Infectious Diseases I

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1
When does VAP occur after intubation?
more than 48 hours after endotracheal intubation
2
Are early- and late-onset VAP categories still recommended?
is no longer recommended.
3
When is the risk of VAP highest during mechanical ventilation?
during the first 5 days
4
What prior antibiotic exposure is an MDRO risk factor in VAP?
Prior intravenous antibiotic therapy in preceding 90 days
5
What head-of-bed elevation helps prevent VAP?
Elevate head of bed to 30–45 degrees.
6
What oral-care practice should be avoided to prevent VAP?
Avoid oral care with chlorhexidine to prevent VAP
7
What is the recommendation for probiotics to prevent VAP?
Avoid the use of probiotics to prevent VAP in mechanically ventilated patients.
8
Which diagnostic sampling approach is suggested for VAP?
noninvasive sampling with semiquantitative cultures
9
Below what PSB and BAL colony counts are antibiotics suggested to be withheld?
PSB less than 1000 CFU/mL; BAL less than 10,000 CFU/mL
10
Which organisms must empiric VAP therapy cover?
MSSA, P. aeruginosa, and other gram-negative bacilli.
11
When is dual antipseudomonal therapy suggested based on resistance rates?
greater than 10% of gram-negative isolates resistant to an agent being considered for monotherapy
12
When is empiric MRSA coverage suggested based on ICU prevalence?
ICU MRSA prevalence greater than 10%–20% of S. aureus.
13
What local resource should inform empiric VAP choices?
ICU-specific antibiogram
14
Which two classes are selected for dual antipseudomonal therapy?
two antipseudomonal antibiotics from different classes
15
What agents are recommended for MRSA VAP?
MRSA: Vancomycin or linezolid
16
Why is daptomycin not indicated for pneumonia?
direct inhibition by pulmonary surfactant.
17
Who can receive Pseudomonas VAP beta-lactam monotherapy?
immunocompetent patients not in septic shock and not at a high risk of dying.
18
Who needs combination therapy for Pseudomonas VAP?
immunocompromised patients and those in septic shock or at a high risk of dying.
19
Which drug class is listed for VAP caused by ESBL-producing organisms?
Carbapenem (e.g., ertapenem; imipenem; meropenem)
20
What duration of definitive antibiotic therapy is recommended for VAP?
7 days for all patients rather than longer durations.
21
When should nonresponse to VAP treatment trigger reassessment?
beyond treatment day 3
22
Most sensitive clinical finding for CLABSI?
Fever is the most sensitive clinical finding
23
Most specific clinical finding for CLABSI?
inflammation or purulence at the insertion site is the most specific.
24
Which blood cultures should be drawn if CLABSI is suspected?
paired blood cultures drawn from the catheter (at least one hub/port) and from a peripheral vein
25
If peripheral blood sampling is unavailable, which cultures?
at least two blood cultures be obtained through different catheter hubs/ports.
26
What should be considered in every confirmed CLABSI?
Catheter removal should be considered in all patients with a confirmed CLABSI.
27
Which empiric agents are preferred for CLABSI?
Vancomycin or daptomycin are preferred; linezolid should not be used for empiric management of CLABSI.
28
What antifungal class is considered for candidemia risk in CLABSI?
Use of an echinocandin (eg, anidulafungin, caspofungin, or micafungin)
29
When does the antimicrobial treatment-duration clock start?
first day of negative blood culture.
30
Treatment duration for complicated CLABSI?
4–6 weeks; 6–8 weeks for osteomyelitis.
31
Treatment duration for uncomplicated CoNS CLABSI after catheter removal?
5–7 days if the catheter is removed.
32
Treatment duration for uncomplicated S. aureus CLABSI?
a minimum of 14 days.
33
Treatment duration for Candida CLABSI?
at least 14 days.
34
What is the primary role of antibiotic lock therapy in CLABSI?
primarily for catheter salvage.
35
Duration of uncomplicated Enterococcus CLABSI therapy?
7–14 days.
36
What does pyuria without symptoms indicate about CAUTI?
Pyuria without signs and symptoms does not indicate CAUTI;
37
What does absent pyuria suggest in symptomatic patients?
absence of pyuria in a symptomatic patient suggests a diagnosis other than CAUTI.
38
From where should urine cultures NOT be collected?
Samples from the catheter collection system (e.g., catheter bag) should be avoided
39
What catheter duration triggers removal or replacement in suspected CAUTI?
longer than 2 weeks, the catheter should be removed or, if still indicated, replaced
40
When should urine culture be obtained relative to CAUTI antibiotics?
before initiation of antimicrobial therapy.
41
CAUTI duration if signs and symptoms resolve within 72 hours?
7 days for patients with resolution of signs and symptoms within 72 hours
42
CAUTI duration if signs and symptoms resolve after 72 hours?
up to 14 days in patients with resolution after 72 hours.
43
Complicated intra-abdominal infection
infection that extends beyond the hollow viscus of origin into the peritoneal space and is associated with either abscess formation or peritonitis.
