1What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation?
A Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user
B Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud
C Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud
D Selects business units for activation
Answer : D Selects business units for activation
2How can a marketer change attribute names to match personalization in an Activation Target?
A Update field names in data model
B Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation target
C Update attributes names in the data stream configuration
D Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
D Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
3What permission setting should an admin check if the custom CRM object is not accessible from CDP?
A Create object permission enabled in CDP org
B Read object permission enabled in Source CRM Org
C Modify all object permission enabled in CDP org
D View All object permission enabled in Source CRM org
D View All object permission enabled in Source CRM org
4What Salesforce CDP API enables simultaneous retrieve of customer profile along with their calculated insights?
A Profile API
B Query API
C Calculated Insights API
D Metadata API
A Profile API
5Which two features can be used to validate the data in the unified profile object? (2 answers)
A Query API
B Data Explorer
C Segmentation
D Identity Reconciliation
B Data Explorer
D Identity Reconciliation
6Which three types of data can Identity Resolution combine into a unified Profile?
A Corporate Performance
B Behavioral
C Transactional
D Product
E Profile
B Behavioral
C Transactional
E Profile
7MULTIPLE: In addition to email, which three attributes are available on the interface of ....
A Social Handle
B Government ID
C First and Last Name
D Phone Number
E Address
C First and Last Name
D Phone Number
E Address
8What is the first step in the two step process to ingest data from SFMC to Salesforce CDP?
A Extract marketing Cloud data to customer owned S3 bucket
B Extract Marketing cloud data to Salesforce owned SFTP
C Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket
D Extract Marketing Cloud data to customer owned SFTP
C Extract Marketing Cloud data to Salesforce owned S3 bucket
9How should an admin view past processing for resolution rules in Identity Resoultion?
A Run History
B Audit History list view
C View processing Audit Trail
D Click on view history
D Click on view history
10What result will a segmentation filtering on City | Is Equal To | 'San Jos' return?
A Values containing San Jos', San Jose only
B Values containing San Jose', san jose only
C Values containing San Jos', San Jose, san jos, san jose
D Values containing San Jos', san jos only
D Values containing San Jos', san jos only
11What are the two refresh models available for a cloud storage data stream?
A Update
B Upsert
C Append
D Full Refresh
B Upsert
D Full Refresh
12Salesforce CDP creates automations in SFMC automation studio to support data ingestion. Under which all these automations be created?
A All business unites (BUs) in the Account used for sending
B All selected business unites (BUs) during mapping
C Top-level (ENT) business unit only
D All business units (BUs) in the Account including Top-Level (ENT) business unit
D All business units (BUs) in the Account including Top-Level (ENT) business unit
13Which data model type in Salesforce CDP defines interactions with party?
A. Sales Order
B. Transaction
C. Engagement
D. Individual
C. Engagement
14What modeling format describe the Individual and Contact Point objects?
A. Jagged
B. Normalized
C. Compress
D. De-Normalized
B. Normalized
15Which field in the recommended source schema is not editable?
A. Field Label
B. Field API Name
C. Header Label
D. Data Type
C. Header Label
16How many Salesforce orgs can an administrator connect to Salesforce CDP?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 10
D. No hard limit
D. No hard limit
17Which Salesforce CDP use case merges customer information from various systems to create a single Id, a single record for a customer?
A. Audience Segmentation
B. Consent Management
C. Data Unification
D. Identity Resolution
D. Identity Resolution
18The purchase order number field is specified as text. What value will be segmenting on 0852 retrieve?
A Purchase order number will be NULL
B Purchase order number 852
C Purchase order number 0852
D Purchase order number 852 and 0852
CPurchase order number 0852
19MULTIPLE: In which two ways can a marketer include campaign name from an external system into the
segment?
A Include campaign code in segment name
B Include campaign code in activation name
C Include campaign code in activation description
D Include campaign code in filename specification
A Include campaign code in segment name
B Include campaign code in activation name
20MULTIPLE: How can an administrator check segment publishing status?
A Segments publish summary dashboard
B Publish History related list in Activation Record
C Segments publish history report
D Publish History related list in Segment Record
B Publish History related list in Activation Record
D Publish History related list in Segment Record
21What is customizable in Salesforce CDP canonical model?
