AAOS 12th Edition ECTSI - Chapter 10 Section 2 Study Guide

C) apply direct pressure to the wound.
A palpable pulse is created by:
A) the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the arteries.
B) electrical conduction in the heart producing ventricular contraction.
C) pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

C) pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
An elderly patient has fallen and hit her head. Your initial care should focus on:
A) gathering medical history data.
B) obtaining baseline vital signs.
C) providing immediate transport.

D) airway, breathing, and circulation.
During an EMS call, you should take standard precautions:
A) before you load the patient into the ambulance.
B) after it has been determined that the patient is bleeding.
C) before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.

C) before exiting the ambulance and before actual patient contact.
Reassessment is performed to determine all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) the nature of any newly identified problems.
B) the patient's response to your treatment
C) the reason why the patient called EMS.

C) the reason why the patient called EMS
The chief complaint is MOST accurately defined as the:
A) most serious thing the patient is concemed about
B) gross physical signs that you detect on assessment
C) condition that exacerbates an underlying problem.

A) most serious thing the patient is concemed about
What maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
A) Tongue-jaw lift
B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
C) Head tilt—neck lift

B) Jaw-thrust maneuver
When approaching a 32-year-old male who is complaining of traumatic neck pain, you should:
A) ensure that the patient can see you approaching him to avoid startling them causing the patient to turn their neck.
B) stand behind him and immediately stabilize his head.
C) approach him from behind and ask him not to move.

A) ensure that the patient can see you approaching him to avoid startling them causing the patient to turn their neck.
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene size-up?
A) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
B) Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
C) Noting the position of a crashed motor vehicle

A) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
C) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears

B) A 61-year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Which of the following statements regarding the mechanism of injury (MOI) is correct?
A) The exact location of a patient's injuries can be determined by the MOL
B) A nonsignificant MOI rules out the possibility of serious trauma.
C) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.

C) The MOI may allow you to predict the severity of a patient's injuries.
You are assessing a 72-year-old man with abdominal pain. The patient is sitting in a chair; he is conscious, alert, and calm As you are talking to the patient, your partner discreetly directs your attention to a handgun, which is located on a nearby table. You should:
A) document the presence of the weapon, including its specific location, and continue your assessment of the patient.
B) immediately cease all patient care, carefully back out of the residence, and request law enforcement assistance.
C) direct your partner to move the gun to a safe area and then advise the patient that his weapon has been secured.

D) position yourself in between the patient and the gun and ask your partner to request law enforcement assistance.
A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be:
A) responsive to verbal stimuli.
B) completely unresponsive.
C) conscious and alert.

D) responsive to painful stimuli.
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
A) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions.
B) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion.
C) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life.

D) identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment.
During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least _______ times
A) 3
B) 420
C) 2

C) 2
In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified?
A) A 53-yeardd man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.
B) A 59-yeardd man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
C) A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.
D) A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath

B) A 59-yeardd man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be:
A) palliating.
B) referred.
C) provoking.

D) radiating.
The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs and ends when:
A) you depart the scene for the hospital.
B) the patient is admitted to the ICU _
C) you arrive at the emergency department.

D) the patient receives definitive care.
The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
A) assess only the parts of the body that are injured.
B) definitively rule out significant internal injuries.
C) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.

C) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.
Which of the following is an example of a symptom?
A) Cyanosis
B) Headache
C) Tachycardia

B) Headache
Which of the following scenarios does NOT involve the presence of any symptoms?
A) A 44-year-old male with abdominal pain and severe dizziness
B) A 49-year-old female with blurred vision and ringing in the ears
C) A 55-year-old male with a severe headache and 2 days of nausea

D) A 61 -year-old female who is unconscious with facial cyanosis
Which of the following actions would NOT be performed during the scene Size-up?
A) Asking a neighbor to secure the patient's dog
B) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
C) Notifying the dispatcher to send fire personnel

B) Rapidly assessing a patient's respiratory status
The MOST effective way to determine whether your patient's problem is medical or traumatic in origin is to:
A) perform a careful and thorough assessment.
B) establish the patient's medical history early.
C) take note of the patient's general appearance.