44
Primary peritonitis
peritonitis related to bacterial translocation of proximal small bowel overgrowth and not peritoneal disruption or organ perforation.
45
What causes secondary peritonitis?
leakage of intraluminal fluid and microorganisms secondary to macro- or microperforation of the GI tract.
46
Tertiary peritonitis
peritonitis that persists or recurs at least 48 hours after the management of primary or secondary peritonitis.
47
Is secondary peritonitis usually mono- or polymicrobial?
Secondary peritonitis is typically polymicrobial
48
Source control for diffuse peritonitis?
operative diversion or resection
49
Source control for focal peritonitis?
percutaneous abscess and fluid drainage.
50
What does mild-moderate community-acquired cIAI empiric therapy cover?
aerobic and facultative enteric gram-negative bacilli and enteric streptococci.
51
When is obligate anaerobic coverage indicated in cIAI?
distal small bowel, appendiceal, or colonic sources.
52
First-line empiric regimen for low-risk community-acquired cIAI?
Either ceftriaxone or cefotaxime in combination with metronidazole (generally considered first line)
53
Are empiric anti-enterococcal and antipseudomonal agents advised in low-risk cIAI?
Anti-enterococcal and antipseudomonal therapies are not recommended.
54
Health care–associated cIAI empiric therapy should cover what?
MDR Gram negative bacilli (e.g., P. aeruginosa) and obligate anaerobes.
55
Which antifungals are first line in critically ill patients when indicated for cIAI?
Echinocandins should be used first line in critically ill patients until final culture results are available.
56
Recommended cIAI antibiotic duration after source control (SIS 2024)?
limiting antimicrobial therapy to 4 days after achieving source control
57
Suggested maximum course in critically ill cIAI after source control (SIS 2024)?
limiting antimicrobial therapy to 8 days in critically ill patients after achieving source control
58
Severe pancreatitis
pancreatitis associated with organ failure that persists for more than 48 hours.
59
Infected pancreatic necrosis
presence of pathogenic microorganisms in the necrotic tissue.
60
How many diagnostic features are required for acute pancreatitis?
two of the following three features:
61
What lipase/amylase threshold supports acute pancreatitis diagnosis?
greater than 3 times the upper limit of normal
62
Preferred feeding route if oral feeding is not possible in pancreatitis?
enteral nutrition by nasogastric or nasojejunal access over parenteral nutrition.
63
When is empiric antibiotic therapy indicated in acute pancreatitis?
suspected or confirmed infected necrosis or pancreatic abscess.
64
Preferred broad-spectrum antibiotics for infected pancreatic necrosis?
Piperacillin-tazobactam or broad-spectrum carbapenems (e.g., imipenem; meropenem)
65
When should antifungal treatment be added for infected pancreatitis?
if yeast is identified on culture Gram stain.
66
Which imaging finding supports acute pancreatitis diagnosis?
Characteristic findings of acute pancreatitis on CT scan or magnetic resonance imaging.
67
Are prophylactic antibiotics routinely advised for sterile necrotizing pancreatitis?
do not support routine use of prophylactic antibiotic or antifungal therapy in patients with sterile necrotizing pancreatitis.
68
Definitive antibiotic duration for confirmed infected pancreatitis?
up to 14 days.
69
C. difficile
a spore-forming, anaerobic, gram-positive bacillus.
70
What are the primary toxins produced by C. difficile?
C. difficile toxin A (TcdA) and C. difficile toxin B (TcdB).
71
What WBC cutoff defines severe CDI?
WBC 15 x 103 cells/mm3 or greater
72
What creatinine threshold defines severe CDI?
1.5 times or greater than the premorbid level
73
Which findings distinguish fulminant CDI from severe CDI?
Hypotension or evidence of shock; Ileus; Megacolon
74
What is the most important CDI risk factor?
Antibiotic therapy is the most important risk factor.
75
Which antibiotic classes have the highest CDI risk (decreasing order)?
clindamycin, fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins/carbapenems, and penicillins.
76
Diarrhea threshold in CDI clinical diagnosis?
three or more unformed stools within 24 consecutive hours.
77
Which stool specimens should be tested for CDI?
only be performed on unformed stool unless patients have ileus.
78
What is the role of unnecessary acid suppression in CDI prevention?
Discontinue unnecessary gastric acid–reducing pharmacotherapy.
79
What is the sensitivity limitation of toxin A/B EIA?
poor sensitivity may limit their utility.
80
Why should NAAT be limited to patients with CDI symptoms?
risk of potential false-positive results.
81
Testing approach if no institutional criteria for CDI stool quality exist?
multistep laboratory process that includes a toxin test (e.g., NAAT plus toxin assay)
82
IDSA/SHEA 2021 preferred initial therapy for nonfulminant CDI?
fidaxomicin as first-line therapy for first episode, non-fulminant CDI
83
Vancomycin dose for uncomplicated/nonfulminant CDI?
