Abdominal Organs and Pain Locations

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1
What organs are in the right lower quadrant?
cecum, appendix, ascending colon, terminal ileum, and right ovary
2
What are the physical properties of someone with cholecystitis?
localized parietal peritoneal signs: percussion tenderness, rebound, found as the disease progresses

Murphy sign: Inspiratory arrest with gently palpation of right upper quadrant owing to increased pain, found in most cases
3
What organs are in the right upper quadrant?
liver, gallbladder, duodenum, head of pancreas, right kidney and adrenal, hepatic flexure of colon, part of ascending and transverse colon
4
What organs are in the left upper quadrant?
stomach, spleen, left lobe of liver, body of pancreas, left kidney and adrenal, splenic flexure of colon, part of transverse and descending colon
5
What organs are in the left lower quadrant?
Part of descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Left ovary and tube
Left ureter
Left spermatic cord
6
What causes visceral pain?
occurs when hollow abdominal organs such as the intestine or biliary tree contract unusually forcefully or are distended or stretched- usually nonspecific and difficult to locate

gnawing, cramping, or aching pain

as the pain progresses, systemic symptoms such as sweating, pallor, nausea, vomiting, and restlessness may follow
7
What does visceral pain in the right upper quadrant signify?
liver distention against its capsule from the various causes of hepatitis, including alcoholic hepatitis or biliary pathology
8
What does visceral pain in the periumbilical region signify?
can be suggestive of early acute appendicitis from distention of an inflamed appendix. Gradually changing to parietal pain in the right lower quadrant from inflammation of the adjacent parietal peritoneum
9
What is somatic or parietal pain?
originates from inflammation of the parietal peritoneum called peritonitis, can be localized or diffuse. A steady aching pain that is usually more severe than visceral pain and more precisely localized under the involved structure

typically aggravated by movement or coughing. Patients generally want to lie still
10
How would patients with a renal stone present?
colicky pain- patient to move around frequently trying to find a comfortable position
11
What is referred pain?
pain felt in a part of the body other than its actual source

the initial pain becomes more intense and seems to radiate or travel from the initial site. Palpation at the site of referred pain does not result in tenderness.
12
Where would you expect to find pain of duodenal or pancreatic origin?
may be referred to the back, pain from the biliary tree, to the right scapular region, or the right posterior thorax
13
Where would you expect pain from pleurisy or inferior wall myocardial infarction be?
the epigastric area
14
What are the factors that could aggravate or relieve abdominal pain?
body position, association with meals, alcohol, medications, stress, and use of antacids
15
What symptoms would make you think of esophagitis, peptic strictures, barrett esophagus or esophageal cancer?
alarm symptoms: difficulty swallowing, pain with swallowing, recurrent vomiting, evidence of GI bleeding, early satiety, weight loss, anemia, risk factors for gastric cancer, palpable mass, painless jaundice

patients who have uncomplicated GET who fail empirical therapy, age > 55 years old
16
What is barrett esophagus?
a metaplastic change in the esophageal lining from normal squamous to columnar epithelium,
17
What would pain in the left lower quadrant with diarrhea be indicative of?
diverticulitis
18
What is the diagnosis criteria for IBS?
intermittent pain for 12 weeks of the preceding 12 months with relief from defecation, change in frequency of bowel movements, or change in form of stool.
19
What are the three different types of incontinence?
stress incontinence: increased abdominal pressure causing bladder pressure to exceed urethral resistance. There is poor urethral sphincter tone or poor support of bladder neck

urge incontinence: urgency is followed by involuntary leakage due to uncontrolled detrusor contractions that overcome urethral resistance

overflow incontinence: neurologic disorders or anatomic obstruction from pelvic organs or the prostate limit bladder emptying until the bladder becomes overdistended
20
When inspecting the abdomen, what are you inspecting for?
skin, temperature, color, scars, striae, dilated veins, rashes, umbilicus, contour of the abdomen, symmetry of abdomen, and pulsations
21
Which areas of the trunk should you assess for a bruit?
aorta, renal artery, iliac artery, femoral artery
22
how would you palpate for the liver?
place one hand under back-push deeply with fingertips of other hand in location of liver, as pt deeply inhales, the tip of the liver is sometimes felt

on inspiration, the liver is palpable about 3 cm below the right costal margin in the midclavicular line
23
What are the tell tale signs of appendicitis?
mcburney's point, rovsing sign, psoas sign, and the obturator sign
24
What is rovsing sign?
Pushing on LLQ, referred pain in RRQ- indicative of appendicitis
25
What is psoas sign?
passive extension of the hip leading to RLQ pain (appendicitis)

increased abdominal pain on either techinique is positive and may indicate appendicitis
26
What is the obturator sign?
passive internal rotation of the flexed hip leading to RLQ pain (appendicitis)
27
What is the murphy sign?
Abrupt cessation of inspiration on palpation of gallbladder

a sharp halting in inspiratory effort due to pain from palpation of the gallbladder on examination is a positive murphy sign- positive= acute cholecystitis
28
what s/s would you see in acute pancreatitis?
epigastric tenderness, rebound tenderness, and localized guarding. Abdominal wall is soft
29
what s/s would you see in diverticulitis?
confined inflammatory process usually in the left lower quadrant involving the sigmoid colon. May have suprapubic or right sided pain. Look for localized peritoneal signs and a tender underlying mass.
30
Where would you insert a chest tube?
intercostal space between 4th and 5th ribs
31
Which intercostal space is entered for a thoracic decompression for a tension pneumothorax?
2nd intercostal
32
Where would you find the placement of an endotracheal tube?
level of the 4th rib
33
Where is the landmark for thoracentesis with needle insertion?
intercostal space between the 7th and 8th ribs as a landmark for thoracentesis with needle insertion immediately superior to the 8th rib
34
How many lobes does the right lung have?
3 lobes
35
How many lobes does the left lung have?
2 lobes
36
Why would an endotracheal tube be more likely to be in the right bronchus?
right bronchus is more vertical
37
What is an essential part of a respiratory exam?
a thorough past medical history, complete medication list, and allergy documentation