A) perform a careful and thorough assessment.
The goal of the primary assessment is to:
A) determine if the patient's problem is medical or traumatic.
B) identify patients that require transport to a trauma center.
C) determine the need to perform a head-to-toe assessment.

D) identify and rapidly treat all life-threatening conditions.
Observations made when forming a general impression of a patient would include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
A) appearance.
B) pulse strength.
C) race and gender.

B) pulse strength.
Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to cause an altered level of consciousness?
A) Drug overdose
B) Inadequate perfusion
C) Acute anxiety

C) Acute anxiety
Which of the following patients has signs of an altered mental status?
A) A patient with an acute allergic reaction and dizziness
B) A diabetic who has nausea and severe lightheadedness
C) A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions

C) A patient with a head injury who is slow to answer questions
A patient's short-term memory is MOST likely intact if they correctly answer questions regarding:
A) time and place.
B) day and event.
C) event and person.

B) day and event.
An Injured patient is assigned a total score of 9 on the GCS. He is assigned a score of 2 for eye opening, a score of 3 for verbal response, and a score of 4 for motor response. Which of the following clinical findings is consistent with his GCS score?
A) Opens eyes in response to voice, makes incomprehensible sounds, localizes pain
B) Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
C) Opens eyes spontaneously, is confused when spoken to, exhibits abnormal flexion

B) Opens eyes in response to pain, uses inappropriate words, withdraws from pain
Which of the following pupillary changes would indicate depressed brain function?
A) Both pupils dilate when a bright light is removed.
B) Both pupils constrict when a bright light is introduced.
C) Both pupils react briskly to light instead of sluggishly.

D) Both pupils are sluggish with introduction of a bright light.
For which of the following patients is spinal immobilization clearly indicated?
A) Woman who fell from a standing position and has a deformed shoulder
B) Man with an arrow impaled in his leg and no pulse distal to the injury
C) Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma

C) Man with altered mental status after being exposed to blunt force trauma
Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct?
A) It is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway.
B) It is caused by incorrect airway positioning.
C) It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.

C) It is a high-pitched, crowing upper airway sound.
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
A) Audible breathing
B) Ability to speak
C) Inspiratory stridor

B) Ability to speak
You respond to a call for a female pedestrian who has been struck by a car. As your partner maintains manual stabilization of her head, you perform a primary assessment. She is unconscious, has ineffective breathing, and has bloody secretions in her mouth. You should:
A) assist her breathing with a bag-valve mask.
B) quickly insert an oropharyngeal airway.
C) assess the rate and quality of her pulse.

D) immediately suction her oropharynx.
After performing a head tilt-chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patient who has a pulse, you should:
A) place him or her in the recovery position.
B) provide posjtjye=pressure ventilatory assistance.
C) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity.

D) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct.
A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
A) at a normal rate.
B) with shallow depth.
C) without difficulty.

D) without assistance.
The goal of oxygenation for most patients is an oxygen saturation of:
A) 100%
B) 94% to 99%
C) 90% to 94%

B) 94% to 99%
Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients:
A) who are semiconscious with shallow respirations.
B) with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume.
C) who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing.

D) with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume.
If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately:
A) determine his or her respiratory rate.
B) begin assisting his or her breathing.
C) reevaluate his or her airway status.

C) reevaluate his or her airway status.
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
A) Evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis
B) Applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the Sp02
C) Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope

C) Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
Clinical signs of labored breathing include all pf the following, EXCEPT:
A) shallow chest movement.
B) use of accessory muscles.
C) supraclavicular retractions.

A) shallow chest movement.
Which of the following occurs when a patient's respirations are shallow?
A) Chest rise will be easily noticeable.
B) Tidal volume is markedly reduced.
C) Oxygenation occurs more efficiently.

B) Tidal volume is markedly reduced.
You should suspect that a patient is experiencing respiratory failure if he or she:
A) is restless and is working hard to breathe.
B) has an increased heart rate and retractions.
C) has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.

C) has bradycardia and diminished muscle tone.
A palpable pulse is created by:
A) the pressure of circulating blood against the walls of the veins.
B) the pressure that is caused when venous blood returns to the heart.
C) pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.

