APK Retention Set A

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1
Will lead to edema formation, EXCEPT:
  • Increase in venous pressure
  • Decrease in permeability of the capillaries
  • lymphatic obstruction
  • increase in arteriolar hydrostatic pressure
2
After removal of the patella from the knee:
  • The quadriceps useless force to extend the knee
  • The patellar tendon lies farther from the center of motiond. Full active extension of the knee in no longer possible
  • The quadriceps acts with a shorter level arm
3
The decerebrate posture generally indicates lesion of the:
  • Cerebellum
  • Midbrain
  • medulla
  • trapezoid
4
With the exception of the pisiform, which is the smallest of the carpal bone?
  • Triquetrium
  • Hamate
  • trapezium
  • trapezoid
5
Functions of the cruciate ligaments, EXCEPT:
  • Limit rotational movement of knee
  • Tense in all positions of the knee especially in extreme flexion and extension
  • Prevent anteroposterior displacement of the joint
  • None of these
6
A facet oriented in the sagittal plane allows what motion?
  • Gliding
  • Flexion-extension
  • lateral flexion
  • rotation
7
The following statements are TRUE about the lateral malleolus, EXCEPT:
  • It extends further distally than the medial malleolus
  • It is more posterior than the medial malleolus
  • Its configuration permits the ankle mortise to point 15 degree laterally
  • Its distal extension acts as a deterrent to inversion ankle sprains
8
Hyperventilation in the absence of increased CO2 production results in:
  • Hypoxemia
  • Alkalosis
  • acidosis
  • hypercapnea
9
Flexion at the metatarsophalangeal joints is possible up to:
  • 30-45 degrees
  • 180 degrees
  • 90 degrees
  • 10 degrees
10
The most abundant protein in the body:
  • Keratin
  • Elastin
  • collagen
  • hyaline
11
Point at the root of the nose where the frontonasal suture crosses the median plane:
  • Nasion
  • Nasal septum
  • lambda
  • bregma
12
Muscles responsible for rotation of the scapula as in full abduction of the arm:
  • Levator scapula and rhomboid minor
  • Deltoids and biceps
  • trapezius and serratus anterior
  • subclavius and pectoralis major
13
In contrast to axons, dendrites are typically:
  • Thinner
  • Receive more synaptic contacts
  • product one or more synaptic and feet
  • longer
14
If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in:
  • Buccinator
  • All of these
  • tensor tympani
  • posterior belly of digastric muscles
15
A strong maximum concentric contraction of the biceps is best elicited when elbow flexion is combined with:
  • Forearm pronation and finger flexion
  • Neutral forearm position and finger flexion
  • forearms supination and finger extension
  • forearm supination and finger flexion
16
Forms part of the medial wall of the axilla:
  • Coracobrachialis
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • pectoralis minor
  • serratus anterior
17
A brainstem level reflex:
  • Body righting acting on the body
  • Positive supporting reaction
  • crossed extension
  • neck righting
18
This cranial nerve has NO connection with the parasympathetic system:
  • CN VII
  • CN V
  • CN III
  • CN XI
19
NOT an important crutch walking muscle:
  • Anconeus
  • Latissimus dorsi
  • pectoralis major
  • middle trapezius
20
A muscle that complements the posterior cruciate major and helps prevent forward subluxation of the femur when doing knee bends is the:
  • Gastrocnemius
  • Popliteus
  • plantaris
  • vastus medialis
21
The following statements characterize, fibromyalgia syndrome, EXCEPT:
  • Frequently misdiagnosed and confused with myofascial pain syndrome, polymyositis, juvenile rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus.
  • A chronic pain disorder of unknown etiology
  • There are widespread musculoskeletal aches and pains, stiffness and general fatigue
  • A non-rheumatic disorder.
  • Median age of onset is from 29 to 37 years and medical presentation is 34 to 53 years.
22
The following statements describe the wrist: EXCEPT:
  • In abduction, the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift medially.
  • The scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrium shift laterally in adduction.
  • Due to reinforcement provided by fibers, the corpus is forced to move with the radius as a unit during pronation-supination.
  • Because the joint is ellipsoidal, movements can occur only in the three axes of the ellipse.
  • It can be flexed, extended, abducted or adducted.
23
The primary deficit that CVA patient must learn to compensate to be able to return to driving is:
  • Dysarthria
  • Homophobia
  • Expressive aphasia
  • hemianopsia
  • agraphia
24
A polypropylene fixed or solid ankle-foot orthosis (AFO) is commonly prescribed to correct an equines gait pattern in children with spastic cerebral palsy. The following statements described this AFO, EXCEPT:
  • Solid AFO covers the entire posterior calf and mediolateral borders and sole of the foot.
