Immunology: Adaptive and Innate Immunity
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1
How does adaptive immunity act as a third line of defense when innate defenses are overcome?
immunological memory and stronger secondary responses.
2
Which process is a defining characteristic of innate immunity rather than adaptive immunity?
Inflammation
3
How does adaptive immunity fundamentally differ from innate immunity?
It is antigen-specific.
4
What primary cell type is responsible for driving adaptive immunity?
Lymphocytes
5
How do secondary immune responses typically compare to primary immune responses?
They are faster and more robust.
6
In which organ does T cell maturation take place?
Thymus
7
Where do B lymphocytes undergo maturation?
Bone marrow
8
Which specific cell type is responsible for antibody production?
B cells
9
Which lymphocytes primarily drive cell-mediated immunity?
T cells
10
Plasma cells are fully differentiated forms of which lymphocyte type?
B cells
11
To what surface receptor do MHC molecules present processed antigen fragments?
T cell receptors (TCRs)
12
Class I MHC molecules present antigen fragments to which specific T cell population?
CD8 cytotoxic T cells
13
Class II MHC molecules present antigen fragments to which type of T cells?
CD4 T cells (Helper T cells)
14
What is the primary function of a proteasome during antigen processing?
To degrade cytosolic proteins into peptides for MHC Class I presentation.
15
Antigen processing that occurs within the cytosol is associated with which MHC class?
Class I MHC
16
What is the molecular complex formed by an antigen bound to an MHC molecule called?
Conjugate complex (also known as a neoantigen complex)
17
What term describes TCR binding to an antigen–MHC complex?
Associative recognition
18
What is the primary function of a cytotoxic T cell?
To kill infected or cancerous cells.
19
To which class of MHC molecules do CD8 coreceptors bind?
MHC I molecules
20
To which class of MHC molecules do CD4 coreceptors bind?
MHC II molecules
21
Which cytokine is critical for driving T cell proliferation during an immune response?
Interleukin-2 (IL-2)
22
What is the main physiological function of regulatory T cells?
To suppress immune responses and maintain immune tolerance.
23
How do helper T cells assist in orchestrating immune responses?
By secreting cytokines.
24
Which cell type mediates the humoral antibody response?
B cells
25
What does the term 'opsonization' refer to in humoral immunity?
Coating pathogens to enhance their phagocytosis.
26
How do antibodies neutralize pathogens during infection?
By blocking pathogen attachment to host cells.
27
What is the ultimate cellular outcome of antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)?
Apoptosis of target cells.
28
In which body fluid compartment are IgG antibodies most abundant?
Blood serum
29
In which anatomical sites or fluids is IgA primarily found?
Mucosal secretions
30
Which antibody isotype is primarily associated with allergic reactions and defense against parasitic infections?
IgE
31
Which antibody isotype is typically the first produced during an initial infection?
IgM
32
What does a high concentration of IgG antibodies in blood serum typically indicate?
A chronic or past infection.
33
How is passive immunity defined?
It occurs when pre-formed antibodies are transferred to an individual from another source.
34
Which two antibody classes provide natural passive immunity to infants?
IgG and IgA
35
Which maternal antibody class is capable of crossing the placenta to confer passive immunity to the fetus?
IgG
36
Why are live attenuated vaccines so effective at inducing strong immune responses?
They mimic natural infection by replicating weakly in the host.
37
Why are subunit vaccines considered safer than whole-organism vaccines?
They include only specific antigenic parts of the pathogen.
38
Against what specific bacterial products are toxoid vaccines designed?
Bacterial toxins
39
What requirement is generally characteristic of inactivated vaccine immunization schedules?
They generally require booster doses to maintain immunity.
40
What is the primary objective of Phase III clinical trials in vaccine development?
Large-scale efficacy testing.
41
At what point in the vaccine development pipeline do Phase IV trials take place?
After vaccine approval (post-marketing surveillance).
42
What two core parameters define a successful vaccine?
It must be both safe and effective.
43
Humoral immunodeficiencies primarily affect the function of which lymphocyte population?
B cells
44
Patients suffering from humoral immunodeficiencies are predominantly susceptible to which pathogen type?
Bacterial infections
45
Multiple sclerosis is classified under which category of immunological disorders?
Autoimmune disease
46
What fundamental error causes autoimmune diseases?
An immune system attack directed against self-antigens.
47
Whom does herd immunity primarily protect within a population?
Individuals who cannot be safely vaccinated.
48
Under what condition does herd immunity occur within a population?
When a large portion of the population is immune to a pathogen.
49
Which specific cells are responsible for executing secondary immune responses?
Memory cells
50
What functional advantage does immunological memory confer during pathogen re-exposure?
Faster and stronger immune responses.
51
What key adaptive immunological feature is shared by both B cells and T cells?
Immunological memory
52
By which primary mechanism are encapsulated bacteria effectively targeted for destruction?
Opsonization
53
Which vaccine type generally provides the shortest duration of immunity and requires frequent boosters?
Toxoid vaccines
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