C) pressure waves through the arteries caused by cardiac contraction.
You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8-month-old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be to:
A) open the airway and give two rescue breaths.
B) begin chest compressions and request backup.
C) immediately transport the child to the hospital.

D) assess for a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds.
Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal?
A) Anxiety or severe stress
B) Beta blocker medications
C) Internal bleeding from trauma

B) Beta blocker medications
When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should:
A) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy.
B) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four.
C) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two.

D) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading.
When assessing a 62-year-old female with crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:
A) apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm.
B) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
C) document your findings and perform a detailed assessment.

B) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit.
A patient with high blood pressure would be expected to have skin that is:
A) flushed and red.
B) mottled and cool.
C) pale and moist.

A) flushed and red.
A 40-year-old male presents with pain to the right upper quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
A) acute pancreatitis.
B) liver dysfunction.
C) gallbladder disease.

B) liver dysfunction.
With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, capillary refill time is MOST reliable in:
A) patients who are younger than 6 years of age.
B) patients who are significantly hypotensive.
C) patients who were exposed to cold temperatures.

A) patients who are younger than 6 years of age.
You should avoid palpating a patient's pelvis if:
A) the pelvis does not appear deformed.
B) the patient complains of pelvic pain.
C) the MOI suggests trauma to the pelvis.

B) the patient complains of pelvic pain.
A 71-year-old female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious but confused and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. What should you do?
A) Transport her on her left side
B) Transport her in a seated position
C) Treat her for possible shock

C) Treat her for possible shock
When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) subcutaneous emphysema.
B) open wounds or eviscerations.
C) gross bleeding and tenderness.

A) subcutaneous emphysema.
Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport?
A) Mild pain in the lower abdomen
B) Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
C) Decreased ability to move an extremity

B) Severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
As time progresses following a significant injury:
A) the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly.
B) the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable.
C) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding.

D) the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases.
Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to:
A) ask the patient what's wrong.
B) obtain a set of baseline vital signs.
C) assess the patient's airway status.

D) introduce yourself to the patient.
When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by:
A) repeating statements back to him or her.
B) using medical terminology whenever possible.
C) maintaining constant eye contact with him or her.

A) repeating statements back to him or her.
A 50-year-old male is found unconscious in his car. There were no witnesses to the event. When gathering medical history information for this patient, the EMT should:
A) wait for family members to arrive before asking any questions.
B) defer SAMPLE history questions until you arrive at the hospital.
C) determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.

C) determine if the patient has a medical alert bracelet or wallet card.
In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified?
A) A 50-year-old woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse.
B) A 53-year-old man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times.
C) A 56-year-old woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath.

D) A 59-year-old man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath.
When evaluating a patient with multiple complaints, the EMT's responsibility is to:
A) direct his or her attention to the most obvious signs and symptoms.
B) determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life.
C) definitively rule out serious causes of each of the patient's complaints.

B) determine which complaint poses the greatest threat to the patient's life.
Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
A) The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
B) The secondary assessment should be performed route to the hospital, regardless of the severity of the patient's condition.
C) A secondary assessment should always be performed, even if you must continually manage life threats that were identified in the primary assessment.

A) The secondary assessment should focus on a certain area or region of the body as determined by the chief complaint.
Which of the following statements regarding the secondary assessment is correct?
A) If your general impression of a patient does not reveal any obvious life threats, you should proceed directly to the secondary assessment.
B) The purpose of the secondary assessment is to systematically examine every patient from head to toe, regardless of the severity of his or her injury.
C) You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.

C) You may not have time to perform a secondary assessment if you must continually manage life threats that were identified during the primary assessment.
The pulse oximeter is an assessment tool used to evaluate the:
A) quantity of red blood cells.
B) level of carbon dioxide.
C) saturation level of arterial blood.

C) saturation level of arterial blood.
When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that:
A) pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds.
B) carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin.
C) as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress.

D) any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value.
Capnography is used to:
A) determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
B) assess how much oxygen is bound to the hemoglobin.
C) trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock.

A) determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled.
Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions?
A) Focused secondary assessment
B) Assessment of oxygen saturation
C) Systematic head-to-toe examination

C) Systematic head-to-toe examination
The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to:
A) detect and treat all non—life-threatening injuries.
B) assess only the parts of the body that are injured.
C) definitively rule out significant internal injuries.

