1Tomlinson purchased MetLife Stadium, from Odell, but did not immediately record his deed. Next, Odell gifted MetLife Stadium to Aaron Rodgers, who had no notice of the earlier deed. Then Tomlinson recorded his deed. Next, Aaron recorded his deed. Who has superior title to MetLife?
Tomlinson, regardless of whether this is a notice or race-notice jurisdiction because his deed was first and neither statute gives priority to Aaron, a donee.
Recording acts protect good faith purchasers so they do not protect Aaron, a donee. Thus the priorities are governed by first in time, first in right. Tomlinson deed came first, so he has priority over Aaron. A and B are wrong because Aaron does not have priority under either statute. D is wrong because Aaron good faith does not give him priority under either statute because he's not a purchaser.
2JWow owned Greenshore. When her mother, Dawn, became frail, Joy invited her to live with her on Greenshore. She drafted a deed granting her mother a life interest in Greenshore and gave it to her, stating if anything should happen to me, I want you to be able to live here forever. Dawn took the deed and put it in her desk drawer. Shortly thereafter, JWow fell in love with Rodger and married him. She deeded Greenshore from JWow to JWow and Rodger as joint tenants with the right of survivorship. She told Rodger, Of course, this is subject to my mother's right to live out her life here; I have given her a life interest. Rodger said, Sure, no problem, and immediately recorded this deed. Tragically, JWow was killed a few months later in an fist pumping accident. Rodger has no intention of living on Greenshore with his mother-in-law. He decided to sell Greenshore to his friend Situation. He told Situation, Look, Dawn has a life estate, apparently, but since it's not recorded you should be able to get rid of her immediately. He conveyed to Situation by quitclaim deed for the full fair market value of Greenshore, and Situation immediately recorded this deed. Which of the following is true in a suit by Situation to eject Dawn from Greenshore?
Situation will win only in a pure race recording act jurisdiction where all that matters is who recorded first. B: Situation will lose only in a notice recording act jurisdiction.It seems like Dawn is between Rock and Hardplace but is she really? Joy properly conveyed a life interest to Dawn. She then conveyed a half-interest with right of survivorship to Rock, but because the conveyance to Dawn came first, at common law Rock's interest is burdened by the life estate. When Dawn dies, Rock has the fee simple, but it is still burdened by the previously conveyed life estate. When he conveys to Hardplace, at common law it remains burdened by the life estate. Therefore, the only way that Hardplace can take free of Dawn's interest is by coming within the terms of the recording act. In a notice or race-notice jurisdiction, a subsequent purchaser for value has to take without notice; clearly, Hardplace had notice here because he was told of Dawn's interest. Thus, answer B is incorrect because H will also lose in a race-notice jurisdiction. In addition, Dawn is occupying the property which would raise an issue of inquiry notice. However, in a jurisdiction with a pure race statute, we don't care what Hardplace knew. As long as he records his deed first, which he did, and which Rock did, he should win. You might think that Dawn would lose in any jurisdiction because she didn't pay value and didn't record, but remember neither recording nor consideration is required for a valid conveyance; thus, answer D is incorrect. You might think that Dawn would win in any jurisdiction because of the knowledge of Hardplace and Rock, but again, the pure race statute does not consider that, focusing on the certainty benefits of relying solely on the timing of recorded documents, and thus, answer C is incorrect. Recommended Reading: pages 437-439, 446-451 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
3In 2009, Borat borrowed \$270,000 from Lebannon Bank to finance his purchase of Baghdad which appraised for \$300,000. Lebannon took a mortgage on Baghdad to secure the loan, and the mortgage agreement included a power of sale provision which allowed Lender to conduct a private foreclosure sale in the event of default. In 2014, Borat defaulted on the loan. The balance of the loan was \$255,000 when fees and costs were included. Lebannon conducted a foreclosure sale 60 days after notice to Borat, extensive advertising, and listing the property with brokers. Lebannon was the only bidder at the sale and bid \$255,000. Lebannon, therefore, declared itself to be the owner of Baghdad in satisfaction of the outstanding debt. Borat has evidence that the market value of Baghdad at the time of the sale was \$320,000. What is the most likely analysis of Borat's ability to recapture his equity in the property?
