Torts Final Exam

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1
What constitutes intent to cause contact?
A person acts with intent if they act with the purpose of producing a consequence or knowing the consequence is substantially certain to result.
2
What is Single Intent?
The intent to cause contact, where that contact ends up being harmful or offensive to the plaintiff.
3
What is Dual Intent?
The intent to cause contact that the defendant intended or knew was substantially certain to be harmful or offensive.
4
What is transferred intent?
When the defendant commits a different tort than intended or commits a tort against a different person than intended.
5
What is the Eggshell Skull Rule?
If all elements of the tort are met, the defendant is liable for all consequences, even unforeseeable or unintended ones.
6
What is necessary to establish contact?
The actor must intend to cause the other person, directly or indirectly, to come into contact with a foreign substance.
7
What is indirect contact?
Putting something in motion or contacting something connected to the plaintiff’s body, which can be sufficient to establish contact.
8
Does contact extend beyond the body itself?
Yes, it extends to anything intimately attached or practically identified with the person.
9
Is the plaintiff’s awareness required for contact to occur?
No, the plaintiff’s awareness of the contact is not necessary.
10
What makes contact harmful?
Contact is harmful if it causes physical injury.
11
What makes contact offensive?
Contact is offensive if it offends a reasonable sense of personal dignity.
12
What is the difference between assault and battery?
Battery involves harmful or offensive contact, while assault involves the apprehension of imminent harmful or offensive contact.
13
What does assault seek to protect?
The right to be free from the apprehension of harmful or offensive contact.
14
Does lack of fear negate liability for assault?
No, lack of fear does not negate liability for assault.
15
What is the standard used to determine apprehension in assault?
The reasonable person standard.
16
What does "imminent" mean in the context of assault?
Imminent means "right now" or "in the next few seconds."
17
What constitutes assault under the Restatement?
Assault occurs when the defendant acts intending to cause imminent apprehension of harmful or offensive contact, and such apprehension occurs in the plaintiff.
18
Are words alone sufficient to constitute a threat for assault?
No, words alone are not enough; they must be accompanied by actions or circumstances.
19
What is transferred intent for assault?
If someone intends to commit battery but only causes apprehension, the intent to batter can transfer to fulfill the intent element of assault.
20
What is apprehension in the context of assault?
Apprehension is the expectation that harmful or offensive contact will occur if no other action is taken.
21
What is a conditional threat in assault?
A threat that causes apprehension of imminent harm or offensive contact, even if escape is possible by obeying a command.
22
Does fear need to be present for assault?
No, assault requires an expectation of contact, not fear.
23
Must the plaintiff be aware of the threat for assault to occur?
Yes, the plaintiff must be aware; an attempt abandoned or frustrated before awareness does not constitute assault.
24
What are the elements of false imprisonment under the Restatement?
(1) The defendant acts with intent to confine another, (2) their actions directly or indirectly result in confinement, and (3) the other is aware of the confinement or harmed by it.
25
What is intent to confine?
The defendant acts with the purpose of confining another or is substantially certain their act will result in confinement.
26
Can transferred intent apply to false imprisonment?
Yes, transferred intent can apply to false imprisonment.
27
What are the types of confinement in false imprisonment?
Physical barriers, physical force, and threats of physical force.
28
When does physical barriers constitute confinement?
When the plaintiff cannot escape without unreasonable danger, serious risk of embarrassment, or discomfort.
29
What is an example of physical force confinement?
When physical force restrains the plaintiff, or the plaintiff submits to physical force without further restraint.
30
What qualifies as a threat of physical force for confinement?
Submission to a threat of immediate physical force against the plaintiff or others if they attempt to leave the area of confinement.
31
Does a threat of economic retaliation qualify as confinement?
No, threats of economic retaliation or loss of employment are not enough for confinement.
32
How does mistake affect confinement?
If the plaintiff mistakenly believes they are confined and the mistake is reasonable, and the defendant intended for the plaintiff to believe they were confined, confinement is satisfied.
33
What are the awareness requirements for false imprisonment?
The plaintiff must be aware of the confinement or harmed by it.
34
What is the shopkeeper's privilege?
The privilege allows a shopkeeper to detain someone reasonably suspected of theft in a reasonable manner and for a reasonable time to investigate and recover stolen items.
35
What are the limits of shopkeeper's privilege?
The privilege ends after the merchandise is recovered and cannot be used for prolonged detention beyond investigation and recovery.
36
What are the elements of IIED under the Restatement?
(1) Extreme or outrageous conduct by the defendant, (2) intent to cause severe emotional distress or reckless disregard of the likelihood of such distress, and (3) severe emotional distress suffered by the plaintiff.
37
What constitutes extreme or outrageous conduct?
Conduct that goes beyond the bounds of decency; it must be more than rude or offensive behavior.
38
Can IIED apply if emotional distress results from a physical injury or property harm?
