Anatomy: Body Systems, Tissues, and Joints

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1
List the four basic types of tissues in the body.
Epithelial, muscular, connective, nervous
2
What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?
Connective
3
List the ten systems of the human body.
Skeletal, nervous, muscular, integumentary, endocrine, reproductive, digestive, urinary, respiratory, circulatory
4
How many individual body systems comprise the human body?
10
5
How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton?
80
6
What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?
Periosteum
7
Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?
Spongy or cancellous bone of the epipyses
8
Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?
  • Articular cartilage
  • Diaphysis
  • Metaphysis
  • Epiphyses
9
List the three functional classifications of joints.
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
10
Which of the following is not a functional classification of joints?
  • Cartilaginous
  • Synarthrosis
  • Diarthrosis
  • Amphiarthrosis
11
List the three structural classifications of joints.
Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
12
The structural term for a freely movable joint is:
synovial.
13
List the seven types of movement for synovial joints.
Plane (gliding), ginglymus (hinge), trochoid (pivot), ellipsoid (condylar), sellar (saddle), spheroidal (ball and socket), bicondylar
14
Which of the following is classified as a bicondylar joint?
  • First and second cervical vertebra joint
  • Temporomandibular joint
  • Shoulder joint
  • Distal radioulnar joint
15
The ankle joint is what type of synovial joint?
Sellar (saddle)
16
The vertical plane that divides the body into right and left halves describes the _____ (insert answer) plane.
median or midsagittal
17
A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ (insert answer) plane.
Quiz: midcoronal
18
The direction or path of the central ray defines which positioning term?
Projection
19
Which positioning term describes the general and specific body position? ? wtf
Position
20
What is the difference between a projection and a position?
A projection describes the direction or path of the central ray, whereas a position describes the general and specific body position.
21
A patient is erect with the back to the IR. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the IR. What is the position?
Left posterior oblique (LPO)
22
A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. The right side of her body is turned 20° toward the image receptor. What is this radiographic position?
RPO (right posterior oblique)
23
A patient is erect with the right side of the body against the IR. The beam enters the left side and exits the right. What specific position is this?
Right lateral
24
What is the name of the projection in which the CR enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior surface?
AP (anteroposterior)
25
A projection using a CR angle of 10 degrees or more along the long axis of the body or body part is called an ______ projection.
axial
26
The specific position that demonstrates the apices of the lungs without superimposition of the clavicles is called the ______ position.
lordotic
27
What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)?
  • Decubitus
  • Lordotic
  • Trendelenburg
  • Axial
28
True or False: The term varus describes the bending of a part outward.
False. The term varus describes the bending of a part inward.
29
The patient's head and neck are hyperextended with the top of the skull directly against the image receptor. The central ray enters just below the chin. Which specific projection has been performed?
  • Submentovertical
  • Parietoacanthial
  • Acanthioparietal
  • Verticosubmental
30
The opposite of radial deviation is ______.
ulnar deviation
31
Moving the foot and toes downward is:
plantar flexion.
32
The opposite of inversion is ______.
eversion
33
The opposite term for supination is:
pronation.
34
Movement in the form of a circle is the definition for:
circumduction.
35
What is the difference between proximal and distal?
Proximal means near the source or beginning, whereas distal means away from the source or beginning.
36
List the three types of information that should be on every radiographic image.
Patient identification, date, anatomic side markers
37
What is the minimum number of projections when joints are involved?
3 projections
38
What is the minimum number of projections taken 90 degrees from each other?
2 projections
39
A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a piece of wire in the palm of the hand. What is the minimum number of projections required to be taken for this radiographic study?
Two
40
Which of the following radiographic procedures often only requires a single AP projection be taken?
  • Chest
  • Pelvis
  • Ribs
  • Finger
41
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur?
Two
42
What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip?
Two
43
A young child with a fractured forearm refuses to move the arm after one projection confirms the fracture. What is the minimum number of projections for this forearm study?
Two
44
PA or AP oblique projections are placed on the view box with the patient's right side of the body facing the viewer's right.
False
45
When placing radiographs of the lower leg, the toes of the foot must be pointing upward.