If there is a statutory equity of redemption period in the jurisdiction, Borat can use it to protect his equity in Baghdad. The question concerns a power of sale mortgage which allows the mortgagee to conduct a private foreclosure sale instead of going through the judicial foreclosure process. This is permissible in most jurisdictions as long as required procedures are followed, and the validity of such a sale does not depend upon its yielding a sale at market value. Therefore, answer A is incorrect. The safeguards to ensure fairness to Borat do not require that anyone else bid on the property; as long as Lender didn't try to chill bidding and as long as the rules regarding notice were followed, the fact that Lebannon was the only bidder is not sufficient to set aside the sale, so answer B is also incorrect. Answer C concerns the sale price. It is true that a sale can be set aside if it shocks the conscience of the court; the fact that the price was below fair market value, even significantly below, is not sufficient, especially under the circumstances here, where the sale was advertised widely and listed with brokers. Foreclosures are distress sales allowing the lender to sell the property reasonably fast; otherwise, they would be forced to assume the risk of a declining market. Answer C is incorrect. A statutory equity of redemption is Borat's best option here; most states allow the mortgagor to redeem the property for a period of time after the sale. If Borat wants to protect his equity in the property, he needs to find funds to redeem the property from Lender. He could, for example, find a buyer for \$320,000, use \$255,000 of that (plus additional accrued interest) to redeem the mortgage, and pocket the difference. Recommended Reading: pages 406-423 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
4Glenny Balls enters into a contract to buy a residential property, Blackacre, from its current owner, Francis. After
closing, Glenny balls discovers several defects that he believes Francis should have disclosed to him: 1) there is a Superfund hazardous waste site down the street; 2) the property was the site of a triple homicide several years before, leading Francis to sell the right to film the interior to a tabloid TV show, TMZ, and 3) current zoning does not allow conversion of the garage into a commercial art gallery. Which of these defects is the most promising basis for rescission, assuming Glenny Balls can prove that the defect has a material impact on the property's value?
Defect 2. Remember that the rule is that seller must disclose material defects he knows about which are not discoverable upon reasonable inspection. Defect 1 is an off-site issue, which courts typically do not require the seller to disclose because it is not a problem with Blackacre itself. In addition, the existence of the Superfund site was readily discoverable by Glenny Balls. Answer A is therefore incorrect. Answer C is incorrect for the same reason.. Defect 2 is a stigma issue; it is not a physical defect, but if Glenny Balls can prove it as an effect on the property's value, some courts would hold that it is a defect that should be disclosed, especially since the seller exploited the stigma. See Stambovsky v. Ackley, 572 N.Y.S.2d 672 (App. Div. 1991) (haunted house) and Reed v. King, 193 Cal. Rptr. 130 (Ct. App. 1983) (multiple murder in house). Note that some courts would not require disclosure of the homicides, but it is the most promising basis of rescission among the three listed and is at least a plausible case in many jurisdictions, thus, making answer B the correct one. Recommended Reading: pages 371-378 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
5Steve Ballmer entered into a written contract with Donald Sterling to buy a condominium, contingent on financing. He particularly wanted Unit 501 because it looked out at the woods and the kitchen colors suited him perfectly. The contract specified that Donald Sterling would sell him Unit 501 for a price of \$500,000, and it was signed by both parties. Neither party recorded the contract. Just before closing, Donald Sterling told Steve Ballmer that Unit 501 was no longer available. He sold it to another buyer, Mark Cuban, a few days after entering into the contract with Steve. Cuban paid \$20,000 more, in cash; Donald conveyed to him, and the deed was recorded several days later. Donald believed that Steve would not be able to qualify for financing, so he was pretty sure he would not have to fulfill his bargain with him, and he explained all that to Cuban. Steve did meet the financing contingency, however, and wants the deal to close. Donald offered him another unit, Unit 505, but Steve is not pleased; Unit 505 has a different view of the woods, the colors are different, and it is not as sunny as Unit 501. Donald offers to sell Unit 505 to him for \$450,000 to make up for these differences. Donald argues that because he has already sold Unit 501 to Cuban, he cannot perform the original agreement with Steve. Which of the following is true in a race-notice jurisdiction?