No, the plaintiff would sue for the tort causing the injury or harm (e.g., battery, negligence) and seek damages for resulting emotional distress.
39
What intent is required for IIED?
The defendant must have acted with intent to cause severe emotional distress or with reckless disregard of the likelihood of such distress.
40
What are the three forms of IIED intent?
Purpose intent, knowledge intent, or recklessness.
41
What must the plaintiff prove about their emotional distress for IIED?
The emotional distress must be severe and substantial or enduring.
42
Do physical manifestations of emotional distress need to be proven in all jurisdictions?
No, some jurisdictions no longer require physical manifestations, but others still do. Check jurisdiction requirements.
43
What are the elements of trespass to land under the Restatement?
(1) Intentionally entering another’s land or causing a thing or third person to do so, (2) remaining on the land, or (3) failing to remove something placed on the land.
44
Does a mistaken belief about land ownership excuse trespass liability?
No, an actor is still liable for trespass even if they mistakenly believe they are allowed to be on the land.
45
Does trespass apply to underground areas?
Yes, trespass includes below-ground areas such as tunnels, caves, wires, or cables.
46
Is harm to the land required for trespass liability?
No, an actor is liable for trespass even if no harm is caused to the land.
47
What mistakes might an actor make that still result in trespass liability?
(1) Believing they own the land, (2) believing they have consent, or (3) believing they have another privilege to enter.
48
When might a mistake excuse trespass liability?
If the true possessor induced the actor's reasonable mistake, the actor may not be liable.
49
What is public necessity in the context of trespass?
A complete defense where the defendant is privileged to interfere with property to avert an imminent public disaster and is not liable for damages.
50
What is private necessity in the context of trespass?
An incomplete defense where the trespass is privileged to prevent serious harm, but the defendant may still be liable for damages caused.
51
What situations justify private necessity?
Interfering with another’s property to prevent serious harm to (1) the actor, their land, or chattels, or (2) another person, their land, or chattels.
52
What are the elements of conversion under the Restatement?
(1) Intentionally exercising dominion or control, OR (2) altering or destroying another’s property so seriously as to warrant payment of the full chattel.
53
What factors determine serious interference in conversion?
Extent and duration of control, intent to assert a right inconsistent with the owner’s right, good faith, harm to the chattel, and inconvenience or expense to the plaintiff.
54
What damages are awarded in conversion cases?
The full value of the chattel.
55
Does public necessity provide a defense to conversion?
Yes, public necessity is a complete defense, and the defendant is not liable for damages if they acted to avert an imminent public disaster.
56
What is private necessity in the context of conversion?
An incomplete defense where the interference is privileged to prevent serious harm, but the defendant may still be liable for damages.
57
What situations justify private necessity in conversion?
Interfering with another’s property to prevent serious harm to (1) the actor, their land, or chattels, or (2) another person, their land, or chattels.
58
What are the elements of trespass to chattels under the Restatement?
(1) Intentional intermeddling with another’s personal property, OR (2) dispossessing another of their personal property.
59
When is a defendant liable for intermeddling with another’s chattel?
When the defendant impairs its condition, deprives the plaintiff of using it for a substantial time, or harms the plaintiff or their interest in the chattel.
60
What constitutes dispossessing someone of their chattel?
Intentionally preventing the plaintiff from accessing the chattel by taking it or barring access to it.
61
What is the difference between conversion and trespass to chattels?
Conversion involves serious interference and requires payment of the full value, while trespass to chattels involves less serious interference and does not require full value payment.
62
What is a remedy for conversion when the item still exists?
Replevin, a court action to recover the specific item.
63
What type of interference would likely be classified as trespass to chattels?
Less serious interferences or damages that do not satisfy the elements of conversion.
64
Does public necessity provide a defense for trespass to chattels?
Yes, public necessity is a complete defense where the defendant is not liable for damages.
65
What is private necessity in the context of trespass to chattels?
An incomplete defense where interference is privileged to prevent serious harm, but the defendant may still be liable for damages.
66
When does private necessity justify interference with chattels?
When it is necessary to prevent serious harm to the actor, their property, another person, or their property.
67
What is the definition of consent under the Restatement?
Willingness in fact for conduct to occur, manifested by action or inaction; does not need to be communicated to the actor; express or implied actual consent. (Rest. 2d § 892)
68
What constitutes apparent consent?
If words, silence, conduct, or inaction would be understood by a reasonable person as consent, they constitute apparent consent and are as effective as actual consent.
69
To which types of torts does consent apply?
Consent applies to intentional torts, including property torts.
70
What happens if a plaintiff consents to an intentional tort?
If the plaintiff consents to an intentional tort, the defendant is not liable.
71
Under what conditions can mistaken consent lead to liability for the defendant?
The defendant may be liable if there was (1) a substantial mistake, (2) about the essential character of the act, (3) known to or induced by the defendant.