  • Rationale of use is based on the inhibitive or tone-reducing cast.
  • Reduces excessive ankle plantar flexion during stance.
  • There are straps across the anterior upper tibia and front of the ankle
  • It biomechanically controls the ankle by using a three-force system
25
Almost the whole of the broad sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch called:
  • Saphenous nerve
  • Sciatic nerve
  • Femoral nerve
  • genitofemoral nerve
  • obturator nerve
26
The angle formed by the tendons of the quadriceps and ligamentum patella with the center of the patella.
  • Genu Valgum
  • P Angle
  • Genu Recurvatum
  • Q Angle
  • Genu Varum
27
The following characterizes straight lateral knee instability, EXCEPT:
  • In isolated injury, the foot is fixed to the surfaces, with the knee in slight flexion
  • Structures involved include the lateral collateral ligament and the middle third of the lateral capsule
  • A lateral force contacts the medial aspect of the knee
  • Involved structures include the medial collateral ligament and middle third of the medial capsule
  • Many of these lesions do not occur as isolated injuries
28
The muscle length at which the maximum tension is attained.
  • Ascending limb
  • Plateau region
  • Optimal length
  • sacromere length-tension relationship
  • descending limb
29
The most appropriate position to test the strength of a patient’s middle trapezius is
  • Sitting unsupported
  • Prone
  • Supine
  • sitting supported
  • side lying
30
When applied, second class levers can be levers
  • Of stability and speed
  • That work at a mechanical advantage
  • That operate at a mechanical disadvantage but on of speed
  • That operate a mechanical disadvantage but one of stability
  • Of stability only
31
The following can improve documentation, EXCEPT:
  • Properly sign any entries entered on the chart with the caregiver’s PRC license number and expiration date.
  • Writing must be legible and entries must be timely.
  • Record significant information about the client’s conditions, progress or response to treatment
  • Use objective statements and provide continuity with status notes
  • Your own abbreviation may be used so long as you inform the facility
32
Skeletal muscles are called to perform different series of tasks and accomplish its task in the following manner, EXCEPT:
  • With a series of twitches
  • May produce a variety of time-varying forces between an impulsive force and titanic contraction.
  • May produce an impulsive force
  • May produce a steady titanic contraction.
33
Which of the following are TRUE of the palmar aponeurosis?
The Palmaris Longus inserts into this triangular fibrous sheet that occupies the palm of the hand.
It protects underlying structures and prevents the palm of the hand from being readily pinched.
III. The aponeurosis is present only when the Palmaris Longus is present.
IV. Allow the palm of the hand to be readily pinched.
V. The aponeurosis is present even when the Palmaris Longus is absent.
  • I, III and IV
  • II and V only
  • I, and II only
  • I, II and V
  • II, III and IV
34
The stability of the shoulder joint principally depends on:
  • Capsule
  • Bony configuration
  • Muscles
  • ligaments
35
The following are part of the extrapyramidal system, EXCEPT:
  • Cerebellospinal tract
  • Vestibulospinal tract
  • reticulospinal tract
  • Corticospinal tract
36
Down syndrome exhibit various types of motor impairment that are as follows: EXCEPT:
  • Utilize different strategies to control their movements.
  • Movements are clumsy, i. e. slow and low efficacy.
  • Shorter reaction times.
  • Displays atypical sequences of motor development.
  • Delays in motor performance at a very young age.
37
The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via
  • Left aoristic
  • It enters the heart
  • Left ventricle
  • Right ventricle
  • Right auricle
38
Sends impulses to inhibitory interneurons to relax antagonist muscles.
  • Spindles
  • Annulospiral endings
  • Motor impulses
  • Golgi tendon organs
  • Flower spray endings
39
Stores and releases calcium ions during the contractile process
  • Myofilament
  • Tubules
  • myosin
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • actin
40
A combination of the four primary movements in which each succeed one another.