and investigate social history of tobaccoecreational drug use, occupational and environmental exposures, and travel history
38
How can you determine the severity of lung effort?
based on the patient's daily activities- how many steps or flights of stairs can the patient climb before pausing for a breathing, how has it affect their life?
39
If a patient presents with cough, chest pain, dyspnea, and orthopnea- what could they have?
acute coronary syndrome
40
If a patient has large volumes of sputum present alongside their cough, what could they have?
bronchiectasis and lung abscess
41
when would you expect foul-smelling sputum?
anaerobic lung abscess
42
what type of sputum would you expect for cystic fibrosis?
thick tenacious sputum- mucoid sputum that is translucent, white, or gray
43
How do you test for chest expansion?
palce your thumbs at about the level of the 10th ribs, with your fingers loosely grasping and parallel to the lateral rib cage. As you position your hands, slide them medially enough to raise a loose fold of skin between your thumbs over the spine. ask the patient to inhale deeply- watch the distance between your thumbs as they move apart during inspiration and feel for the range and symmetry of the rib cage as it expands and contracts
44
in what illnesses would tactile fremitus be decreased?
an obstructed bronchus, COPD, pleural effusion, fibrosis, air/pneumothorax, or an infiltrating tumor
45
How do you detect fremitus?
use either ball/the bony part of the palm at the base of the fingers or the ulnar surface of your hand to optimize the vibratory sensitivity of the bones in your hand.

Ask the patient to repeat the words "ninety-nine" or "one-one-one".
46
When percussing the thoracic cavity- what would dullness represent??
when fluid or solid tissue replaces air containing lung or occupies the pleural space beneath your percussing fingers
47
What is silent chest?
occurs when a complete obstruction is present and there is *no air exchange* in the chest
48
When would you hear a pleural friction rub?
in pleurisy, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism
49
How do you assess for egophony?
As the pt to say "eee" for about 3-5 seconds. Auscultate the lungs and listen for a change in the character of the sound from that of "E" to "A"
50
How do you assess for bronchophony?
while auscultating, have pt speak in normal voice and say 99 or 123. should be muffled. if sound is louder than expected, bronchophony is present, indicates consolidation
51
How do you assess for pectoriloquy?
ask the patient to whisper ninety-nine or one-two-three. the whispered voice is normally heard faintly and indistinctly
52
Crackles of heart failure are usually best heard in the ____ lung fields
posterior-interior lung fields
53
Where is the PMI located?
found in the 5th interspace lateral to the midsternal line
at or just medial to left midclavicular line
54
What does S3 indicate?
abrupt deceleration of inflow across the mitral valve
55
What does S4 indicate?
increased left ventricular end diastolic stiffness which decreases compliance
56
During systole, what valves close and open?
aortic +pulmonic valve is open allowing ejection of blood from the left ventricle into the aorta.

mitral + tricuspid valve is closed preventing blood from regurgitating back into the left atrium
57
During diastole, what valves open and close?
aortic +pulmonic valve is close, preventing regurgitation of blood from the aorta back into the left ventricle.

The mitral +tricuspid valve is open allowing blood to flow from the left atrium into the relaxed left ventricle
58
What is the S2 sound comprised of?
A2 and P2 are primarily closures of the aortic and pulmonic valves which fuse into one S2 sound
59
What is the S1 sound comprised of?
an earlier mitral and a later tricuspid sound; mitral sound is heard throughout the precordium and loudest at the cardiac apex. The triscupid sound is best heard at the lower left sternal border
60
Where can you hear the murmur of the aortic valve?
right second intercostal space or cardiac apex
61
Where can you hear the murmur of the pulmonic valve?
left second and third intercostal spaces close to the sternum, but also at higher or lower levels
62
Where can you hear the murmur of the tricuspid valve?
at or near the lower left sternal border
63
Where can you hear the murmur of the mitral valve?
at and around the cardiac apex
64
What is cardiac output?
Volume of blood ejected by the heart in one minute:
cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume
65
What is stroke volume?
the amount of blood ejected by the heart in any one contraction
66
What is preload?
refers to the load that stretches the cardiac muscle before contraction. The volume of blood in the right ventricle at the end of diastole constitutes its preload for the next beat
67
What are causes of decreased right ventricular preload?
exhalation, dehydration, and pooling of blood in the capillary bed of the venous system
68
What are the factors that affect blood pressure?
-left ventricular stroke volume
-distensibility of the aorta and the large arteries
-peripheral vascular resistance, particularly at the arteriolar level
-volume of blood in the arterial system
69
What questions should you ask the patient if they present with chest pain?
-is the pain related to exertion?
-what kinds of activities bring on the pain?
-how intense is the pain of a scale of 1-10?
-does it radiate into the neck, should, back, or down your arm?
-are they are associated symptoms like shortness of breath, sweating, palpitations, or nausea?
-does it ever wake you up at night
-what do you do to make it better?
70
What are the s/s of acute aortic dissection?
anterior chest pain often tearing or ripping and radiating into the back or neck
71
What atypical symptoms do women experience with acute coronary syndrome?
upper back, neck, or jaw pain; shortness of breath, paroxysmal nocturnal dysnpea, nausea/vomiting, fatigue
72
What is your first intervention upon dealing with palpitations?
obtain an ECG; includes atrial fibrillation which causes an irregularly irregular pulse
73
What questions would you ask someone who presents with shortness of breath?
does this occur at rest, during exercise, or after exertion?
does it get worse when you lie down?
do you experience any nighttime episodes of sudden dyspnea that awakens you usually 1 or 2 hours after falling asleep, prompting you to sit up and stand up?
74
What are the key components of the cardiovascular examination?
general appearance and measure bp and hr
estimate the level of jugular venous pressure
auscultate the carotids (bruit) one at a time
palpate the carotid pulse including carotid upstroke and presence of a thrill
inspect the anterior chest wall
palpate the precordium for any heaves, thrills, or palpable heart sounds
palpate and locate the PMI or apical impulse
Palpate for a systolic impulse of the right ventricle, pulmonary artery, and aortic outflow tract areas on the chest wall
Auscultate S1 and S2 in six positions from the base of the apex
Identify physiology and paradoxical splitting of S2
distinguish systolic and diastolic murmurs
75
how do you measure jugular venous pressure?
Have your patient sit with their head at a 45 degree angle and measure the jugular vein pulsations from the angle of the sternum
76
What should you always do before palpating the carotid pulse?
auscultating the carotid arteries
77
When palpating the carotid pulse, what are you looking for?
presence of absence of a thrill
78
What is pulsus alternans?
alternating weak and strong ventricular contractions; indicates severe left ventricular dysfunction
79
What is pulsus paradoxus?
When the BP > 10 mmHg on expiration than on inspiration
80
What do you palpate during a cardiovascular focused exam?
heave, thrill, palpable S1 and S2, palpable S3 or S4, apical impulse and PMI, systolic impulse of the RV, pulmonary artery area, aortic outflow area
81
How can you determine a systolic versus diastolic murmur?
systolic: falls between S1 and S2
diastolic: falls between S2 and S1