72
What is express actual consent?
Express actual consent occurs when the plaintiff is willing to permit the conduct that occurs.
73
What is implied actual consent?
Implied actual consent is inferred from the plaintiff's actions, such as participating in an activity like playing rugby.
74
What is consent via emergency?
Consent is presumed by law in emergencies when the person is unconscious or incapacitated, but no consent exists if the person explicitly denies it.
75
What is the substantial mistake under the "Consent Under Mistake" doctrine?
A substantial mistake occurs when the plaintiff misunderstands the essential character of the act, such as the physical impact or nature of the act.
76
What is the difference between an essential character mistake and a collateral matter mistake?
An essential character mistake involves misunderstanding the act itself or its physical impact, while a collateral matter mistake involves misunderstanding something relevant to the consent, like the terms of a deal.
77
What is required for the plaintiff to have the capacity to consent?
The plaintiff must be capable of appreciating the nature and likely consequences of the conduct.
78
When is consent obtained by duress ineffective?
Consent is ineffective if obtained by duress, defined as the threat of imminent physical force.
79
What is the burden of proof on the defendant in self-defense cases?
The defendant must show that they used reasonable or comparable force.
80
When can an actor use non-deadly force in self-defense?
An actor can use reasonable/comparable non-deadly force if they reasonably believe another person is about to batter them and have exhausted all other alternatives. (Rest. 2d. § 63)
81
What is the majority rule regarding retreat before using non-deadly force?
The actor does NOT have to retreat, give up a right or privilege, or comply with a command before using non-deadly force.
82
When can deadly force be used in self-defense?
Deadly force can be used if the actor reasonably believes they are at risk of severe injury or death and has exhausted reasonable alternatives, including using lesser force. (Rest. 2d. § 65)
83
When is the use of deadly force in self-defense NOT privileged?
Deadly force is not privileged if the actor can avoid using it with complete safety by retreating (except in their home) or relinquishing rights other than preventing home intrusion or effecting lawful arrest. (Rest. 2d. § 65)
84
What is the majority position on the duty to retreat?
There is no duty to retreat; an actor can fight back with comparable force even if they believe they can safely retreat.
85
What are "Stand Your Ground" laws?
Stand Your Ground laws state that there is no duty to retreat when threatened with deadly force, allowing the use of deadly force anywhere, even outside the home.
86
What is the minority position on the duty to retreat?
The actor has a duty to retreat unless they are in their own home (Castle Doctrine). (Rest. 2d. § 65)
87
What is the Castle Doctrine?
The Castle Doctrine states that an actor in their home is not required to retreat before using deadly force in self-defense, though they must consider other options besides retreat.
88
How do Stand Your Ground laws extend the Castle Doctrine?
Stand Your Ground laws extend the Castle Doctrine to situations outside the home, permitting the use of deadly force where property is threatened.
89
What force can an actor use to defend another against an attack?
An actor can use reasonable/comparable force if the third person has the right to self-defense and the intervention is necessary for their protection. (Rest. 2d. § 76)
90
What limits are placed on defending property?
The actor cannot use force likely to cause bodily harm exceeding what is reasonably necessary to prevent or terminate the intrusion. (Rest. 2d § 81)
91
When is force reasonable in defense of property?
Force is reasonable if it is used against an immediate threat to defend property.
92
Can deadly force be used in defense of property?
The majority of jurisdictions do not allow deadly force in defense of property, but some “stand your ground” states permit it.
93
What is required for protective devices to be valid?
Protective devices must be visible or obvious to trespassers, like barbed wire or spiked railings. (Rest. 2d § 84)
94
When is necessity a defense to property interference?
Necessity is a defense when intentional interference with property is required to avoid a greater injury.
95
What is public necessity?
Public necessity is a complete defense that allows D to interfere with property to avert an imminent public disaster, with no liability for damages. (Rest. 2d § 196)
96
What is private necessity?
Private necessity allows interference with property to prevent serious harm to the actor, their property, others, or others’ property. It is an incomplete defense.
97
What damages can a trespassing D be liable for under private necessity?
Under private necessity, the trespassing D is privileged but may still be liable for damages to the property interfered with, not for trespass.
98
How does public necessity differ from private necessity?
Public necessity is a complete defense with no liability for damages, while private necessity is an incomplete defense where D may be liable for property damage.
99
What is the duty rule regarding affirmative action?
If a person takes an affirmative action, they have a duty to protect others by taking reasonable precautions to prevent foreseeable harm.
100
What is the duty when undertaking to assist another?
If someone chooses to assist another, they have a duty to perform that assistance with reasonable care and can be liable if their failure increases the risk of harm or if the victim or third party relies on their assistance.
101
How are minors held to different standards of care?
Minors are not held to the same standards as adults; the standards vary by jurisdiction, and minors are judged based on age, intelligence, and experience.