  • Lateral rotation in the horizontal or transverse plane
  • Rotation in the sagittal plane
  • Adduction in the coronal or frontal plane
  • Circumduction
  • Medial rotation in the coronal plane
41
Development of the vertebrate nervous system involves progressive neural events which can include the following, EXCEPT:
  • Retraction of neural projections
  • Formation of complex neural pathways
  • Synaptogenesis
  • Myelinization
  • Axonal growth
42
The following statements apply in combined posterolateral and anteromedial rotator instability, EXCEPT:
  • Adduction and abduction stress test results are positive at 30 degrees of flexion
  • Result of the anterior drawer test is positive with the tibia in neutral position
  • Anterior drawer test causes the tibia to rotate externally and back
  • Occurs with tear of he medial and lateral compartment ligaments
  • Results of the anterior drawer test is negative with tibia in internal rotation
43
Craniosacral therapists passes these aspects of craniosacral motion, EXCEPT:
  • Symmetry, whether both sides of the skull demonstrate equal amplitude and rate
  • Rate, the number of cycles of flexion per minute
  • Quantity, whether the rate and corresponding amplitude is of a reasonable number
  • Quantity, whether the motion is smooth or uneven
  • Amplitude, the magnitude of excursion of flexion and extension
44
Digestion of lactose results in:
  • 2 molecules of fructose
  • 1 molecule glucose + 1 molecule galactose
  • 1 molecule of glucose + 1 molecule fructose
  • 2 molecules of glucose
  • 1 molecule galactose + 1 molecule fructose
45
A deep sulcus that outlines and sweeps backward above the temporal pole, and then continues, on the superolateral surface, almost horizontally backwards, marking the line along which the hemisphere became folded. The speech and hearing are both closely associated with it:
  • Collateral Sulcus
  • Central Sulcus
  • Calcarine Sulcus
  • Lateral Sulcus
46
This gait determinant reduces the vertical rise of the center of gravity as it passes over the same leg and compensated for by increased knee and ankle flexion so the swinging leg can pass under the lowered hemipelvis:
  • Pelvic list
  • Lateral displacement of the pelvis
  • Knee, ankle and foot rotation
  • Pelvic rotation
  • Knee flexion in stance
47
The largest bone in the proximal carpal row which represents the floor of the anatomic snuffbox:
  • Navicular
  • Lunate
  • Trapezium
  • Triquetrium
  • Capitate
48
This vitamin is best absorbed in the ileum:
  • E
  • K
  • B12
  • C
  • A
49
The following statements are true of the plantarflexors of the foot, EXCEPT:
  • The tibialis posterior lies just posterior to the medial malleolus and is palpable as it comes around the medial malleolus and inserts into the navicular tubercle
  • The flexor digitorum longus tendon and is tested manually by stabilizing the calcaneus and asking the subject to bend or curl his toes
  • The peroneous longus and brevis are the first two tendons posterior to the lateral malleolus
  • To detect existing weakness of the gastrocnemius and soleus by muscle testing, the patient is asked to walk on his toes. If he is unable to perform the task, there is probably at least a minimal weakness in the calf muscle
  • The flexor hallucis longus lies medial to Achilles tendon and to evaluate its function, simply observe the patient’s gait.
50
This/These statement/s describes the excitability property of the neuron:
  • It is most excitable when the membrane potential is reduced to its firing level
  • It is excitable at all times
  • It can be stimulated again at the spike of the action potential
  • None of these
  • All
51
The ligament/s which limit hip extension is/are:
  • None of these
  • Pubofemoral ligament
  • Ischiofemoral ligament
  • All of these
  • Iliofemoral ligament
52
Children with spastic cerebral palsy demonstrate pathological gait patterns as in the following, EXCEPT:
  • Fixed contracture of the triceps surae muscle group is evident
  • May be accompanied by anterior pelvic tilt during the stance phase
  • Often accompanied by excessive knee flexion or hyperextension
  • Decreased walking speed and stride length
  • Abnormal joint motions including dynamic equines or excessive ankle plantar flexion during the stance phase of gait
53
Injury to the right superior gluteal nerve will result in this gait deviation:
  • Increased pressure in heel strike
  • Decreased stride width
  • Lateral flexion of the trunk to the contralateral side
  • Increased swing phase of reference leg
  • Increased duration of weight bearing as the reference extremity
54
According to the original Borg scale for rating of Perceived on a rating of 15 is described as:
  • Hard
  • Very, Very hard
  • Very, Very light
  • Fairly light
  • light
55
Stabilize joints and produces force with no gross change in the joint angle:
  • Concentric
  • Isometric
  • Isotonic
  • Isokinetic
  • Eccentric
56
The following example illustrates a positive feedback mechanism:
  • A decrease in blood sugar levels activates receptors that bring blood pressure below normal
  • An increase in systemic blood pressure activates receptors in the carotid sinus which send signals to the brain, the final response being to bring blood pressures back to normal
  • An increase in blood sugar levels trigger the release of insulin which in turn acts to bring sugar levels down to normal
  • Platelets activated at the site of vascular injury release chemical messenger which attract more platelets to the same area
  • Stretching the muscle spindle results in signals to the motorneuron such that all muscles of origin contract
57
When an injured site is immobilized in a cast, the following statements are true in the care of a casted lower extremity, EXCEPT:
  • Flexing and extending the toes is an exercise to test nerve function
  • To check for circulation, briefly press on the large toenail until it turns white. Let go, and observe if the normal pink color returns quickly
  • Excess swelling may be prevented by keeping the casted leg elevated on pillows, above chest level
  • Occasionally, when the skin under the cast feels itchy, an object may be inserted to try to relieve the itching.