palpating the carotid pulse as you listen can help with timing- murmurs that coincide with the carotid upstroke are systolic
82
What are midsystolic murmurs?
- Innocent
- Physiologic
- Pulmonic stenosis
- Aortic stenosis

begins after S1 and stops before S2. Brief gaps are audible between the murmur and the heart sounds. listen carefully for the gap just before S2, which is more readily detected and if present usually confirms the murmur as midsystolic not pansystolic
83
What are pansystolic murmurs?
mitral regurg
tricuspid regurg
ventricular septal defect

Starts with S1 and stops at S2, without a gap between murmur and heart sounds
84
What are late systolic murmurs?
mitral valve prolapse

usually starts in mid-or late systole and persists up to S2
85
What are early diastolic murmurs?
Aortic regurgitation
Pulmonic regurgitation
starts immediately after S2 without a discernible gap, then fades into silence before the next S1
86
What are middiastolic murmurs?
reflects turbulant flow across the AV valves

starts a short time after S2. It may fade away or merge into a late diastolic murmur
87
What is a late diastolic murmur?
Starts late in diastole and continues up until S1
88
What are continuous murmurs?
PDA or AVMs

begins in systole and extends into all or a part of diastole
89
What are crescendo murmurs?
grows louder
90
What are decrescendo murmurs?
grows softer
91
What are crescendo-decrescendo murmurs?
first rises in intensity then falls
92
what are plateau murmurs?
has the same intensity throughout
93
What is a grade 1 murmur?
Very faint, heard only after listener has "tuned in"; may not be heard in all positions

softer in volume than S1 and S2, very faint
94
What is a grade 2 murmur?
Quiet, but heard immediately after placing the stethoscope on the chest
95
What is a grade 3 murmur?
moderately loud
96
What is grade 4 murmur?
loud with palpable thrill
97
What is a grade 5 murmur?
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard when the stethoscope is partly off the chest
98
What is a grade 6 murmur?
Very loud, with thrill. May be heard with stethoscope entirely off the chest
99
how do you palpate heaves?
use your palm and hold your fingerpads flat against the chest. Heaves are sustained impulses that rhythmically lift your fingers, usually produced by an enlarged right or left ventricle and occasionally by ventricular aneurysms
100
How do you palpate for thrills?
press the ball of your hand firmly on the chest to check for a buzzing sensation
101
How do you palpate for the right ventricle
palpating for the systolic impulse of the RV

patient must be supine with head elevated to 30 degrees. Ask patient to exhale and briefly stop breathing, then place the tips of your curved fingers in the left third, fourth, and fifth intercostal spaces
102
What are red flags in terms of assessing for perfusion?
pain and/or swelling of legs or arms
cramping in legs on exertion with relief with rest (intermittent claudication)
cold, numbness, pallor or discoloration int he legs; hair loss
abdominal, flank, or back pain
103
What are symptoms of atherosclerotic PAD?
symptomatic limb ischemia
leg pain on exertion and rest and exertional leg pain/carry on
104
What are symptoms of neurogenic claudication?
pain with walking or prolonged standing, radiating from the spinal area into the buttocks, thighs, lower legs, or feet
105
Which valve dysfunction is associated with JVD?
tricuspid stenosis
106
What are common causes of pain/vision loss changes?
usually in cornea, anterior chamber- corneal ulcer, uveitis, traumatic hyphema, acute angle closure glaucoma
107
What would cause pain in the eyes?
trauma, bacterial conjunctivitis, scleritis
optic neuritis of multiple sclerosis may be painful and needing immediate referral
108
What is hyphema and its S/S?
Accumulation of blood, mainly RBC's that disperse and layer within the anterior chamber. A severe hymphema obscures entire anterior chamber + will diminish visual acuity severely or completely. Injuries are graded on amount of blood in chamber (Grades I-IV).
S/S:
- Blood in anterior chamber
- Deep, aching pain
- Mild to severe diminished visual acuity
- Increased intraocular pressure
109
What is myopia vs hyperopia?
myopia: nearsightedness
hyperopia: farsightedness
110
How do you assess a patient's conjunctiva and sclera?
exam sclera, palpebral conjunctiva color, vascular pattern, nodules, swelling: yellow sclera= jaundice, local redness= nodular episcleritis
111
How do you assess a patient's cornea and lens?
oblique lighting= assess each cornea for opacities
112
What is the difference between conductive versus a sensorineural hearing loss?
Conductive hearing loss occurs when sound conduction is impeded through the external ear, the middle ear, or both. Sensorineural hearing loss occurs when there is a problem within the cochlea or the neural pathway to the auditory cortex.
113
What are the normal causes of painful/vision loss?
usually in cornea, anterior chamber = corneal ulcer, uveitis, traumatic hyphema, acute angle closure glaucoma.
114
What optic condition warrants immediate referral?
Optic neuritis of multiple sclerosis may be painful = immediate referral
115
What are you assessing for in the conjunctiva and sclera?
exam sclera & palpebral conjunctiva color, vascular pattern, nodules, swelling: yellow sclera = jaundice, local redness = nodular episcleritis
116
What are you assessing for in the cornea and lens?
oblique lighting, note opacities