102
What is the Restatement rule for minor negligence?
Under the Restatement, a child under 5 is incapable of negligence, while those over 5 are judged based on a child of like age, intelligence, and experience.
103
What is the Rule of 7’s for minor negligence?
Under the Rule of 7's, children under 7 have no liability, children 7-14 have a rebuttable presumption of incapacity for negligence, and children over 14 are presumed capable of negligence, which can be rebutted.
104
What is the “Like Age, Intelligence, and Experience” rule for minors?
The "Like Age, Intelligence, and Experience" rule does not have a specific age cut-off and judges minors based on their individual capabilities in comparison to other children.
105
How is Illinois’ rule for minor negligence different?
In Illinois, children under 7 have no liability, children 7-14 have a rebuttable presumption of no negligence, and children 14 and over are held to an adult standard of care.
106
What is the duty for minors engaged in adult activities?
Regardless of jurisdiction, if a child engages in an adult activity, such as driving or operating heavy machinery, they are held to the same standard of care as an adult engaged in that activity.
107
What activities are considered “adult activities” for minors?
Adult activities for minors include those requiring a license or special training, such as driving, operating heavy machinery, or boating. There may also be gray areas like using a gun or hunting.
108
What is the standard of care for a person with a physical disability?
A person with a physical disability is held to the standard of a reasonably careful person with the same disability.
109
When is the conduct of an actor with sudden incapacitation or loss of consciousness considered negligent?
It is considered negligent only if the sudden incapacitation or loss of consciousness was reasonably foreseeable to the actor.
110
Are mental or emotional disabilities considered when determining negligence?
Mental or emotional disabilities are not considered when determining negligence unless the actor is a child.
111
What is the duty arising from special relationships?
An affirmative duty to act may arise if the defendant has a special relationship with the plaintiff or with the dangerous instrumentality causing harm.
112
What are examples of special relationships that create a duty to act?
Examples include innkeeperuest, business/customer, parent/child, common carrier/passenger, mental health professional/patient, employer/employee, and school/student.
113
What is the duty of a defendant in a special relationship?
The defendant owes the plaintiff a duty of reasonable care with regard to foreseeable risks that arise within the scope of the relationship.
114
What is the duty to warn in a special relationship?
If a defendant is in a special relationship with someone, they must take reasonable precautions to protect a third party if the person poses a serious threat and there is a readily identifiable victim.
115
What duty is owed to trespassers?
The duty owed to trespassers is to avoid willful or wanton misconduct.
116
What is the difference between a trespasser, licensee, and invitee?
A trespasser enters without consent, a licensee enters with consent for social reasons, and an invitee enters for business or public purposes.
117
What is the Attractive Nuisance Doctrine for child trespassers?
Landowners must exercise reasonable care to protect trespassing children if they know or should know children are likely to trespass, and there is a dangerous condition that poses a risk of harm.
118
What is the duty owed to known or constant trespassers?
The duty is to warn of hidden artificial conditions that involve a risk of death or serious bodily harm, and to exercise reasonable care in activities that pose such risks.
119
What duty is owed to flagrant trespassers?
The only duty owed to flagrant trespassers is to avoid intentional, willful, or wanton conduct that causes harm, though reasonable care is owed to flagrant trespassers who are imperiled and helpless.
120
What is the Open and Obvious Danger Rule?
Generally, there is no duty to warn of open and obvious dangers unless it is foreseeable that entrants will encounter the danger despite the obvious risk due to necessity, convenience, or recklessness.
121
What is the traditional common law approach to duty for entrants?
Under traditional common law, the duty varies depending on whether the entrant is a trespasser, licensee, or invitee.
122
What is the Illinois approach to duty for entrants?
In Illinois, a duty of reasonable care applies to licensees and invitees, while only a duty to refrain from willful or wanton misconduct applies to trespassers.
123
What does the Restatement 3d approach say about duty for entrants?
The Restatement 3d approach applies a duty of reasonable care to all entrants except flagrant trespassers.
124
What is the Public Duty Doctrine?
The Public Duty Doctrine states that public actors owe a duty to the public generally but not to specific individuals unless there is a special reliance.
125
What is the effect of statutory immunity for public actors?
Public actors have immunity under most statutes, meaning they may not be liable for breach of a common law duty even if it is proven.
126
What is the purpose of the discretionary-function exception under the Federal Tort Claims Act?
The discretionary-function exception bars recovery for government employees' negligence when the actions involve social, economic, or political policy.
127
What is the Public Duty Doctrine (according to Cuffy v. City of NY)?
In Cuffy v. City of NY, the court held that a public duty exists if there is a special relationship based on an undertaking and reliance between the public actor and the injured party.
128
What is the Foreseeability theory of breach?
The Foreseeability theory of breach states that there is negligence if a reasonably prudent person could foresee injury as a result of their conduct and acted unreasonably in light of what could be foreseen.