If he doesn't want to rescind, Steve should be able to get specific performance of the original agreement, because Donald can deliver her a deed to Unit 501. Steve entered into an enforceable real estate contract with Donald subject to normal contingencies, which he met. Equitable conversion theory indicates Steve was the equitable owner at the time he entered into the contract. Specific performance is typically available as a remedy for the breach of a real estate contract. The courts reason that, as in the case of Steve, damages or the substitution of property of the same value will not really remedy the breach due to the unique nature of property. Thus, answers A and B are incorrect. The fact that Donald sold the Unit to Cuban a few days later is irrelevant; at that point, Steve was the equitable owner of Unit 501. Cuban could possibly claim priority under the state's recording act, but since he was told of the contract with Steve, he can't qualify as a Bona Fide Purchaser. So Donald can perform by delivering he the deed. (Whether Developer is liable to Cuban in damages is not Steve's problem.) Answer D is incorrect because Steve need not have recorded the contract to sue for its breach, and his priority over Cuban does not depend upon his recording.
6Bob Myers entered into a contract to buy a ranch from Steve Kerr for \$1 million. The ranch consisted of an old house and barn, as well as a stable for horses and some pasture land. The contract specified in Clause 1 that it was contingent on Bob Myers obtaining financing. The contract contained no inspection clause but rather specified that Bob Myers was buying the property as is. The deal was set to close in 60 days. During the closing period, Bob Myers walked the property and discovered that the barn was rotting and would probably need to be completely replaced in the near future. The jurisdiction has no statute requiring disclosure for that defect. Bob Myers requested that Steve Kerr remedy this defect or reduce the price by \$100,000. Steve declined. Bob then notified Steve he was rescinding the agreement on the basis of the barn defect and his failure to obtain financing. Bob indicated that he made applications to several banks. Given his credit rating, only one agreed to finance the deal, and at only 80% of the purchase price. Bob was planning on borrowing 90%. Steve seeks specific performance of the deal. Which of the following is most likely true?
Bob will not be able to rescind based on either the financing or the barn defect. With regard to the barn defect, Steve's duty is limited to disclosing any material defects he knows about that would not be revealed upon a reasonable inspection. The barn defect seems to be readily discoverable -- Bob discovered it himself when walking the property -- so is not a latent defect that needed to be disclosed. The real estate contract did not contain an inspection clause; instead, Bob agreed to accept the premises as is. That means he agreed to accept any patent defects such as the barn's rotting. That makes answers A and C incorrect. With regard to the financing, the contingency is written very broadly to include any financing. It does not specify any financing parameters like down payment that Bob must accept. Therefore, Bob cannot complain that this is not the financing he hoped for to avoid the contract.
7In 2010, Wes Edens borrowed \$50,000 from Mark Lasry. He signed both a note and a mortgage on the Bucks Practice Facility to secure the loan. Mark, however, did not record the mortgage at that time. On March 1, 2016, Wes Edens entered into a contract to sell the Bucks Practice Facility to Bono. Bono conducted a title search which of course did not reveal the mortgage to Mark and he was not told of his interest. On April 1, 2016, the sale closed. Bono paid full value for the property (\$200,000) in exchange for a general warranty deed. Wes Edens took the money and disappeared without repaying the loan from Mark. On April 15, 2016, Mark recorded his mortgage. On April 30, 2016, Bono recorded the general warranty deed. Mark now seeks to foreclose on Blackacre to satisfy his mortgage. Which of the following is true?
Mark can foreclose if the state has a race-notice recording act, but not a pure notice act. In a recording act problem, draw a little diagram showing when the conveyances and recordings occurred. In this case, Wes Edens conveyed to Mark, then Wes Edens conveyed to Bono, then Mark recorded, then Bono recorded. Because the conveyance to Mark was first in time, Mark will be able to foreclose unless Bono satisfies the requirements of the jurisdiction's recording act. If it is a race-notice act, Bono loses because even though he took without notice, he must also record first, which he did not. Bono loses because Mark recorded first. Mark wins. If it is a notice act, Bono wins because he took without notice of the previous transaction. Mark loses. Therefore, answer B is incorrect because Mark would be able to foreclose only in a race-notice state. Answers C and D are also incorrect for the same reason. Answer A is the only correct application of the law. Recommended Reading: pages 437-439, 446-451 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
8Betty Buyer bought a house in from Sally Seller, taking title by general warranty deed. The jurisdiction has no statutory disclosure requirements regarding the condition of the premises. Buyer inspected the property before closing but found nothing wrong. Shortly after moving in, however, she began to feel ill. After a few months, she discovered that there was mold growth behind the paneling in the living room. Seller had put up the paneling shortly before selling the property and admits she saw some mold at the time. Buyer received an estimate of \$20,000 to fix the problem. Buyer now wants to recover that amount in damages from Seller. Which of the following is her best argument?