A Objects
B Objects & Fields
C Fields
D Objects, Fields & relationships
D Objects, Fields & relationships
22Which operator can be used to find individuals whose loyalty is gold, platinum or
higher?
A Is In
B Is between
C Is less than or equal to
D Is greater than
A Is In
23How can records in a Data Stream object be updated?
A Using the edit data stream feature
B Using data explorer
C Using API
D Using a new source file
A Using the edit data stream feature
24What type of dates collected by a company or entity that does not have a direct relationship with the visitor and customer?
A First Party Data
B Second Party Data
C Partner Data
D Third Party Data
D Third Party Data
25Which configuration supports separate AWS S3 buckets for data ingestion and activation?
A Dedicated S3 data source configuration in Activation Setup
B Dedicated S3 data source configuration in CDP setup
C Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target
D Separate user credentials for data stream and activation
C Separate user credentials for data stream and activation target
26What type of measures with aggregate functions are supported?
A Numeric
B Date
C Text
B Boolean
A Numeric
27What is the process called of Cleaning, Deduplicating, Merging data into a single ID?
A Data Mining
B Data Unification
C Data Cleansing
B Data Unification
28MULTIPLE: Which two Interaction Studio features are updated with activation from Salesforce CDP?
A Segments
B Promotions
C Event Data
D Profile attributes
A Segments
D Profile attributes
29What is the relationship between Individual and Contact Point Objects?
A Many:Many
B None of the above
C 1:Many
D 1:1
C 1:Many
30Which data model defines the complete set of experiences that customers go through when interacting with a company?
A Engagement Data Model
B Case Data Model
C Journey Data Model
D Party Data Model
C Journey Data Model
31Which Steps should an administrator take if a successfully configured cloud storage data stream fails to refresh with a NO FILE FOUND error message?
A Check if the file exists in S3 bucket
B Check permissions are configured for the CDP user
C Check permissions are configured for the S3 user
D Check if cloud storage data source is enabled in CDP setup
A Check if the file exists in S3 bucket
B Check permissions are configured for the CDP user
32How do the Data streams that use the Marketing Cloud Connector refresh data?
A Manually refreshed by CDP Admin
B Marketing Cloud's Automation Studio handles this process
C APIs are used for refresh
D None of the above
B Marketing Cloud's Automation Studio handles this process
33MULTIPLE: What are two root causes to why companies face fragmented data issues?
A Department silos
B Employees working from home
C Misaligned business goals
D No eCommerce websites
A Department silos
C Misaligned business goals
34Which 2 characteristics describe the CIM (Cloud Information Model)?
A Product sold by salesforce
B Conceptual model
C Statistical model
D Canonical model
B Conceptual model
D Canonical model
35What are the two options for the publishing schedule of segments?
A Don't Refresh
B Data Stream schedule
C 12 or 24 hours
D Activation Schedule
A Don't Refresh
C 12 or 24 hours
36How many marketing cloud EIDs can be connected to Salesforce CDP?
A 3
B 5
C 1
D 2
A 3
37Which function does the Copy SOQL button perform in Data Explorer?
A Copy SOQL for any formula fields in that object
B Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard and export
C Copy SOQL for data export from Salesforce CDP
D Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard
B Copy SOQL for the current data view to clipboard and export
38A marketer needs to create several segments with similar filter criteria for multiple brands. How can marketer create these segments as efficiently as possible?
A Use and attribute filter feature in activation
B Create a segment and clone via API for each brand
C Create a reusable container block with common criteria
D Create a segment and copy for each brand
D Create a segment and copy for each brand
39A developer wants to create a segment for a birthday campaign which is refreshed every day and activated. Which operator should he use?
A Is Birthday
B Is This Year
C Is Anniversary Of
D Is Between
C Is Anniversary Of
40What configuration step has to be completed before marketing cloud activation?
A.Assign Salesforce CDP activation permission set to the user
B.Enable segment publishing to marketing cloud
C.Allow audience creation from CDP in marketing cloud
D.Selects business units for activation
D.Selects business units for activation
41How can a marketer change attribute names to match personalization in an Activation Target?
A.Update field names in data model
B.Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation target
C.Update attributes names in the data stream configuration
D.Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
D.Set preferred attribute names when configuring activation
42Where are activated segments found in Marketing Cloud?