= w oblique lighting = assess each cornea for opacities
117
What are you assessing for in the iris?
markings clearly defined? Shine light directly from temporal side

inspect each iris, markings clearly defined. Shine light directly from temporal side = crescentric shadow medial side
Iris bows abnormally far forward = very narrow angle w cornea, light casts a crescentric shadow medial side (see pp. 235 Bates). This angle increases acute narrow-angle glaucoma (sudden increase in IOP d/t aqueous humor blockage).
118
What are you assessing for on the concentric shadow on medial side?
, normal = fairly flat w relatively open angle w cornea therefore no shadow. Narrow angle = increases narrow -angle glaucoma risk (increase in IOP w aqueous humor blocked).
119
What does open angle glaucoma look like?
normal spatial relation between iris & cornea = fully lit iris
120
What is anisocoria?
difference in pupillary diameter 0.4mm> = no
pathologic etiology, ~35% healthy people rarely >1.0mm;
benign if = in dim & bright light w brisk constriction to light.
Assess direct reaction & consensual reaction; if impaired test near reaction in dimright light 1 eye 1 at a time = hold finger 10 cm from pt.'s eye, pt looks alternately at finger & into distance directly behind it.
121
What eye problems do people with hyperthyroidism face?
Proptosis = abnormal protrusion of eyeballs (rim of sclera visible) = hyperthyroidism & characteristic stare on frontal gaze. Unilateral = orbital tumor, retrobulbar hemorrhage from trauma

Convergence = normal, eyes follow object within 5-8cm of nose; poor in hyperthyroidism
122
What are contraindications to mydriatic eye drops?
mydriatic eye drops = head injury & coma & any suspicion of narrow-angle glaucoma
123
What does absence of the red reflex suggest?
= suggests lens opacity e.g. cataract, vitreous, artificial eye, possibly detached retina, retinoblastoma in children
124
What could you find while assessing for the optic disc?
inspect fovea & surrounding macula. Pt looks directly in light
macular degeneration = central vision loss in older
adults; dry atrophic = more common, less severe, wet
exudative, neovascular.

Drusen = cellular debris. Hard, sharply defined or soft & confluent w altered pigmentation.

Vitreous floaters = dark specks or strands
Between fundus & lens.

Cataracts = densities on lens
125
What is the etiology of conjunctivitis?
ETIOLOGY
¡Bacterial:
§Staphylococcus aureus
§Streptococcus pneumoniae
§Haemophilus influenzae
§Gonococcal:
▪Ophthalmic emergency
§Chlamydia:
▪Transmission occurs via autoinoculation from genital secretions. Often occurs in newborns
126
What viral etiologies of conjunctivitis are there?
¡Viral:
§Adenovirus most common
§Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis (EKC) is caused by adenovirus subtypes.
§Frequently associated with upper respiratory infections or exposure to someone with a red eye
§Most commonly referred to as "pink eye"
§Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
§Recurrent ocular infection occurs in 25% patients within 2 yr.
§Use of steroids is contraindicated:
▪Allergic
§Frequent history of allergy, atopy, nasal symptoms
§Contact related
§May be due to chemical irritation, hypersensitivity from preservatives, medications, shampoo, chlorine, dust, smoke
§Pseudomonas commonly implicated organism:
May be found in patients using saliva to clean contact lenses
127
What are the signs and symptoms of conjunctivitis?
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
¡General:
§Red eye (conjunctival irritation)
§Gritty, foreign body sensation
§Sensation of eyes burning
§Discharge
§Eyelid sticking (worse upon awakening)
§Conjunctival edema (chemosis) and eyelid edema Itchy eyes
§Increased tearing
¡ Bacterial:
§Mucopurulent or purulent discharge
¡Gonococcal:
§Hyperacute, copious purulent discharge:
§Discharge starts 12 hr after inoculation.
§Severe chemosis
§Eyelid swelling
§Preauricular lymphadenopathy typically absent
§ Invades intact conjunctiva and cornea within 24 hr and causes ulcerations, scarring, and perforations leading to blindness
128
What are the s/s of viral/contact related/ allergic conjunctivitis?
¡Chlamydia:
¡Lacrimation
¡Mucopurulent discharge
¡With or without photophobia
¡Concomitant genital infection (>50%)
¡Transmission occurs via autoinoculation from genital secretions
¡Viral—general:
¡Preauricular adenopathy
¡Viral syndrome:
¡Watery, mucous discharge, lacrimation
¡Gritty feeling or foreign body sensation in eye
¡Spreads to other eye in 24-48 hr
¡Pinpoint subconjunctival hemorrhages:
¡EKC:
§Conjunctival hyperemia
§Chemosis Corneal infiltrates
§Decreased vision
¡Contact related:
§ Acute symptoms result of corneal ulceration
§Normal visual acuity and intraocular pressures