129
What is the Learned Hand Formula used to determine breach?
The Learned Hand Formula is B < P x L, where B is the burden of taking precautions, P is the probability of injury occurring, and L is the seriousness of the resulting injury.
130
How is custom used in determining breach of duty?
An actor’s failure to conform their conduct to a relevant industry custom is strong evidence of a breach of duty.
131
What is the standard of care for healthcare professionals?
A healthcare professional breaches their duty of care if they fail to exercise the degree of judgment and skills that a reasonable professional would exercise under similar circumstances.
132
What is Negligence Per Se?
Negligence Per Se occurs when an actor violates a statute designed to protect against the type of accident their conduct causes, and the victim is within the class the statute protects.
133
What is the Majority View of Negligence Per Se?
In the Majority View, if all elements of negligence per se are met, the violation conclusively establishes breach of duty, and the jury must hold the defendant liable.
134
What is the Minority View of Negligence Per Se?
In the Minority View, if all elements of negligence per se are met, it provides strong evidence of breach, but the jury is not bound to hold the defendant liable.
135
What is the first element of Negligence Per Se (NPS)?
The first element of NPS is the violation of a relevant statute, such as a federal, state, or local law that sets clear health or safety standards.
136
What is the second element of Negligence Per Se (NPS)?
The second element is statutory intent, which means the statute is intended to protect against the type of injury and person bringing the suit.
137
What is the third element of Negligence Per Se (NPS)?
The third element is no valid excuse for the violation, such as incapacity, lack of knowledge, or the statute being vague or confusing.
138
What is the fourth element of Negligence Per Se (NPS)?
The fourth element is causation, meaning there must be a causal link between the violation of the statute and the injury.
139
What is Res Ipsa Loquitur (RIL)?
Res Ipsa Loquitur is when the plaintiff is unable to identify the specific circumstances surrounding the defendant's breach due to a lack of information, often because the evidence was destroyed.
140
Why is Res Ipsa Loquitur rarely used?
Res Ipsa Loquitur is rarely used because modern technology has improved the ability to gather evidence, making it easier to identify the breach.
141
When should Res Ipsa Loquitur not be used?
Res Ipsa Loquitur should not be used if there is evidence that can be collected that would help the plaintiff identify the breach and how it occurred.
142
What is causation in fact?
Causation in fact means that the defendant’s negligence must have been the factual cause of the plaintiff’s injury.
143
What is the default test for causation in fact?
The default test for causation in fact is the but-for causation test.
144
What is the test for but-for causation?
The test for but-for causation involves identifying the plaintiff’s injury, identifying the defendant’s wrongful conduct, correcting for the wrongful conduct, and determining if the injury would still likely have occurred.
145
What case established that the negligent act must be the direct cause of the injury?
Jordan v. Jordan established that the negligent act must be the direct cause of the injury.
146
What is the Loss of Chance doctrine?
The Loss of Chance doctrine is used when it’s impossible to know whether the defendant caused the plaintiff’s injury due to an underlying risk, often in medical malpractice cases.
147
What is required to use the Loss of Chance doctrine?
To use the Loss of Chance doctrine, the plaintiff must have an underlying medical risk, the defendant’s negligence must increase the risk, and the plaintiff must suffer the injury.
148
What is Illinois’ approach to the Loss of Chance doctrine?
Illinois’ approach is to define the injury as a loss of chance of survival, which allows the application of traditional but-for causation principles.
149
What happens in cases with multiple negligent defendants?
In cases with multiple negligent defendants, the but-for test is applied when the injuries are divisible or the causes are necessary but insufficient.
150
What is the Substantial Factor test?
The Substantial Factor test holds a defendant liable if their conduct was a substantial factor in causing the injury, especially when multiple causes exist.
151
What is the Mixed Test for causation?
The Mixed Test holds any defendant who was a substantial factor or whose negligence alone could have caused the injury to be a cause in fact.
152
What does Restatement 3d § 27 say about multiple causes?
Restatement 3d § 27 states that if multiple acts occur, each of which could have caused the harm alone, each act is regarded as a factual cause of the harm.
153
What is Alternative Liability?
Alternative Liability is used when multiple defendants may be the cause, but it is unknown which one, and the burden shifts to each defendant to prove they were not the cause in fact.
154
What is required for Alternative Liability to apply?
For Alternative Liability, all breaching defendants must be joined, and if any cannot disprove causation, they are jointly and severally liable.
155
What is breach in the context of tort law?
Breach is analyzing whether the burden of preventing a foreseeable harm was less than the probability of the injury occurring.
156
What is proximate cause?
Proximate cause analyzes the risks identified in the breach analysis to determine if the harm was a foreseeable result of the defendant's conduct.
157
Who determines duty, standard of care, and scope of duty in proximate cause?