A.Filtered Data Extensions
B.Standard Data Extension
C.Shared Data Extension
D.Salesforce Data Extensions
C.Shared Data Extension
43Which permission set allows the user to create, manage and publish segments in Salesforce CDP?
A.Salesforce CDP Admin
B.Salesforce CDP Data aware specialist
C.Salesforce CDP Marketing Manager
D.Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist
D.Salesforce CDP Marketing Specialist
44What should be the type of the Event Time Field while ingesting Engagement data?
Mutable
Inconsistent
Immutable
None of the above
Immutable
45What is the maximum number of filter criteria a segment can have?
10
50
500
99
50
46What does the ignore empty value option do in Identity Resolution?
Ignores empty reconciliation rules
Replaces the value with a null
Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation
Modified the value in the field with a predefined value
Ignores empty fields when running reconciliation
47How long does it take for the suggested values to be visible after being enabled?
Up to 1 week
Up to 24 hours
Instantly
Up to 48 hours
Up to 24 hours
48MULTIPLE: What are the two benefits of using Calculated Insights compared to Segmentation Criteria?
It creates reusable content
Performs complex queries across multiple objects.
Simple logic on row-based operations
Friendly drag & drop interface
It creates reusable content
Performs complex queries across multiple objects.
49Which two dependencies can prevent a Data Stream from being deleted?
A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model Object
A data stream attribute is used in Segmentation
A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insights
A data stream attribute is used in Activation
A data stream attribute is mapped to a Data Model Object
A data stream attribute is used in Calculated Insights
50How many calculated insights can be created per tenant?
5
10
50
100
100
51How can a Data Subject Rights request from a customer be submitted to Salesforce CDP?
Using the consent API
Using a dedicated field in data stream
Using a dedicated data stream
Using Data Exp7orer
Using the consent API
52How many Business Units under the same Enterprise ID (EID) can be connected for data ingestion?
1
4
10
No hard limit
No hard limit
53What is the max limit of records can be retrieved by the Profile and Query API in a single call?
2000
9999
4999
No max limit
4999
54How many Metrics can be present in 1 segment container?
1
5
10
100
1
55How does an admin increase the consolidation rate for identity resolution?
A. Add more matching rules to broaden the search of matches
B. Change the ignore empty value option
C. Change all reconciliation rules to source sequence
D. Reduce the number of matching rules
A. Add more matching rules to broaden the search of matches
56Which two CRM objects are included in both Sales and Service Cloud Data Bundle?
Campaign Member
Contact
Opportunity
Account
Contact
Account
57What does the source sequence reconciliation rule do in Identity Resolution?
Source data from disparate systems across the enterprise.wrong
Reconcile data by data that's most frequent across records.
Sort data sources in order of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile.
Includes data from sources where the data is alphanumerically sequenced.
Sort data sources in order of most to least preferred for inclusion in Unified Profile.
58What is the result of a segment using two separate containers linked by an AND: SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = 'Yellow' AND SalesOrder.PurchasedItem = 'Belt'?
Customer who purchased only 'Yellow Belt' items on the purchase.
Customer who purchased any yellow product and also purchased belt of any color.
Customer who purchased 'Yellow Belt' as a single product on the purchase.
Customer who purchased 'Yellow Belt', or any 'yellow' item, or any 'belt' items on the purchase
Customer who purchased any yellow product and also purchased belt of any color.
59Which CDP objects are available as tables via the Tableau connector to discover new insights about customers?
Calculated insights
Data Model Objects
All Objects
Unified Profile
All Objects
60What three things happen when an admin clicks on identity resolution deletion?
A Deletes all custom data model objects
B Removes all unified customer data
C Resets all settings in identity resolution
D Eliminates dependencies on data model object
B Removes all unified customer data
C Resets all settings in identity resolution
D Eliminates dependencies on data model object
61Which of the following functions returns the first value from a list that isn't empty?
CONCAT
COALESCE
REPLACE
FIND
COALESCE
62What are the two steps of data ingestion in Salesforce CDP?
Map ingested data to existing ingested data objects.
Map ingested data to data model with consistent semantics.
Preserve data per source schema with ingestion to data lake.
Establish a connection with the source data via REST API
Map ingested data to data model with consistent semantics.
Preserve data per source schema with ingestion to data lake.