D) locate injuries not found in the primary assessment.
The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on:
A) stable patients who are able .tp tell you exactly what happened.
B) all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport.
C) responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.

C) responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI.
The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the:
A) apical pulse.
B) systolic pressure.
C) diastolic pressure.

B) systolic pressure.
The diastolic blood pressure represents the:
A) average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle.
B) minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.
C) increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction.

B) minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries.
While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is
140/94 mm Hg. The lower number represents the pressure from the:
A) atria relaxing.
B) atria contracting.
C) ventricles relaxing.

C) ventricles relaxing.
A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a:
A) falsely low systolic and diastolic reading.
B) falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading.
C) falsely high systolic and diastolic reading.

C) falsely high systolic and diastolic reading. - (And for too big: Low Sys and Dia)
Which of the following statements regarding the blood pressure is correct?
A) The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation.
B) Blood pressure falls early in patients with hypoperfusion.
C) Blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion.

D) Blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age.
A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called:
A) crepitus
B) rhonchi.
C) Korotkoff sounds.

D) subcutaneous emphysema.
Reassessment is performed to determine of the following, EXCEPT:
A) the reason why the patient called EMS.
B) the patient's response to your treatment.
C) whether or not the patient is deteriorating.

A) the reason why the patient called EMS.
When performing a reassessment of your patient, you should first:
A) obtain updated vital signs.
B) reassess your interventions.
C) repeat the primary assessment.

C) repeat the primary assessment.

The secondary muscles of respiration. They include the neck muscles (sternocleidomastoids), the chest pectoralis major muscles, and the abdominal muscles.

A change in the way a person thinks and behaves that may signal disease in the central nervous system or elsewhere in the body.

To listen to sounds within an organ with a stethoscope.

A method of assessing the level of consciousness by determining whether the patient is awake and alert, responsive to verbal stimuli or pain, or unresponsive; used principally early in the assessment process.

The pressure that the blood exerts against the walls of the arteries as it passes through them.

A slow heart rate, less than 60 beats/min.

An indication of air movement in the lungs, usually assessed with a stethoscope.

A test that evaluates distal circulatory system function by squeezing (blanching) blood from an area such as a nail bed and watching the speed of its return after releasing the pressure.

A noninvasive method to quickly and efficiently provide information on a patient's ventilatory status, circulation, and metabolism; effectively measures the concentration of carbon dioxide in expired air over time.

A component of air that typically makes up 0.3% of air at sea level; also a waste product exhaled during expiration by the respiratory system.

The reason a patient called for help; also, the patient's response to questions such as "What's wrong?" or "What happened?"

The delicate membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the exposed surface of the eye.

Crackling, rattling breath sounds signaling fluid in the air spaces of the lungs

A grating or grinding sensation caused by fractured bone ends or joints rubbing together

A blue skin discoloration that is caused by a reduced level of oxygen in the blood.

A mnemonic for assessment in which each area of the body is evaluated for Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, and Swelling.

Characterized by light or profuse sweating.

The pressure that remains in the arteries during the relaxing phase of the heart's cycle (diastole) when the left ventricle is at rest.

Any injury that prevents the patient from noticing other injuries he or she may have, even severe injuries; for example, a painful femur or tibia fracture that prevents the patient from noticing back pain associated with a spinal fracture.

The conclusion about the cause of the patient's condition after considering the situation, history, and examination findings.

A type of physical assessment that is typically performed on patients who have sustained nonsignificant mechanisms of injury or on responsive medical patients. This type of examination is based on the chief complaint and focuses on one body system or part.

Damage to tissues as the result of exposure to cold; frozen or partially frozen body parts are frostbitten.

The overall initial impression that determines the priority for patient care; based on the patient's surroundings, the mechanism of injury, signs and symptoms, and the chief complaint.

The time from injury to definitive care, during which treatment of shock and traumatic injuries should occur because survival potential is best; also called the Golden Period.

Involuntary muscle contractions (spasms) of the abdominal wall in an effort to protect an inflamed abdomen

A step within the patient assessment process that provides detail about the patient's chief complaint and an account of the patient's signs and symptoms.