The judge determines duty, standard of care, and scope of duty.
158
Who determines breach, cause-in-fact, and proximate cause?
The jury determines breach, cause-in-fact, and proximate cause.
159
What does an actor’s liability depend on?
An actor's liability is limited to harms resulting from the risks that made the actor's conduct tortious.
160
What are the 2 steps in the analysis of proximate cause?
1. Identify the breach of duty. 2. Identify injurious outcomes that could reasonably be foreseen from that breach to determine the scope of proximate cause.
161
What factors should be considered when determining foreseeability?
Factors include the type of harm, manner of harm, temporal/spatial proximity, and policy/practical implications.
162
What case involved a defendant being liable even if the damage was greater than what was foreseeable?
Hughes v. Lord Advocate involved a defendant being liable even if the damage was greater than what was foreseeable.
163
What is an intervening act in the context of proximate cause?
An intervening act occurs when the carelessness of D1 causes harm to the victim only because of subsequent harmful acts by D2, but does not break the chain of causation.
164
What is a superseding cause?
A superseding cause is an intervening act that breaks the chain of proximate causation, relieving D1 of liability for the victim's injury.
165
When does D1 remain liable for harm caused by D2’s actions?
D1 remains liable for harm caused by D2 if D2’s act is merely unforeseeable but does not sever the liability of D1.
166
What case involved intervening intentional acts and liability?
Britton v. Wooten involved intervening intentional acts, where the defendant was still liable because the criminal act was foreseeable.
167
What rule applies when a defendant’s conduct risks harm and the plaintiff suffers additional injury from an accident?
The defendant is liable for the additional injury caused by the accident, as it is the foreseeable consequence of the original injury.
168
What rule applies when injuries are caused by negligent medical treatment?
The defendant is liable for any worsened injuries caused by negligent medical treatment following the original injury.
169
What is the eggshell plaintiff rule?
The eggshell plaintiff rule holds that a defendant will be liable for the full extent of injuries, even if the extent was unforeseeable due to the plaintiff’s underlying condition.
170
What case illustrates the eggshell plaintiff rule?
Benn v. Thomas illustrates the eggshell plaintiff rule, where the plaintiff suffered a heart attack after a car accident.
171
What does the rescue doctrine state?
The rescue doctrine states that if a rescuer is injured while trying to help a victim of the defendant's negligence, the defendant will be liable for the rescuer’s injury.
172
What is the common law rule regarding superseding causes and malicious intentional acts?
The common law rule, now largely rejected, holds that malicious intentional acts are not foreseeable and thus not within the scope of liability.
173
What is the majority rule regarding suicide in tort law?
The majority rule holds that an individual’s act of suicide is a superseding cause, breaking the chain of responsibility linking the loss to the negligent act.
174
What are exceptions to the majority rule regarding suicide?
Exceptions include when the defendant causes delirium or insanity leading to suicide, or when the defendant has a custodial relationship with the victim and is negligent in caring for them.
175
What is the rule for divisible harms?
For divisible harms, the court will apportion damages, and each defendant is responsible only for their share.
176
What is the rule for indivisible harms?
For indivisible harms, each defendant is responsible for the full damage award, and the plaintiff can only collect once.
177
What is the risk allocation in indivisible harms cases?
The risk is allocated to the negligent defendants, not the plaintiff.
178
How are damages allocated in several liability (causal apportionment)?
Each defendant is responsible only for their share of damages, and the risk is allocated to the plaintiff.
179
What is Illinois law regarding joint and several liability for medical expenses?
Under Illinois law (735 ILCS 5/2-1117), all liable defendants are jointly and severally liable for the plaintiff's medical expenses.
180
What is Illinois law regarding defendants whose comparative fault is less than 25%?
If a defendant’s comparative fault is less than 25%, they are severally liable for all other damages, meaning they are responsible only for their share of damages.
181
What is Illinois law regarding defendants whose comparative fault is more than 25%?
If a defendant’s comparative fault is more than 25%, they are jointly and severally liable for all other damages, meaning they are responsible for the full damage award.
182
How should you analyze an Illinois apportionment question?
In Illinois apportionment questions, separate out medical and non-medical damages, as joint and several liability applies to all medical damages and for defendants over 25% at fault for other damages.
183
How is fault apportioned for damages?
The jury determines the apportionment of fault, with factors such as the seriousness of the conduct and the causal connection to the harm being considered.
184
What factors are considered when assigning fault?
Factors for assigning fault include the seriousness of the risk-creating conduct and the causal connection between the conduct and the harm.
185
How do you calculate a defendant’s share of fault?
A defendant’s share of fault is calculated based on factors like the seriousness of their conduct and its causal connection to the harm, as per Rest. 3d § 8.
186
What is comparative negligence?
Comparative negligence occurs when the plaintiff knew or should have known the risks and failed to exercise reasonable care, contributing to their injury alongside the defendant’s breach of duty.
