.
166What does WEP stand for?
Wired Equivalent Privacy.
167What is a major weakness of WEP?
Its cryptographic design allows attackers to recover keys.
168What does WPA stand for?
Wi-Fi Protected Access.
169What protocol did original WPA introduce to improve on WEP?
TKIP.
170What does AES stand for?
Advanced Encryption Standard.
171What type of encryption algorithm is AES?
A symmetric block cipher.
172What is a client-to-client WLAN attack?
An attack by one wireless client against another.
173What is a WLAN denial-of-service attack?
An attack that disrupts wireless network availability.
174What is a WLAN insertion attack?
Introducing an unauthorized wireless device or access point into a network.
175What is a WLAN interception attack?
Capturing wireless communications without authorization.
176What is IEEE 802.1X?
A framework for port-based network access control.
177What are the three main roles in 802.1X?
Supplicant, authenticator, and authentication server.
178What is the supplicant in 802.1X?
The client requesting network access.
179What is the authenticator in 802.1X?
The switch or access point controlling network access.
180What is the authentication server in 802.1X?
The server that validates client credentials.
181What does RADIUS stand for?
Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service.
182What role does RADIUS commonly serve in 802.1X?
It carries authentication information between the authenticator and authentication server.
183What is symmetric encryption?
Encryption using the same shared secret key for encryption and decryption.
184What is asymmetric encryption?
Encryption using a mathematically related public and private key pair.
185Which key creates a digital signature?
The signer’s private key.
186Which key verifies a digital signature?
The signer’s public key.
187What does a digital signature help verify?
The origin and integrity of signed data.
188Does a digital signature alone conceal a message’s contents?
No.
189What did IEEE 802.11i establish?
Enhanced wireless authentication and encryption mechanisms.
190Which Wi-Fi security certification implements 802.11i?
WPA2.
191What does TKIP stand for?
Temporal Key Integrity Protocol.
192What does TKIP improve compared with WEP?
Per-packet key mixing and message integrity.
193What does CCMP stand for?
Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol.
194Which cipher does CCMP use?
AES.
195What does CCMP provide?
Data confidentiality, integrity, and replay protection.
196What is MAC address filtering?
Allowing or denying devices based on their MAC addresses.
197Why is MAC address filtering weak as a sole security measure?
Attackers can spoof an allowed MAC address.
198What is RF design in WLAN planning?
Planning radio frequencies, channels, power levels, and access point placement.
199What does WLAN coverage describe?
The area where wireless signal quality supports usable connections.
200What does WLAN capacity describe?
The number of clients and amount of traffic a WLAN can support.
201What is WLAN site qualification?
Assessing whether a location can meet wireless coverage, capacity, and installation requirements.
202What can a wireless site survey identify?
Coverage gaps, interference, and suitable access point locations.