¡
¡
¡
¡
¡HSV:
§Acute follicular conjunctival reaction
§Skin lesions or vesicles along eyelid margin or periocular skin
§ Corneal involvement—dendritic lesion
¡ Herpes zoster virus (HZV):
§Associated with pain or paresthesia of the skin
§ Rash or vesicles involving the distribution of cranial nerve V1
§Dendritic characters on cornea
§Rarely vesicles or ulcers form on the conjunctiva.
¡Allergic: Hallmark:
§ Itching Red conjunctiva
§Watery discharge
§ Papillary hypertrophy
§Frequent history of allergy, atopy, nasal symptoms
129
What type of history would you ask for conjunctivitis?
¡Onset of inflammation
¡Environmental or work-related exposure Ill contacts
¡Sexual activity, discharge, rash
¡Use of over-the-counter medicines or cosmetics
¡Systemic diseases
¡Careful physical exam including slit-lamp exam including fluorescein staining
130
What are the diagnostic tests for conjunctivitis?
¡Bacteriologic studies:
§Not indicated in routine cases
§Indications:
▪Ophthalmia neonatorum (except chemical)
▪Suspected gonococcal ophthalmia
▪Compromised host
▪Signs and symptoms of systemic disease
▪Refractory to treatment within 48-72 hr (with good compliance)
§Positive Gram stain for gram-negative intracellular diplococci:
▪Sufficient to initiate systemic and topical treatment for gonococcal disease
§Rapid plasma reagent (RPR):
For suspected cases of sexually transmitted disease
131
What are the infection precautions of conjunctivitis?
¡Be sure to disinfect slit lamp and chair used for patients to avoid contamination.
¡Conjunctivitis is extremely contagious.
¡Viral conjunctivitis contagious for up to 2 wk.
¡EKC is especially contagious.
§Extreme caution should be taken when using corticosteroids, as they may worsen an underlying HSV infection.
132
What are the s/s of corneal abrasion?
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
¡Severe ocular pain
¡Gritty (scratchy) discomfort
¡Tearing
¡Blepharospasm
¡Foreign body sensation
¡Photophobia (particularly if secondary traumatic iritis present)
¡Conjunctival injection
¡Diminished or blurred vision
¡Headache
133
What is the physical exam of a corneal abrasion?
¡If indicated, evaluate for other life-threatening injuries with attention to the primary survey.
¡Complete eye exam:
§Focus is to evaluate for evidence of penetrating injury and/or infection
§Gross visual inspection Visual acuity
§Penlight exam to evaluate for conjunctival injection, the pupil shapeeactivity, and for any evidence of corneal infiltrate or opacity
§Evert upper lids to check for retained foreign body
§Slit-lamp exam to evaluate for anterior chamber reaction, infiltrate, corneal laceration, and penetrating trauma
§Fluorescein dye to identify size and location of corneal epithelium defect
134
What are important tips for corneal abrasion?
¡Always diligently evaluate for penetrating trauma to the globe.
¡
¡Always diligently evaluate for evidence of infection.
¡
¡Do not discharge the patient with any topical anesthetic.
¡
¡It is felt to be toxic to the epithelium and retards healing, although a recent small study indicated it might be safe to discharge with dilute proparacaine.
¡
¡Do not use a mydriatic agent on a patient with a history of glaucoma.
¡
¡Do not recommend return to contact use until followed up and cleared by ophthalmology.
135
What is nonproliferative retinopathy?
¡Nonproliferative retinopathy (NPDR) consists of a variable display of nerve-fiber layer infarcts (cotton-wool spots), intraretinal hemorrhages, and hard exudates, and microvascular abnormalities (including microaneurysms, occluded vessels, and dilated or tortuous vessels) primarily in the macula and posterior retina
¡Visual loss in nonproliferative retinopathy is primarily through the development of macular edema (ME)
¡NPDR can be further classified into mild, moderate, severe and very severe categories
§This stratification primarily impacts the risk of progression to proliferative retinopathy, which influences follow up intervals and treatment strategies. Whereas the one-year risks of progression to proliferative retinopathy for mild and moderate nonproliferative retinopathy are 5 and 15 percent, respectively, the severe and very severe categories have respective one year risks of 52 and 75 percent
136
What is proliferative retinopathy?
¡ Proliferative diabetic retinopathy (PDR) is marked by the presence of neovascularization arising from the disc and/or retinal vessels, consequences of this neovascularization, including preretinal and vitreous hemorrhage, subsequent fibrosis, and traction retinal detachment. PDR may develop in the setting of prior or coexisting severe nonproliferative changes, or may arise without substantial nonproliferative retinopathy.
¡Visual loss in PDR may occur acutely if bleeding from the abnormal vessels into the vitreous blocks the light path to the retina; however, the blood is often reabsorbed and vision clears spontaneously. More permanent loss of vision may occur through retinal detachment, ischemia of the macula, or combinations of these factors.
137
What are the subjective findings of diabetic retinopathy
Subjective findings
¡Symptoms that may be present
§Flashing lights in peripheral visual fields
§Blurred vision
§"Cobwebs"
§Black spots
§Sudden loss of vision
138
What are the s/s of retinal detachment? history?
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
¡Flashes of light
¡Floaters
¡Curtain-like vision loss
¡Peripheral/central vision loss or other visual field defects
¡Asymptomatic

History
¡Symptoms onset, course, description:
§May progress over hours or weeks
§Dark curtain or veil
§Usually begins peripherally
¡Associated symptoms: Flashing lights, floaters, painless
¡Ophthalmologic history: Baseline eyesight, myopia, surgery, eye disease, trauma
Systemic disease
139
What does the physical exam for a retinal detachment look like?
Physical-Exam
¡Visual acuity, visual fields by confrontation—prior to dilation:
§May have normal visual acuity if macula spared Detachment is on opposite side of field defect
¡
¡May have afferent pupillary defect
¡
¡May have loss of red reflex
¡
¡Fundoscopy:
§Pale, opaque, wrinkled retina
§Cannot rule out detachment on fundoscopy alone
¡
¡Slit-lamp exam:
§Anterior vitreous pigment granules ("tobacco dust") suggest retinal tear.
140
How do you diagnose retinal detachment?
Diagnostic Procedures/Surgery
¡Intraocular pressure (IOP) measurement: IOP usually lower in the affected eye
¡Dilating pupil with short-acting mydriatic carries very low risk of acute angle-closure glaucoma.
141
What are the varying s/s of glaucoma?
§Open angle: Painless and gradual loss of vision
§Closed angle: Painful loss of vision with fixed midsized pupil