Buyer can recover damages because Seller had a duty to disclose the mold. A is wrong because physical defects don't amount to encumbrances on title. In most jurisdictions, a seller must disclose material defects that are known to them and are not discoverable upon reasonable inspection. The mold was a material defect because it would have an impact on the value of the property. It was not discoverable because a reasonable inspection would not include tearing up paneling. It was known to seller because she admits that. Therefore, answer B is correct. Answer C is too broad; certainly property does not have to be free of material defects. There can be defects, as long as they are either patent or disclosed by seller, so that buyers can factor them into the offer price. Answer D is wrong because we have no evidence that seller made any representations regarding mold or the general quality of the house. Recommended Reading: pages 371-378 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
9O wrote out a deed conveying Blackacre to his daughter, A, signed it, and handed it to A. A put the deed away in 0/1
the closet. A few days later, O told A that he wanted to remain on Blackacre until he died. A said, "Of course. No problem. It's yours to have for your lifetime." A few days after that, O told A that they should make the arrangement legal. A handed the deed from the closet to O who inserted "O to retain possession for his lifetime." Later they had a fight and A filed suit to eject O. What is the most likely result?
A wins. O executed a deed to A and delivered it to her. A now owns the property in fee simple; recording is not necessary. So D is wrong. For A to convey a life estate to O, a writing signed by A is required. Thus O's adding the note to the deed days later does not create a life estate in him. So A is wrong. A's oral permission creates, at most, a revocable license in O. So C is wrong. Note that there is no evidence suggesting part performance or estoppel that would allow O to claim a life estate without a writing.
10Faust wanted to buy Lot 37 of the Berkley Hills Addition from Beowulf. The property contains a two-story house with a detached garage. Faust took a short tour of the house and loved it immediately. Faust was getting ready to leave for Europe and the two did not have a form contract readily available, so Beowulf simply wrote the terms on a piece of paper as follows: Faust agrees to purchase Lot 37 of the Berkley Hills Addition from Beowulf for \$100,000. Beowulf agrees to provide marketable title. Closing to be two months from today. Both parties signed and dated the document. Upon returning from Europe several weeks later, Faust took a closer look at the house and discovered stained and buckling ceiling plaster in one bedroom, indicating a chronically leaking roof. She now wants to back out of the contract. In the absence of any statutory requirements, which one of the following is true?
Faust has no valid basis for rescission. Answer A is incorrect because the written memorandum of the agreement meets the Statute of Frauds requirements: Price, Parties, Property. Answer B is incorrect because a physical defect in the property has nothing to do with marketable title. Answer C has to do with the common law doctrine of caveat emptor. At common law, buyers took the property as is and bore the risk of any defects. Modern modifications require disclosure of latent defects, which are problems that cause a material impact on the property's value. The leaky roof is a material defect, but it is not latent. A latent defect is one that is known to the seller but cannot be discovered by reasonable inspection. This defect was patent; it was easy for Faust to see that the plaster was stained and buckling. Therefore, Faust cannot rescind on this basis. Typically, real estate contracts contain an inspection clause allowing the buyer a certain amount of time for a closer inspection to find physical defects. This contract, however, did not include such a clause. In addition, many states have statutes requiring disclosure of certain material defects; the problem asks you to ignore that possibility. Therefore, Faust is stuck with her bargain. Recommended Reading: pages 362-379 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
11Sayers enters into a contract to sell Blackacre, an 80-acre parcel in a rural area, to Byers. The contract says that Sayers will provide marketable title, subject to all easements and encumbrances of record to Blackacre, legally described as W1/2 SE1/4 Section 16 in Guthrie County. Upon examining the title, Byers discovers that Blackacre is encumbered by a gas pipeline easement. In addition, it appears that Sayers does not have record title to about five acres of land (Parcel A) on the edge of the property described in the contract. Sayers shows Byers evidence, however, that he has been in continual, exclusive possession of Parcel A for over 20 years. Given that the adverse possession period in the state is only 7 years, Sayers says that he has established good title to Parcel A. Byers refuses to close, alleging a failure of marketable title. Which of the following is true?
A: Both the easement and the Parcel A issue violate the marketable title provisions of this contract.
B: The easement violates the contract's marketable title provision; the Parcel A issue does not.
C:
D: Neither the easement nor the Parcel A issue violates the contract's marketable title provision.