Blood pressure that is higher than the normal range.

Blood pressure that is lower than the normal range.

A condition in which the internal body temperature falls below 95°F (35°C)

A system implemented to manage disasters and mass- and multiple-casualty incidents in which section chiefs, including finance, logistics, operations, and planning, report to the incident commander.

Yellow skin or sclera that is caused by liver disease or dysfunction.

Breathing that requires greater than normal effort; may be slower or faster than normal and characterized by grunting, stridor, and use of accessory muscles.

The average pressure in the circulatory system during one cardiac cycle.

The forces, or energy transmission, applied to the body that cause injury.

The biochemical processes that result in production of energy from nutrients within the cells.

Widening of the nostrils, indicating that there is an airway obstruction.

The general type of illness a patient is experiencing.

A mnemonic used in evaluating a patient's pain: Onset, Provocation/palliation, Quality, Regionadiation, Severity, and Timing.

The mental status of a patient as measured by memory of person (name), place (current location), time (current year, month, and approximate date), and event (what happened).

to examine by touch

The motion of the portion of the chest wall that is detached in a flail chest; the motion—in during inhalation, out during exhalation—is exactly the opposite of normal chest wall motion during breathing.

The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels.

Protective equipment that blocks exposure to a pathogen or a hazardous material.

Negative findings that warrant no care or intervention.

A step within the patient assessment process that identifies and initiates treatment of immediate and potential life threats.

The wave of pressure created as the heart contracts and forces blood out the left ventricle and into the major arteries.

An assessment tool that measures oxygen saturation of hemoglobin in the capillary beds.

A step within the patient assessment process that is performed at regular intervals during the assessment process to identify and treat changes in a patient's condition. A patient in unstable condition should be reassessed every 5 minutes, whereas a patient in stable condition should be reassessed every 15 minutes

The way in which a patient responds to external stimuli, including verbal stimuli (sound), tactile stimuli (touch), and painful stimuli.

Movements in which the skin pulls in around the ribs during inspiration.

Coarse, low-pitched breath sounds heard in patients with chronic mucus in the upper airways.

A brief history of a patient's condition to determine signs and symptoms, allergies, medications, pertinent past history, last oral intake, and events leading to the injury or illness.

A step within the patient assessment process that involves a quick assessment of the scene and the surroundings to provide information about scene safety and the mechanism of injury or nature of illness before you enter and begin patient care.

The tough, fibrous, white portion of the eye that protects the more delicate inner structures.

A step within the patient assessment process in which a systematic physical examination of the patient is performed. The examination may be a systematic exam or an assessment that focuses on a certain area or region of the body, often determined through the chief complaint.

Respirations characterized by little movement of the chest wall (reduced tidal volume) or poor chest excursion.

Objective findings that can be seen, heard, felt, smelled, or measured.

Knowledge and understanding of one's surroundings and the ability to recognize potential risks to the safety of the patient or EMS team.

An upright position in which the patient's head and chin are thrust slightly forward to keep the airway open.

Breathing that occurs without assistance.

Protective measures that have traditionally been developed by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for use in dealing with objects, blood, body fluids, and other potential exposure risks of communicable disease.

A harsh, high-pitched respiratory sound, generally heard during inspiration, that is caused by partial blockage or narrowing of the upper airway; may be audible without a stethoscope.

A characteristic crackling sensation felt on palpation of the skin, caused by the presence of air in soft tissues.

Subjective findings that the patient feels but that can be identified only by the patient.

the increased pressure in an artery with each contraction of the ventricles (systole)

A rapid heart rate, more than 100 beats/min.

the amount of air (in milliliters) that is moved into or out of the lungs during one breath

The process of establishing treatment and transportation priorities according to severity of injury and medical need.

An upright position in which the patient leans forward onto two arms stretched forward and thrusts the head and chin forward.

A severe breathing problem in which a patient can speak only two to three words at a time without pausing to take a breath.

narrowing of a blood vessel

The key signs that are used to evaluate the patient's overall condition, including respirations, pulse, blood pressure, level of consciousness, and skin characteristics.

A high-pitched, whistling breath sound that is most prominent on expiration, and which suggests an obstruction or narrowing of the lower airways; occurs in asthma and bronchiolitis.