¡Primary open-angle glaucoma:
§Gradual reduction in peripheral vision or night blindness
§Typically bilateral
§Painless
¡Primary angle-closure glaucoma:
§Severe deep eye pain and ipsilateral headache often associated with nausea and vomiting
§Decrease in visual acuity often described as visual clouding with halos surrounding light sources
§Associated abdominal pain, which may misdirect diagnosis
Concurrent exposure to dimly lit environment such as movie theater
142
What does the physical exam look like for primary open and closed angle glaucoma?
¡Primary open-angle glaucoma:
§Decreased visual acuity
¡Primary angle-closure glaucoma:
§Decreased visual acuity
§Pupil is mid-dilated and nonreactive.
§Corneal edema with hazy appearance
§Conjunctival injection, ciliary flush
§Firm globe to palpation
143
What is the difference between peripheral and central vertigo?
¡Peripheral vertigo:
§Often, severe symptoms Intermittent episodes lasting seconds to minutes, occasionally hours
§Horizontal or horizontal-torsional nystagmus (also positional, fatigues, and suppressed by fixation)
§Normal neurologic exam
§Sometimes associated hearing loss or tinnitus
¡Central vertigo:
§Usually mild continuous symptoms
§All varieties of nystagmus (horizontal, vertical, rotatory)
§No positional association
§Presence of neurologic findings most of the time
144
What are the etiologies of peripheral vertigo?
Peripheral
¡Acute peripheral vestibulopathy (APV):
§Vestibular neuritis (most common):
▪Single acute attack continuous rotational vertigo
▪Constant for several days
▪Present even when still
▪No hearing deficits
▪Highest incidence in 3rd-5th decade
§Acute labyrinthitis:
▪Similar to vestibular neuritis but:
▪Associated with hearing deficit
▪May be viral (common), serous, acute suppurative, toxic, or chronic
¡
¡Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV):
§Most common cause recurrent vertigo
§Posterior canal, 85-95% of BPPV cases
§Lateral semicircular less common
§Probable cause is loose particles (otoliths) in semicircular canals
§Can be secondary to other entities including trauma and APV
Ototoxic drugs:
§Aminoglycosides
§Antimalarials
§Erythromycin
§Furosemide
¡Ménière disease:
§Episodic vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus
¡Acoustic neuroma:
§Tumor of Schwann cells enveloping the 8th cranial nerve (CN VIII) Develops into central cause Progressive unilateral hearing deficits and tinnitus May also involve CN V, VII, or X
¡Trauma:
§Rupture of tympanic membrane, round window, labyrinthine concussion, or development of perilymphatic fistula can all have severe symptoms.
¡Otitis media and serous otitis with effusion
Foreign body in ear canal
145
What are the etiologies of central vertigo?
¡Vertebrobasilar artery insufficiency:
§Disturbances may be transient or exacerbated by movement of the neck.
¡Cerebellar infarction
¡Cerebellar hemorrhage:
§Neurosurgical emergency
§Sudden onset of headache, vertigo, vomiting, and ataxia
§Visual paralysis to affected side
§Ipsilateral CN VI paralysis
¡Brainstem hypertensive encephalopathy
¡Trauma:
§Vertiginous symptoms common after whiplash injury
§Postconcussive syndrome or damage to labyrinth or CN VIII secondary to basilar skull fracture
§Vertebral artery injury has been seen after chiropractic manipulation.
¡Hypoglycemia
146
What is the difference between hypertension, hypertension urgency, hypertensive emergency, and hypertensive encephalopathy?
¡Hypertension is a medical condition in which blood pressure is higher than 140/90 mmHg in two separate occasions.
¡Hypertensive urgency- blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg or higher without any end organ damage.
¡Hypertensive emergency - blood pressure of 220/120 mmHg or higher with end organ damage.
¡Hypertensive encephalopathy - blood pressure of 240/140 mmHg or higher with neurologic symptoms.
147
List the specific signs between left and right sided heart failure
Specific signs of left-sided heart failure include:
§Cardiomegaly
§S3 gallop
§S4
§Crackles (rales) in the lungs
§Dullness to percussion of the lungs
¡
Specific signs of right-sided heart failure include:
§Jugular venous distension (JVD)
§Liver congestion and hepatomegaly
§Ascites
§Peripheral edema
§Right ventricular heaves
§Nocturia
148
How do you diagnose venous thrombosis?
venous doppler ultrasound