The easement does not violate the contract's marketable title provision; the Parcel A issue does. Marketable title requires the seller to establish that she is the record owner, in fee simple absolute, of the property described, without encumbrances. In this case, there are two possible violations of this standard: the easement and the failure to establish record title to Parcel A. Under common law, both of those issues would violate the marketable title standard. However, in this case, Byers chose to accept a contract with slightly different terms, a promise to provide marketable title subject to all easements and encumbrances of record. Because the pipeline easement is recorded, it does not violate the marketable title provisions of this contract. Thus, answers A and B are incorrect. The Parcel A issue, however, is not covered by this contract exception. Even though Sayers might, in fact, have title to Parcel A, she does not have marketable title because marketable title cannot be subject to a non-frivolous prospect of litigation over ownership. That makes answer D incorrect. Sayers needs to either quiet title to Parcel A before attempting to sell it or get a potential buyer to make it a specific exception to the marketable title provision. Recommended Reading: pages 366-370 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
12Archie agreed to sell Blackacre to Peyton for \$200,000. They entered into an enforceable contract of sale on January 1, 2106, with a closing date of March 1, 2016, subject to the usual contingencies of financing and marketable title. However, on February 15, Archie died. A's will bequeathed all of his personal property to his favorite son, Eli, and devised all of his real property to his other favorite son, Cooper Which of the following is true?
If the jurisdiction applies equitable conversion, Eli would have the stronger claim to the proceeds of the sale. This question requires you to consider the application of equitable conversion and, of course, to understand the difference between personal property and real property. If the court applied equitable conversion, it would treat the sale as complete when the contract was executed, so that B was the equitable owner of Blackacre on January 1. At that point, Archie would have only an equitable right to the proceeds of the sale, which is personal property. Therefore, if the jurisdiction applies equitable conversion, Eli, the legatee, would have the strongest claim. Answer A is, thus, incorrect because it misstates the result of the application of equitable conversion. Answer C is incorrect because without equitable conversion Archie would have died with title to Blackacre, making Cooper's claim stronger. Answer D is incorrect because the will clearly specifies which beneficiary is entitled to which type of property rather than suggest equal treatment. There is no basis for overriding this intent
13On January 1, 2016, Sarah Seller entered into an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement with Barb Broker, pursuant to which Barb agreed to help Sarah sell her house called Greenacre. The agreement was for a six-month term and provided for a 6% commission on the sales price. Barb held several open houses and showed the house to several potential buyers but so far no sale. On April 1, 2016, Sarah's next-door neighbor, Norm, told Sarah he would be interested in buying Greenacre. Norm and Sarah signed a purchase and sale contract which called for the closing to be on June 15. On the closing date, however, Sarah refused to close, telling Barb and Norm that she simply couldn't bear to part with Greenacre. Norm let Sarah off the hook, but Barb wants to claim her commission. Which of the following is true?
Barb should be able to claim her commission, because Sarah was at fault for the failure to close the deal. This answer requires you to consider the nature of brokerage agreements in the real estate context. In an exclusive right-to-sell listing agreement, which most such agreements are, the broker earns the commission when a ready, willing, and able buyer signs a binding real estate contract. Under that type of agreement, it does not matter who procured the buyer. So answer A is incorrect. Answer C is also incorrect because under an exclusive agency agreement, Barb would not be entitled to a commission. Such an agreement guarantees only that the seller will not use another broker, but can sell the property herself. If Sarah procures the buyer, under an exclusive agency agreement, no commission is due. The other issue here is whether the commission is earned despite the fact that the deal didn't close. Under the traditional common law rule, Barb would earn her commission when the contract was executed by the ready, willing, and able buyer, regardless of whether the deal actually closed. Under the modern Ellsworth Dobbs rule used in many jurisdictions, the commission is not earned until the deal actually goes through unless the seller is the cause of the failure to close. Answer B is incorrect because, under either the traditional rule or the Ellsworth Dobbs rule, Barb should be entitled to her commission because Sarah was the one who backed out. Recommended Reading: pages 347-348of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
14A-Rod gave First Bank a mortgage on Blackacre in exchange for a \$50,000 loan in a notice jurisdiction. First Bank recorded the mortgage. A year later, A-Rod sold the property for its full market value to Bonds by special warranty deed without exception. Bonds had no actual knowledge of the mortgage. Six years later, A-Rod defaulted on the loan, and First Bank began foreclosure proceedings against Blackacre. The statute of limitations to sue on title covenants is five years. Which of the following is true?