125 mg four times daily for uncomplicated/nonfulminant CDI
84
When is IV metronidazole primarily recommended for CDI?
in addition to oral vancomycin for the treatment of severe-complicated/fulminant CDI.
85
How useful is a stool test of cure after CDI resolution?
Results of stool testing for C. difficile in patients with resolution of disease do not predict recurrence.
86
Fidaxomicin regimen for initial nonfulminant CDI?
Fidaxomicin 200 mg PO/NG/FT BID for 10 days
87
Oral vancomycin regimen for initial nonfulminant CDI?
Vancomycin 125 mg PO/NG/FT 4 times daily for 10 days
88
Fulminant CDI - recommended vancomycin and IV metronidazole regimen?
Vancomycin 500 mg PO/NG/FT 4 times daily + metronidazole 500 mg IV TID
89
Preferred treatment of first CDI recurrence after vancomycin or metronidazole?
Recommend fidaxomicin for first recurrence after initial course of vancomycin or metronidazole
90
Bezlotoxumab dose used as adjunct therapy for recurrent CDI?
Bezlotoxumab 10 mg/ kg IV once during administration of above antibiotics
91
FMT role for multiple recurrent CDI?
Recommend fecal microbiota transplant (FMT) to prevent further recurrences
92
Which pain finding raises concern for necrotizing fasciitis?
Severe pain that seems disproportional to the appearance of the wound
93
What is the foundation of treatment for confirmed postoperative wound infection?
Opening of the incision, evacuation of the infected material, and continued dressing changes
94
Are antibiotics necessary for mild superficial incisional infection without systemic signs?
No antibiotic therapy necessary
95
How often is necrotic tissue debrided in necrotizing fasciitis?
every 24–48 hours
96
Which gram-positive agent is part of empiric necrotizing fasciitis therapy?
Vancomycin or linezolid
97
Which broad-spectrum options accompany MRSA coverage for necrotizing fasciitis?
Piperacillin/tazobactam, broad-spectrum carbapenem, or cefepime plus metronidazole
98
What is the role of clindamycin in suspected S. pyogenes necrotizing fasciitis?
potential decrease in pathogenic toxin and cytokine production
99
When can antibiotic therapy stop in necrotizing fasciitis?
until surgical debridement is no longer necessary and until resolution of infection-related signs and symptoms.
100
What is the primary prevention strategy for influenza?
Annual vaccination remains the primary tool for influenza prevention.
101
What should follow a negative rapid influenza diagnostic test?
viral culture or RT-PCR.
102
When should antiviral treatment ideally begin?
within 48 hours from onset of symptoms.
103
How late may antiviral treatment be started in critically ill influenza patients?
even 5 days after symptoms in critically ill patients.
104
Which antivirals are the mainstay of treatment for recent influenza A and B?
Neuraminidase inhibitors continue to be the mainstay of antiviral therapy for recent influenza A and B strains.
105
Preferred antiviral for hospitalized severe influenza?
Oseltamivir is the drug of choice for hospitalized patients with severe influenza.
106
Can oseltamivir be administered via OG/NG tube?
Oseltamivir can be administered to critically ill patients by orogastric or nasogastric tube.
107
What was corticosteroid use associated with in adult influenza?
increased hospital mortality in adult patients
108
Are adamantanes viable for contemporary influenza?
they are not viable options for the management of contemporary influenza.
109
Standard oseltamivir dose and duration for influenza?
75 mg twice a day for 5 days
110
How long may therapy be needed in severe influenza?
Longer durations of up to 14 days may be needed for severely ill patients.
111
What virus causes COVID-19?
SARS-CoV-2
112
What test confirms COVID-19 in the chapter?
COVID-19 diagnosis is confirmed using RT-PCR.
113
What is the recommended COVID-19 dexamethasone dose and course?
6 mg per day orally or intravenously for up to 10 days or until hospital discharge
114
What oxygen-support group receives prophylactic heparin per the chapter?
Hospitalized patients requiring high-flow oxygen, noninvasive or invasive mechanical ventilation, or ECMO should receive prophylactic heparin.
115
Tocilizumab
Anti-IL-6 receptor monoclonal antibody
116
Tocilizumab REMAP-CAP dose and maximum?
tocilizumab 8 mg/kg actual body weight (max of 800 mg)
117
What is baricitinib’s immunomodulatory drug class?
Baricitinib: Janus kinase inhibitor
118
Can baricitinib be administered through enteral tubes?
Baricitinib can be administered orally or via oral dispersion or gastrostomy or nasogastric tube.
119
Baricitinib dose used in the COV-BARRIER trial?
baricitinib 4 mg/day (renally-adjusted as necessary) orally
120
What is remdesivir’s mechanism described in the chapter?
binds to viral RNA polymerase, terminating RNA transcription and inhibiting viral replication.
121
What remdesivir dose is listed for hospitalized COVID-19?
200 mg intravenously once, then 100 mg intravenously daily for 5 days
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