most accurate test is venography

D-DIMER
149
What are the s/s of peripheral vascular disease?
¡ROS Intermittent claudication, muscular cramping with exercise; quickly relieved by rest. Pain in buttocks and thighs suggests aortoiliac disease; calf muscle pain implies femoral or popliteal artery disease. More advanced arteriosclerotic obstruction results in pain at rest; painful ulcers of the feet (sometimes painless in diabetics) may result.
¡
¡Physical Examination Decreased peripheral pulses (ankle:brachial index <1.0; <0.5 with severe ischemia), blanching of affected limb with elevation, dependent rubor. Ischemic ulcers or gangrene of toes may be present.
¡
150
What causes PACs?
§Occur when an ectopic focus in the atria fires before the next sinus node impulse. P waves usually look different (i.e., either smaller or peaked).
§Rate usually "resets" itself, resulting in one premature beat followed by a normal series of beats in sinus rhythm.
151
What are the characteristics of atrial fibrillation?
§No discernible P waves; fibrillatory waves are noted instead.
§PR interval is not measurable (wavy baseline).
§QRS complex is regularly irregular.
§Atrial rate is commonly 300 to 400 bpm or greater.
§Ventricular rate is usually 100 to 160 bpm or greater. B.
§Etiology.
▪Congestive heart failure
▪Hypoxemia
▪Valvular disease
▪Hyperthyroidism
¡Clinical manifestations.
§Patient may be asymptomatic.
§Patient may report palpitations
§Decreased cardiac output leads to hypotension and loss of consciousness.
152
What are the characteristics of atrial flutter?
§Sawtooth appearance of flutter waves (F waves), especially if the rhythm strip is turned upside down
§PR interval is not measurable.
§Atrial rate ranges from 240 to 360 bpm.
§QRS complex is usually normal.
§Etiology.
▪Congestive heart failure
▪Hypoxemia
▪Valvular disease
▪Hyperthyroidism
§Clinical manifestations.
▪Decreased cardiac output
▪Hypotension
▪Loss of consciousness
▪Treatment: same as for atrial fibrillation
153
What are the characteristics of junctional rhythms?
§Because the beat originates in the atrioventricular (AV) node, usually, no P waves precede QRS complexes.
§Occasionally, P waves are retrograde conducted, resulting in a downward deflection before or after the QRS complex.
§Rate is usually 40 to 60 bpm (i.e., the intrinsic AV node rate).
§Accelerated junctional rhythms have the same criteria, but rates range from 60 to 100 bpm.
¡Rarely seen in adult patients
¡Etiology (common causes).
§Digitalis toxicity
§Theophylline
Dopamine
154
What are the characteristics of PVCs?
¡Irritability of the myocardium due to the following:
¡Electrolyte imbalance
¡Hypoxia
¡Acidosis
¡Myocardial infarction
§Other.
¡A stimulus from the ventricle replaces the sinoatrial (SA) node as the pacemaker for one or more beats, and contraction occurs without the usual transmission from the atrium.
¡Clinical manifestations.
§Patients may or may not be aware of PVCs.
§Symptoms are usually related to the number and frequency of abnormal beats.
§Patients may complain of "fluttering" or "palpitations" of the heart.
§On the monitor, PVCs exhibit a wide, bizarre configuration that is very different from that of the normal beat.
¡ Implications.
§PVCs that occur infrequently or have the same focus (i.e., have the same shape), are unifocal
¡An increase in the frequency of these beats is more significant, especially if the PVCs occur more often than 6 times per minute, or if the patient has had a very recent myocardial infarction. PVCs that are the result of more than one focus (i.e., multifocal) are more serious and may precede ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation.
§The risk is minimal if the beats are isolated.
§The danger increases if beats do the following:
▪ Are frequent (i.e., more than six per minute) I
▪Are multifocal (have different shapes)
155
What are the characteristics of ventricular tachycardia?
§Irritability of the myocardium
§Series of ectopic electrical impulses from the ventricles assumes control of the heart rhythm.
¡Clinical manifestations.
§The monitor pattern shows a series of beats with wide, bizarre complexes.
§If conscious, the patient may feel palpitations or may be light-headed or dizzy, or have chest pain.
§Blood pressure usually drops significantly.
§A weak pulse may be present.
§If unconscious, the patient may appear clinically dead and may not have a pulse (if so, treat as ventricular fibrillation) or may demonstrate seizure-like activity.
§ Ventricular rate is 120 to 250 bpm.
¡Implications.
§If untreated, VT produces rapid hemodynamic decompensation caused by inadequate filling and emptying of the ventricles.
§If untreated, VT leads to VF, asystole, and death.
156
What are the characteristics of first degree AV block?
§Delay in the impulse from the atria to the ventricles characterized by a PR interval of longer than 0.20 second
§Rhythm is regular, and the QRS complex is not affected.
¡Etiology.
§Occurs in all ages in both normal and diseased hearts
§Drugs.
▪Digoxin
▪Beta blockers
▪Calcium channel blockers
▪Damage to the junction
¡Clinical manifestations: usually asymptomatic
157
What are the characteristics of second degree block MOBITZ I?
Second-degree block (Mobitz type I) (Wenckebach)
¡Characteristics.
§Usually transient and occurs at the AV node
§Progressive prolongation of the PR interval until an impulse is completely blocked (dropped)
§Then, the pattern usually repeats.
§ R-R interval decreases prior to the blocked beat. 5. Atrial rhythm is usually regular, and the ventricular rhythm is usually irregular, with progressive shortening of the R-R interval before the blocked impulse.
§QRS complex is not affected.
¡Etiology
§Usually from drug effects (e.g., digitalis, verapamil, propranolol), or
§Myocardial infarction
¡Clinical manifestations.
§Often asymptomatic
§If symptomatic, may see the following:
▪ a. Decreased cardiac output
▪b. Hypotension
c. Loss of consciousness
158
What are the characteristics of second degree block Mobitz type II?
Second-degree block (Mobitz type II)
¡Characteristics.
§Usually occurs below the level of the AV node
§Associated commonly with an organic lesion in the conduction pathway
§Associated with poorer prognosis than Mobitz type-I
§PR interval does not lengthen prior to a dropped beat.
§More than one dropped beat may occur in succession. 6. Sometimes associated with widened QRS complex
§Overall, the atrial rate is unaffected, but the ventricular rate is less than the atrial rate.
¡Etiology.
§Most often due to conduction path lesion
§Usually anterior myocardial infarction
§Clinical manifestations: same as second-degree type I.
159
What are the characteristics of third degree AV block?
Characteristics.
¡Complete absence of conduction between the atria and the ventricles
¡Atrial rate is unaffected, and the ventricular rate is slower than the atrial rate.
¡Ventricular rate is usually 40 to 60 bpm.
¡PR interval will vary because the atria and the ventricles are depolarized from different pacemakers.
¡Etiology.
§MI is the most common cause.
§May also be caused by digitalis toxicity or any other degeneration of the conduction system
¡Clinical manifestations.
§Otherwise, progressive decrease in cardiac output, loss of consciousness
Asymptomatic if the ventricular rate is adequate
160
What are the physical exam findings of angina?
¡Levine Sign":
§Clenched fist over chest, classic finding
¡BP often elevated during symptoms
¡Physical exam often uninformative
§occasional S3/S4,
§mitral regurgitation or new murmur (papillary muscle dysfunction)
diminished peripheral pulses
161
What is the workup for angina?
¡Standard 12 lead
§ Ideally should be obtained and read within 10 min of presentation for patients with acute chest pain
¡Mostly helpful in detecting acute MI, less so UA
¡Compare to prior ECG if available
§If normal or unchanged, serial ECGs every 10-30 min
¡New ST changes or T-wave inversion suspicious for UA
§T-wave flattening or biphasic T-waves
§≤1 mm ST depression 80 msec from the J point, is characteristic in UA
§Can see evidence of old ischemia, strain or infarct, such as old TWI, Q-wave, ST depression
§Single ECG for acute MI is about 60% sensitive and 90% specific
¡ECG can also be helpful to diagnose other causes of chest pain
§Pericarditis: Diffuse ST elevations, then T wave inversions and pulse rate depression
§Pulmonary embolus S1Q3T3 pattern, unexplained tachycardia and signs of right heart strain
162
What are the diagnostic tests and interpretation of angina?
Labs
¡For stable angina, cardiac enzymes not indicated, but if history suspicious for acute MI, should obtain.
¡CK-MB and troponin I or T <50% of patient with UA will have low level troponin elevations CK-MB peaks 12-24 hr, return to baseline in 2-3 days Troponin peaks in 12 hr, return to baseline 7-10 days
¡Hematocrit (anemia increases risk of ischemia)
¡Coagulation profile
¡Electrolytes, especially Cr and K+

Imaging
¡CXR:
§Usually nonrevealing
§May show cardiomegaly, or pulmonary edema, CHF suggests UA or MI.
§May be helpful in identifying other etiologies such as pneumonia, pneumothorax, or aortic dissection
¡Coronary CTA:
§Good for low-risk patients with no known CAD to rule out ischemia as cause of pain in patient if no coronary stenosis
§"Triple rule-out" for ACS, PE, and aortic dissection
¡Bedside echo: To detect wall motion abnormalities and other etiologies of shock, pericardial effusion, pneumothorax
¡Technetium Tc-99 sestamibi (rest): Radionucleotide whose uptake by myocardium is dependent on perfusion