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What is the standard for breach in comparative negligence?
The plaintiff knew or should have known of the foreseeable risk and acted unreasonably by failing to exercise due care.
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What is cause-in-fact in comparative negligence?
Cause-in-fact asks if it is more likely than not that the incident could have been avoided if the plaintiff had used more care.
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What is pure comparative negligence?
In pure comparative negligence, the plaintiff can recover damages regardless of how negligent they were, even if they are 99% at fault.
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What is modified comparative negligence?
In modified comparative negligence, the plaintiff can only recover if their fault is equal to or less than the defendant’s fault.
191
What is the "Up to 50%" rule in Illinois comparative negligence?
Under the "Up to 50%" rule in Illinois, the plaintiff must be 49% at fault or less to recover damages.
192
What is assumption of risk (AOR)?
Assumption of risk occurs when the plaintiff voluntarily consented to encounter a risk they were actually aware of.
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What is express assumption of risk?
Express assumption of risk occurs when the plaintiff formally agrees to assume the risk of harm, often through a signed waiver or verbal statement.
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What is implied, primary assumption of risk?
Implied, primary assumption of risk occurs when the plaintiff chooses to undertake the inherent risks of an activity, and there is no breach by the defendant.
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What is implied, secondary assumption of risk?
Implied, secondary assumption of risk occurs when the plaintiff chooses to accept additional risks that are created by the defendant’s negligent actions.
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What are the analysis steps for express assumption of risk?
The analysis steps include determining whether public policy prohibits the waiver and whether the waiver is written in a way that a court would enforce its provisions.
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What is public policy in the context of assumption of risk?
Public policy in assumption of risk involves considering whether the defendant’s activities are essential or widespread, and whether allowing the defendant to escape liability would be unfair or harmful to many plaintiffs.
198
What is required for the precision and specificity of a waiver?
The waiver must specifically release the defendant from the particular risk that led to the plaintiff’s injury, and general language is not enough. Courts are more likely to enforce waivers that use specific language like “negligence.”
199
What is the rule regarding the voluntariness of signing a waiver?
Under common law, the waiver must be freely and fairly made, with the plaintiff’s assent given after understanding the terms, and there must be no significant disparity in bargaining power.
200
How are waivers treated under 3d § 2?
Under 3d § 2, waivers are treated like traditional contracts, where signing it binds the plaintiff to its terms, but considerations like duress or fraud may still apply.
201
What is the first step in analyzing NIED?
Ask whether the defendant breached a duty, following the same rules as for negligence.
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What is the second step in analyzing NIED?
Ask whether the breach falls under the categories of circumstances where Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress (NIED) is permitted.
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What is the third step in analyzing NIED?
Ask whether the breach was the actual cause (cause-in-fact) of the plaintiff’s emotional distress.
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What is the fourth step in analyzing NIED?
Ask whether the breach was the proximate cause of the plaintiff’s emotional distress.
205
How does NIED differ from negligence alone?
NIED differs from negligence alone because generally, the defendant does not owe a duty to protect against emotional harms that do not arise from an initial physical injury.
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When may recovery for emotional distress be allowed despite no initial physical injury?
Recovery may be allowed when the defendant acts negligently causing emotional distress to the plaintiff, or in very specific relationships or circumstances like death, birth, or fear of disease.
207
What is the "zone of danger" in the context of NIED?
The "zone of danger" refers to when the plaintiff suffered emotional distress within the spatial zone where they could have sustained a physical injury, as outlined in Rest. 3d. § 47(a).
208
What is bystander recovery in NIED?
Bystander recovery occurs when the plaintiff suffers emotional distress due to witnessing the defendant’s negligent act towards someone close to them.
209
What is the focus of Rest. 3d. § 48 in NIED cases?
Rest. 3d. § 48 focuses on the contemporaneous witnessing of serious injury to a close family member for bystander recovery in NIED cases.
210
What was the Impact Rule in historic NIED cases?
The Impact Rule allowed plaintiffs to recover for emotional distress only if it arose from contemporaneous physical impact or injury.
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What are some special cases in NIED under Rest. 3d § 47?
Special cases include negligent conduct causing serious emotional harm in situations like mishandling of dead bodies, wrongful reporting of death, babies switched at hospitals, injury to fetus, or wrong diagnosis of disease.
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What are the elements for bystander recovery in NIED?
For bystander recovery, the plaintiff must perceive the event contemporaneously, and the victim suffering bodily injury must be a close family member.
213
What is strict liability?
Strict liability means that the defendant has liability to the plaintiff for injuries caused by an abnormally dangerous activity or use of property, regardless of the defendant's negligence or fault.
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What is the key question in determining if an activity is abnormally dangerous?
Whether the defendant is engaged in an abnormally dangerous activity.
215
What is the Second Restatement approach to determining if an activity is "abnormally dangerous"?