63In addition to Unified Individual Object, what other object does Salesforce CDP automatically create and manage during the Identity Resolution process?
Unified Lead Objects
Unified Contact Point Objects
Unified Order Objects
Unified Product Objects
Unified Contact Point Objects
64Which two types of data can be ingested from Interaction Studio using the connector?
Product Catalog
Behavioral Events
User Profile
Segment Membership
Behavioral Events
User Profile
65What is the maximum limit of the number of records for Full Refresh Extract Method?
10 million
40 million
50 million
No hard limit
50 million
66When can the data types be changed during ingestion?
After the DSO is created
Before DSO is created
Data type can never be changed
Data type can be changed at any time
Before DSO is created
67Which datatype is not supported in Salesforce CDP?
Date
Boolean
Text
Number
Boolean
68How many days of historical data is loaded when B2C Commerce Data Stream is created from the Order Bundle?
90 days
60 days
30 days
10 days
30 days
69Which CDP permission set manages the overall segmentation strategy and identifies the target campaigns?
A Marketing specialist
B IT manager
C Marketing manager
D Data Aware Specialist
C Marketing manager
70What must CDP admin user do first when setting up users in CDP?
Options:
A Creates profile for each CDP user role
B Assign permission sets
C Configure Data Source
D Set up each use as admin
A Creates profile for each CDP user role
71What should a Marketer do first when implementing Salesforce CDP?
Options:
A Manage Consent
B Identify Data Sources
C Obtain Cross-organizational buy-in
D Identify Activation Targets
B Identify Data Sources
72Which permission set needs to be added to the salesforce CRM object to be available in Salesforce CDP
Options:
A Salesforce CDP external connector
B Salesforce External Integration
C Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration
D Salesforce External Connector
C Salesforce CDP Salesforce Connector Integration
73Which of the following are characteristics of Formulas? (Choose 2)
Options:
A Simple logic on a row-based operation
B Ease of use, self-service
C Highly reusable content
D Attribute updated regularly
A Simple logic on a row-based operation
C Highly reusable content
74What is a DMO called if it inherits the name, shape, and semantics of the reference object?
Options:
A Custom DMO
B Standard DMO
C Data Lake Object (DLO)
D Data Source Object (DSO)
B Standard DMO
75What happens if no file name is specified in AWS S3 data stream during ingestion?
Options:
A The system does not fetch any file and the data stream shows an error.
B The system chooses the first file found in the S3 bucket
C The ingestion setup can't be completed without specifying the filename.
D The ingestion setup is completed but the data stream shows 0 records
B The system chooses the first file found in the S3 bucket
76MULTIPLE CHOICE
Which archive formats are supported by Salesforce CDP?
Options:
A CSV
B GZ
C TSV
D ZIP
B GZ
D ZIP
77What are 2 options to stop a segment from publishing?
Options:
A Disable
B Skip
C Unpublish
D Delete
A Disable
D Delete
78How is Restriction of Processing request handled in segmentation?
Options:
A Restricts data processing on all entities
B Restricts data processing while saving the segment
C Restricts data processing for individual and unified individual profile
D Restricts data processing during activation
C Restricts data processing for individual and unified individual profile
79MULTIPLE: Which dependencies need to be removed before a data stream can be deleted?
Options:
A Data Model
B Segmentation
C Calculated Insights
D Activation
A Data Model
C Calculated Insights
80MULTIPLE: Which two features are impacted by the Time zone setting in CDP instance? [Corrected]
Options:
A Ingestion Schedule
B Activation Schedule
C Identity Resolution publish schedule
D Segmentation schedule
B Activation Schedule
D Segmentation schedule
81MULTIPLE: Which two file types are available for Cloud Storage activation?
Options:
A .json
B .csv
C .xls
D .zip
A .json
B .csv
82How often does subscriber data from Marketing Cloud Bundles refresh?
Options:
A Every 12 hours
B Every 15 mins
C Hourly
D Daily
C Hourly
83Which two files are created in Cloud Storage bucket after segment is published?
Options:
A File with the security credentials
B File containing calculated insights
C File containing segment definition
D File containing segment members with additional attributes
C File containing segment definition
D File containing segment members with additional attributes
84How many CRM orgs can be connected to CDP instance?