Diagnostic Procedures/Surgery
¡Exercise stress testing: Not appropriate if active chest pain with moderate to high likelihood of ischemia Imaging stress test (sestamibi, thallium, or echo) if baseline ECG abnormalities Early positive (within 3 min) concerning for UA Coronary angiography: Gold standard of diagnosis for CAD
163
What is the clinical presentation of MI?
¡Chest pain:
§Most common presentation of MI
§Substernal pressure
§ Heaviness
§Squeezing
§Burning sensation
§ Tightness

¡Anginal equivalents (MI without chest pain):
§Abdominal pain
§Syncope
§Diaphoresis
§Nausea or vomiting
§Weakness
¡May localize or radiate to arms, shoulders, back, neck, or jaw
¡
¡
¡
¡Associated symptoms:
§Dyspnea
§Syncope
§Fatigue
§Diaphoresis
§Nausea
§Vomiting
¡Symptoms are usually reproduced by exertion, eating, exposure to cold, or emotional stress.
¡Symptoms commonly last 30 min or more.
¡Symptoms may occur with rest or exertion.
¡Often preceded by crescendo angina
¡May be improvedelieved with rest or nitroglycerin
¡Symptoms generally unchanged with position or inspiration
164
What is the diagnostic criteria for MI?
§EKG changes (ST-elevation, Q-waves (at least 0.04s and 25% of R wave), T- waves inversion
§Cardiac enzyme
CK-MB (increases during the first 4-8 hours; returns to normal values after 48-72 hours)
Troponin I/T (increases in the first 3-5 hours; returns to normal values after 5-14 days)* CK-MB is an important marker for reinfarction

Ischemia -T wave inversion, peaked T waved, and ST segment depression *with angina, cardiac changes usually do not persist once pain has been alleviated.

Injury-ST segment elevation greater than 1mm above baseline

Infarction- may produce Q waves (pathologic) greater than 25@ of QRS complex height or more than 1 mm wide (0.04s).
165
What causes endocarditis?
§Acute endocarditis is a febrile illness that rapidly damages cardiac structures, seeds extracardiac sites hematogenously, and can progress to death within weeks. Subacute endocarditis follows an indolent course, rarely causes metastatic infection, and progresses gradually unless complicated by a major embolic event or a ruptured mycotic aneurysm.

Causes/ Risk factors:
§Bacteria

Classification
§Acute Endocarditis (less than 6 weeks): The culprit is staphylococcus aureus (more common in IV drug abusers)
§Subacute Endocarditis is caused by:
▪Streptococcus viridians, most prone to dentistry procedures
▪Enterococcus (bacteria arise from GI tract)
166
What are the s/s and diagnosis of endocarditis?
Clinical Symptoms And Signs
¡Fever
¡Roth spots (retinal lesions due to vasculitis)
¡Osler's nodes (painful nodes in the pads of the finger or the toes due to vasculitis)
¡Murmur
¡Jane way lesions (lesions on the palm and the soles due to emboli)
¡Anemia
¡Nail bed hemorrhages/ Splinter hemorrhages
¡Emboli

Diagnosis
¡Blood culture
¡Transesophageal echocardiogram
167
What are the s/s and diagnosis of pericarditis?
¡Clinical symptoms and signs
§Retrosternal chest pain (pleuritic pain which radiates to trapezius or scapula)
§Leaning forward lowers the pain.
§Swallowing, cough, and lying down increase the pain.
§Fever
§Pericardial rub
§
¡
¡Diagnosis
§EKG
▪Diffuse S-T elevation
▪P-R depression (the most specific for pericarditis)
▪T wave inversion
§Echocardiogram
168
What are the s/s of mitral stenosis?
¡Malar flush ("mitral facies")
¡Prominent jugular
¡A-waves
¡Right ventricular lift
¡Loud S1
¡Opening snap
¡Low-pitched diastolic rumble
¡Exertional dyspnea
¡Fatigue
¡Palpitations
¡Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
¡Orthopnea
¡Hemoptysis
¡Systemic emboli
¡Pulmonary edema
169
What are the s/s of mitral regurgitation?
¡Acute pulmonary edema
¡Jugular venous pressure (JVP) exhibits cannon
¡A-waves and giant V-waves.
¡Harsh blowing apical crescendo-decrescendo murmur radiating to the axilla
¡Palpable thrill at apex
¡S3 and S4
¡Palpitations
¡Atrial fibrillation
¡Dyspnea
¡Orthopnea
¡Nocturnal paroxysmal dyspnea
¡Peripheral edema
¡Systemic emboli
¡Normal JVP
¡ Left ventricular hypertrophy (LVH)
¡Apical high-pitched pansystolic murmur
Decreased or obscured
170
What are the s/s of aortic stenosis?
¡Exertional angina
¡Syncope (during exercise)
¡CHF (initially diastolic failure, then systolic)
¡Sudden death secondary to ventricular fibrillation
¡Harsh crescendo-decrescendo (diamond-shaped) systolic murmur at aortic focus radiating to carotids
¡Absent aortic component of S2
¡Delayed upstroke in peripheral pulse (pulsus parvus et tardus)
¡S4 gallop
¡Ejection click
171
What are the s/s of aortic regurgitation?
¡Fatigue
¡Dyspnea on exertion
¡Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
¡Orthopnea
¡Syncope
¡Acute pulmonary edema
¡High-pitched blowing decrescendo diastolic murmur at aortic area
¡Accentuated A2 heart sound
¡Wide pulse pressure
¡Corrigan pulse (collapsing pulse)
¡Duroziez sign (to-and-fro murmur)
¡De Musset sign (head bobbing with systole)
¡Quincke pulse (nail bed pulsations)
¡Austin Flint murmur (soft diastolic rumble)
172
What occurs during cardiac tamponade?
§Cardiac tamponade is impaired ventricular filling due to excessive pericardial effusion.

s/s: §Beck's triad:
▪JVD
▪Hypotension
▪Muffled heart sounds
§Narrowed pulse pressure (due to low stroke volume)
§Pulsus paradoxus (blood pressure decrease for >10mmHg during inspiration)
§Tachycardia

Diagnosis
¡Echo
¡Chest Xray
§Increased cardiac silhouette
§Clear lung fields
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