  • If the toes are cold, cover them. Notify the doctor if that doesn’t warm them
58
The following statements characterize the Atlanto-Axial joints, EXCEPT:
  • A pair of alar ligaments serves to limit the rotation of the head
  • The atlas and axis are united by three joints, two paired and one medially placed
  • The gliding movement occurs on the axis
  • The paired lateral atlanto-axial joints are plane joints and lie directly below the paired atlanto-occipital joints
  • When the “no” movement occurs, the atlas and axis move on the skull as a unit and the median atlanto-axial joint rotates in a collar formed by the anterior arch of the atlas and the transverse ligament
59
The following arteries contribute to a rich anastomosis at the base of the brain known as the Circle of Willis:
  • The two Vertebral Arteries
  • all of these
  • The two Internal Carotid Arteries
  • None of these
60
Decreases catecholamine stimulation of the heart; may also cause a general decrease in systemic sympathetic activity:
  • Calcium channel blockers
  • Diuretics
  • Beta-adrenergic blockers
  • Angiotensin-converting (ACE) enzyme inhibitors
  • Alpha-adrenergic blockers
61
An upper limb tension test is considered positive if the following are present, EXCEPT:
  • The patient’s responses are different from what is expected for asymptomatic subjects
  • It reproduces the patient’s symptoms
  • There is tissue resistance or a decrease in the ROM on one side of the body as compared with the other
  • The test responses can be altered by a sensitizing maneuver that provokes an increase in symptoms
  • The symptoms are aggravated by movements that are generally towards from the site of restriction or symptoms
62
Motor innervations mainly responsible for phonation:
  • Hypoglossal
  • Vagus
  • Phrenic
  • Trigeminal
  • Accessory
63
These muscles extend the arm and are the chief lateral rotators.
  • Supraspinatus and Subscapularis
  • Infraspinatus and Teres Major Dorsi
  • Subscapularis and Pectoralis Major
  • Infraspinatus and Teres Minor
  • Teres Major and Latissimus
64
Motions in the foot take place on certain joints. Which of the following statements is false?
  • Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints
  • Forefoot abduction and adduction take place primarily at the midtarsal joint
  • Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia within the ankle mortis
  • Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion take place between the talus and the tibia and fibula within the ankle mortis
  • Subtalar inversion and eversion take place primarily at the talocalcaneal, talonavicular, and calcaneocuboid joints
65
In closed-packed position:
  • Ligament attachments are farthest apart and under tension
  • All of these
  • The joint difficult to distract and mechanically compressed
  • Maximum surface contact occurs
66
The following characteristics describe Type IIB muscle fibers, EXCEPT:
  • Associated with mitochondria, myoglobin and sparse capillary density
  • Fatigue rapidly
  • High levels of glycolytic enzyme activity
  • Resistant to fatigue
  • Fast contraction times
67
Using proper body mechanics, which of the following statements is incorrect when moving an object?
  • Keeping upper body straight, use the leg and hip muscles to stand upright, holding the object close to the body
  • To move an object from table to floor, keep back straight, flex hips and knees and slowly lower the object to the floor
  • If the object is too heavy, ask a coworker for help
  • For an object placed on a high shelf, slide the object off the shelf and using a smooth coordinated movement, lower the object to a waist-level table
  • When lifting the box at waist level, to change direction to the left, move your left foot so the toes are pointing left
68
The following may cause biomechanical or physiological predisposition to microtrauma, EXCEPT:
  • Foot malalignment that places abnormal stresses on particular tissues
  • Insufficient flexibility
  • Improper technique
  • Proportional relationship between maximum output capacity and rapid expulsion of force
  • Limb length discrepancies
69
The radial nerve dominant test is designed to place tensile stress on neural tissues of the upper limb along the course of the radial nerve. The following motions are applies to the upper limb with the patient in supine, EXCEPT:
  • Medial rotation of the shoulder
  • Shoulder girdle depression with approximately 10 degrees of shoulder abduction
  • Elbow extension
  • Ulnar deviation
  • Supination of the forearm
70
The following describe clotting abnormalities, EXCEPT:
  • Presence of clots usually rules out movement in the affected limbs
  • Arterial occlusion and thromboemboli can become lodged in arteries supplying vital organs
  • Can be caused by mobility and an increase in blood cells
  • Patients are prone to emboli and bleeding
  • Can originated in the deep veins of the legs
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