Options:
A 5
B 10
C 20
D No hard limit
D No hard limit
85In Salesforce CRM, the customer has a custom 'Customer_Email__c' object related to
standard 'Contact' object. Which CDP data model object do you map it to?
Options:
A Contact
B Custom 'Customer_Email' object
C Contact Point Email
D Individual
C Contact Point Email
86Data from which object will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or Right to be
forgotten request
Options:
A Individual and all related entities in data model
B Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
C Unified individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
D Unified individual and all related entities in data model
D Unified individual and all related entities in data model
87Which user role manages the data model and creates Identity Resolution rulesets for unified profiles?
A Marketing Specialist
B Data Aware Specialist
C Admin
D Marketing Manager
B Data Aware Specialist
88Which operator can be used to check if an attribute value in blank?
A. Is Empty
B. Is Null
C. Is Not Null
D. Has No Value
A. Is Empty
89What is the recommendation for activation when multiple data sources are brought into CDP?
A. Activate on Individual
B. Do not use Identity Resolution
C. Activate based on source identifiers
D. Use Identity Resolution and activate on Unified Individual
D. Use Identity Resolution and activate on Unified Individual
90Where do calculated insights appear in the segmentation attribute library?
A. They always appear in Related Attributes
B. They appear under Profile type objects
C. They always appear in Direct Attributes
D. They appear under the objects that were used to create them
D. They appear under the objects that were used to create them
91Which data model in Salesforce CDP defines the future revenue or quantity for an opportunity of the product family?
A. Party
B. Product
C. Engagement
D. Sales Order
A. Party
92Which formula function should a Data Specialist use to create composite key if the primary key is not available in the data stream?
A. UUID
B. SUBTITUTE
C. COALESCE
D. CONCATE
D. CONCATE
93Which Salesforce CDP use case drives acquisition of new customers based on first party data?
Universal Suppression across known channels
Loyalty Segmentation
Prospective Look-a-Likes with paid media
Post-purchase
Prospective Look-a-Likes with paid media
94What can cause a published schedule to be skipped?
Segment criteria is not correct
Activation schedule is paused
Segment has 0 records
Too many schedules at same time
Too many schedules at same time
95Where does Data Specialist enable value suggestion on an attribute for segmentation?
Segment Setup
Data Mapping
Data Modeling
Data Stream Setup
Segment Setup
96What is the purpose of Identity Resolutions?
Increase the size of your mailable customer list
Perform data hygiene on large data set
Build a cohesive, omnichannel view of customers
Drive more revenue through ecommerce channels
Build a cohesive, omnichannel view of customers
97What value will segmenting on Purchase order number | is equal to | 0122 return?
Purchase order number 122
Purchase order number 0122
Purchase order number 0122 and 122
Purchase order number NULL
Purchase order number 0122
98How many Marketing Cloud instances, or Enterprise IDs can be connected to one Salesforce CDP org?
Two
Four
One
Three
One
99What is the primary object for an Organization, Individual, Affiliation Group, Member in the Cloud Information Model?
A. Individual
B. Global Account
C. Party
D. Membership
C. Party
100which type of insight is best suited to analyze clickstream data every 5 minutes
a. einstein
b. streaming
c. calculated
b. streaming
101which of the following reflects the correct order of the CDP setup process flow?
a. configure admin user, provision CDP, create profiles and configure addit. users, connect to relevant SF clouds
b. connect to relevant SF clouds, provision CDP, configure admin user, create profiles and configure addit. users
c. provision CDP, connect to relevant SF clouds, configure admin user
d. create profiles and configure addit. user, provision CDP, connect to relevant SF clouds, provision CDP
a. configure admin user, provision CDP, create profiles and configure addit. users, connect to relevant SF clouds
102Which three features can be used to validate the data in the unified profile object? [Answer need confirmation]
AQuery API
BData Explorer
CSegmentation
DIdentity Reconciliation
B Data Explorer C Segmentation D Indentity Reconciliation
103Which data bundle sources are available out of the box to create Data Streams from Marketing Cloud?
A. Email, MobileConnect and MobilePush
B. Email only
C. Email and MobileConnect
D. Email, MobileConnect, MobilePush and GroupConnect
A. Email, MobileConnect and MobilePush
104Which of the following cannot be used in Segmentation? (Choose 2)max numbers of attributes on a segment
A. Date Time Measures
B. Numeric Measures
C. Aggregate Functions
D. Text Measures
A. Date Time Measures
D. Text Measures
105What data model object category can a marketer create segments on?