First Bank can foreclose on its mortgage against Bonds, but Bonds can recover on the warranty deed for breach of the covenant of quiet enjoyment. First Bank recorded its mortgage, putting subsequent purchasers on record notice of its interest. Although Bonds did not know the mortgage when he bought, record notice prevents her from claiming priority under the recording act as a good faith purchaser. Thus, A is wrong. Can Bonds recover his losses from A-Rod under the special warranty deed? Since A-Rod gave the mortgage, he is liable under the special warranty deed in which he warranted against defects in title that he created. But has the statute of limitations run? Bond's cause of action accrued on the present covenants when the deed was delivered. The covenant against encumbrances is a present covenant, so the statute expired on breach of that covenant. B is wrong. Bonds cause of action accrued on the future covenants only when someone with superior title actually asserted superior right to possession by, as here, foreclosing on Blackacre (the right to affect a forced sale). The covenant of quiet enjoyment is a future covenant so the cause of action based on breach of that covenant did not accrue until Bank began foreclosure proceedings. Therefore, answer D is wrong and C is right.
15Oscar owned Blackacre which was adjacent to Whiteacre, owned by the Church. Church used part of Blackacre, 0/1
called Lot, as a parking lot. Oscar decided to give Lot to Church, so he gave them a gift deed to that part of Blackacre. Church, however, did not record this deed. Oscar then conveyed Blackacre to Able by quitclaim
deed and told him about the previous deed to Church. Several months later, Able recorded his deed from Oscar and sold Blackacre to Baker for its full value, including Lot. Able told Baker there might be trouble with respect to the title to Lot, mentioning that Oscar thinks he gave it to Store somehow. Baker searched the title, however, and found nothing to worry about. Able then conveyed Blackacre to Baker by a general warranty deed without exceptions. Before Baker recorded, however, the Church recorded its gift deed. Baker now sues Able and the Church; he wants a judgment that Church does not own Lot, or he wants damages from Able. In a notice jurisdiction, which of the following is true?
The Church has good title to Lot because Baker had (at least) inquiry notice of the Church's claim and did not contact it. The first question is whether the Church has good title to Lot despite its failure to record before Baker bought. In a notice jurisdiction, Baker has to be a subsequent purchaser for value who took without notice. Baker purchased for value and had no record notice, so that part of the BFP test was met. However, he had inquiry notice with respect to the Church's interest (if not actual notice). Even though he searched the title and didn't find the deed, he should have inquired of the Church based on Able's comment, especially if, as appears, the Church remained in possession. Therefore, answer B is incorrect and C is correct. With respect to the deed warranties, Baker should be able to sue Able under the covenant of seisin or the covenant of quiet enjoyment. Unless Able specifically excepted Lot from the deed warranties, he is guaranteeing good title, regardless of what he told Baker. Therefore, answer A is incorrect. Answer D is also incorrect because in a notice jurisdiction (as opposed to race-notice) his priority will not depend upon on his recording first. Recommended Reading: pages 455-460 of Dukeminier, Property, Concise Edition 2E
16Oscar gifted Blackacre -- a vacant parcel held for development -- to Alice, who did not record the deed. Alice then sold Blackacre for full value to Bailey, who immediately recorded this deed. Bailey did not take possession of Blackacre. Several weeks later, Oscar got a loan from First Bank giving First Bank a mortgage on Blackacre. First Bank did not know about the earlier conveyances. Shortly thereafter, Oscar defaulted on the loan. First Bank now seeks to foreclose on Blackacre. Bailey objects on the basis that Oscar no longer owned Blackacre when he gave First Bank the mortgage. Which of the following is true?
The Bank is on record notice of Bailey's claim if the jurisdiction has a tract index, but not if it has a grantor-grantee index. The question is whether Bailey's recording gave the bank record notice of his claim. Her deed was recorded when First Bank took the mortgage, but was it recorded in a way the bank could find it? With a tract index, yes. Once would look up Blackacre and find the Alice to Bailey deed. In a grantor-grantee index, First Bank would look under Oscar's name in the grantee index and find that he owned the property. But when it looked in the grantor index to see if he conveyed it away, it would find nothing because the deed from Oscar to Alice was not recorded. The Alice-to-Bailey deed was recorded, but only under the names Alice and Bailey; there is no reason for First Bank to search their names. So answer B is correct.