The Second Restatement approach lists factors such as a high risk of harm, the likelihood of great harm, impossibility of eliminating the risk even with due care, uncommon usage, locational inappropriateness, and comparing the activity's value to its danger.
216
What are the 2 elements required for an activity to be considered "abnormally dangerous" under the Third Restatement?
The two elements are: 1) the activity creates a foreseeable and significant risk of harm even with reasonable care, and 2) the activity is not of common usage.
217
What does it mean for an activity to be "not of common usage" in the context of strict liability?
An activity is "not of common usage" if it is not widely done or accepted, which may make it more likely to be considered abnormally dangerous.
218
What is the key factor in the Second Restatement for determining if an activity is abnormally dangerous?
A key factor is whether the risk of harm can be eliminated even with the exercise of due care.
219
How is proximate cause analyzed in strict liability cases?
Proximate cause in strict liability cases is analyzed by determining if the plaintiff's injury is within the types of risks that made the defendant's conduct dangerous.
220
What does the proximate cause analysis for strict liability have in common with standard negligence cases?
Proximate cause in strict liability is analyzed the same way as in negligence cases by determining if the injury was a foreseeable result of the defendant’s actions.
221
What should be considered in issue spotting for strict liability?
In issue spotting, consider whether there is a hazard in the activity that cannot be avoided, whether the risks and benefits of the activity correspond, and whether plaintiffs have an opportunity to protect themselves.
222
What is a defense to strict liability?
Plaintiff’s comparative negligence. If the plaintiff was comparatively negligent, their recovery in a strict liability claim is reduced based on their share of responsibility.
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How does plaintiff’s comparative negligence affect strict liability?
If the plaintiff’s failure to take reasonable precautions reduces the risk, it may turn a strict liability case into a standard negligence case, making it harder for the plaintiff to prove negligence.
224
What is the key factor in determining whether strict liability is appropriate?
The key factor is whether the activity creates a significant risk even when reasonable care is exercised by everyone involved.
225
What does the court consider an "intervening cause" in strict liability cases?
An intervening cause is considered to break the chain of causation only if it is "highly extraordinary" and completely unanticipated, otherwise, the defendant remains liable.
226
What determines if an employee is acting within the scope of employment?
An employee is acting within the scope of employment if their conduct (1) is of the general kind they were hired to perform, (2) occurs substantially within the hours and spatial boundaries of employment, and (3) is motivated, at least in part, by serving the employer’s interests.
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What types of acts are generally considered within the scope of employment?
Personal acts incidental to employment (e.g., bathroom breaks), mere detours in driving-related jobs, and activities that align with expected work tasks.
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What is considered outside the scope of employment?
Acts within an independent course of conduct not intended to serve the employer's purpose, such as frolics or intentional torts, are outside the scope of employment.
229
What is the "Coming and Going Rule"?
Under the Coming and Going Rule, an employee commuting to or from work is generally not acting within the scope of employment unless on a special errand or mission for the employer.
230
When can an employer be liable for an intentional tort committed by an employee?
An employer may be liable if the job involves the use of force or if the relationship involves power or confidentiality that facilitates abuse (e.g., therapist or clergy).

231
What is a non-delegable duty?
A non-delegable duty is a responsibility so important that an employer cannot fully delegate it to an independent contractor.
232
When must a non-delegable duty be analyzed?
A non-delegable duty is analyzed only if the actor is determined to be an independent contractor, not an employee.
233
What are examples of non-delegable duties?
Examples include duties important to the public, established by statute or contract, involving inherently dangerous activities, or requiring special precautions for peculiar risks.
234
What is the definition of an employee under Rest. 3d § Agency 7.07?
An employee is an agent whose principal controls or has the right to control the manner and means of the agent’s performance or work.
235
What doctrine makes an employer liable for the actions of an employee?
Under Respondeat Superior, an employer can be liable for the actions of an employee if they act within the scope of their employment or agency.
236
What test should be used if it is unclear whether someone is an employee or an independent contractor?
The control test should be used to determine whether someone is acting as an employee or an independent contractor.
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What are some factors considered under the control test?
Factors include the extent of control over work details, distinct occupation or business, kind of occupation, skill required, who supplies tools, length of employment, payment method, and whether the work is part of the employer's business.
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What conclusion can be made about an individual’s employment status if the employer provides tools and a workplace?
If the employer provides the tools and workplace, it weighs in favor of finding that the individual is an employee under the control test.
239
What does the apparent agency test focus on?
The apparent agency test focuses on the appearance of control rather than actual control by the employer.
240
What is required for the apparent agency test to establish vicarious liability?
There must be a representation, affirmation, or lack of denial by the employer, and reliance by the plaintiff.
241
How does the apparent agency test differ from the control test?
The apparent agency test considers the employer’s representation of control, while the control test evaluates actual control over the work.
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