A. Profile
B. Unified Individual Only
C. Other
D. Engagement
A. Profile
106Data from which object will be deleted when processing a Data Deletion or Right to be forgotten request
A. Individual and all related entities in data model
B. Unified individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
C. Individual, all related entities in data model and mapped data streams
D. Unified individual and all related entities in data model
D. Unified individual and all related entities in data model
107How many attributes can a data specialist enable value suggestion on?
Value suggestions can be enabled for up to 500 attributes for your entire org.
108Each segment can have up to _____ attributes and each attribute can have up to 10 nested operators
50
A Segment can contain up to 20 filters
109Which of these is present in Identity Resolution Summary?
A. Unified Individuals
B. Last Processing Status
C. Matched Individuals
D. All the above
D. All the above
110Which authentication type is supported for Cloud File storage activation target?
A. Using private key certificate
B. Using encrypted username and password
C. Using access and secret keys
D. Using JWT token
C. Using access and secret keys
111What role in a company was Salesforce CDP designed for?
A. Developer
B. Marketer
C salesperson
D data analyst
B. Marketer
112What two steps required when setting up a Marketing Cloud activation?
A. Set publish schdule
B Choose an Activation Target
C Set subscriber key field
D Elect the Email Contact Point
B Choose an Activation Target
D Elect the Email Contact Point
113Which two files are activated to Cloud file storage to publish segment?
A A file that contains security credentials
B A file that contains the segment definition
C A file that contains the segment members with additional attributes
D A file that contains calculated insights
B A file that contains the segment definition
C A file that contains the segment members with additional attributes
114What programming language is used to configure Calculated Insights?
A Python
B SOQL
C ANSI SOQL
D CDL
C ANSI SOQL
115What two dependencies need to be removed prior to disconnecting a data source?
A Activation Target
B Data Stream
C Segment
D Activation
B Data Stream
C Segment
116Which of these three CRM objects do reconciliation rules operate across?
A Contact
B Party Identification
C Individual
D Lead
E Contact Point Email
B Party Identification
C Individual
E Contact Point Email
117Which three Object types are available under Data Explorer?
A Data Source Object
B Data Model Object
C Segment Objects
D Data Extensions
E Calculated Insights
A Data Source Object
B Data Model Object
E Calculated Insights
118What is the correct formula to display the value of the raw data column of "Revenue" plus a 5% margin?
A SELECT (['Revenue']*1.05)
B SELECT (['revenue']*1.05)
C sourceField(['Revenue']*1.05)
D sourceField(['revenue'}*1.05)
C sourceField(['Revenue']*1.05)
119identify 3 use cases best suited for calculated insights
a. customer lifetime value
b. service & support
c. affinity score
d. financial services
e. recency frequency monetary
a. customer lifetime value
c. affinity score
e. recency frequency monetary
120which CDP feature helps calculate reusable attributes like customer lifetime value and customer satisfaction score?
a. tableau connector
b. einstein score
c. segments
d. calculated insights
d. calculated insights
121where are you allowed to select/deselect account fields and update the field label and field API name for a data stream
a. on the account schema review dialog page
b. on the data bundles tab
c. within the data bundle configuration detail page
a. on the account schema review dialog page
122during data stream configuration, which attributes of the CRM object field can be updated at the schema review step? select 2
a. field name
b. field API name
c. data type
d. header label
a. field name
b. field API name
123what would you use to package a CRM data stream directly from CDP?
a. data kit
b. managed package
c. CDP setup
d. calculated insights
a. data kit
124What step is done first when setup a CDP?
1
Update your admin user.
An email is sent to admins with account login information. Once you log in for the first time you need to reset your password and add the admin permission set to your user.
2
Provision Customer Data Platform.
Complete the setup of your account in the CDP Setup page.
3
Create profiles, users, and add permission sets.
Profiles and permission sets help you manage the access users have in Customer Data Platform.
4
Connect to Marketing Cloud.
Connect with a Marketing Cloud account using admin credentials.
5
Select appropriate data bundles and business units in Marketing Cloud.
Data bundles are pre-modeled standardized data sets. For Marketing Cloud these are based on email and mobile channels.