  • True
  • False
46
When viewing a CT (computed tomography) or MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) image, the patient's right is facing the viewer's left.
  • True
  • False (because the quiz says so)
47
List the four image quality factors of a radiograph (4th is hard)
Density, contrast, spatial resolution, distortion
48
Which of the following is not one of the four image quality factors of an analog radiograph?
  • Source image receptor distance (SID)
  • Detail
  • Distortion
  • Contrast
49
Which of the following factors primarily controls radiographic density in the analog image?
  • mAs
  • Film-screen speed
  • Optimal immunomodulating dose (OID)
  • kV
50
If the distance between the x-ray tube and IR is increased from 40 to 80 inches with other factors unchanged, what is the effect on radiographic density?
Density decreases to 25% (one-fourth) of the original, per the inverse square law
51
True or False: kV must be altered to change radiographic density on the IR image.
False. mAs, rather than kV, is the factor altered to change radiographic density on the IR image.
52
When analog images using manual technique settings are under- or overexposed, a minimum change in mAs of ______ is required to make a visible difference in density.
25%-30%
53
A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and nondiagnostic. The following analog (film screen) exposure factors were used: 50 kV, 2 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID. Which of the following sets of exposure factors should be used during the repeat exposure?
  • 50 kV, 1 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
  • 50 kV, 8 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
  • 50 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
  • 60 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
54
What side of the x-ray beam is more intense due to the anode heel effect?
Cathode
55
Which of the following radiographic studies would best benefit by applying the anode heel effect?
  • Hand
  • Thoracic spine
  • Skull
  • Ribs
56
List three common types of compensating filters.
Wedge, trough, boomerang
57
Which compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine?
  • Trough filter
  • Boomerang filter
  • Wedge filter
58
Which compensating filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized?
Boomerang filter
59
A foot radiograph made with analog cassettes demonstrates too little density. The original exposure was 5 mAs. What mAs is needed to correct it?
10 mAs
60
What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast?
kVp
61
What is the main controlling factor of radiologic contrast?
kVp
62
What type of radiographic contrast is produced with a high (120) kV technique?
Low contrast, long scale
63
True or false: High contrast requires a low kVp, such as 50-60 kVp.
True
64
Which exposure factors give the least patient exposure and long scale contrast on a PA chest image?
110 kV, 10 mAs
65
If an anatomic part measures greater than ______, a grid must be used.
10 cm
66
List the three geometric factors that control or influence image resolution.
Focal spot size, SID, OID
67
In order to take a sharp, high definition image (good quality spatial resolution), the technologist must set:
a small focal spot
68
Which of the following controlling factors will most affect radiographic resolution?
  • kV
  • Focal spot size
  • mAs
  • Filtration
69
The term that describes the unsharp edges of the projected image is ______.
penumbra
70
True or False: Every radiographic image reflects some degree of penumbra or unsharpness, even if the smallest focal spot size is used.
True
71
The greatest contributor to image unsharpness related to positioning is ______.
motion
72
A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion caused by bowel peristalsis (involuntary contractions). Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
  • Turn patient into prone position rather than supine.
  • Decrease SID.
  • Use higher kV.
  • Decrease exposure time.
73
Which of the following changes will improve spatial resolution?
  • Decrease SID.
  • Decrease OID. (Quiz: Decrease OID / Quizlet: Decrease SID)
  • Decrease kV.
  • None of the above will improve spatial resolution.
74
True or false: Magnification is a form of distortion.
True
75
True or False: Distortion is reduced when the CR is kept perpendicular to the plane of the IR.
True
76
True or False: As the distance between the object and the IR is increased, magnification is reduced.
False. As the distance between the object and the IR is increased, magnification is increased.
77
The wide dynamic range of digital imaging systems results in fewer repeat exposures, increased efficiency, and operating cost reduction as compared with analog (film screen) systems.
  • True
  • False
78
Highly complex mathematical formulas applied during digital processing of the image are termed:
algorithms.
79
Contrast in the digital image is primarily affected by:
  • kV. (Quiz: kV / Quizlet: application of processing algorithms)
  • mAs.
  • matrix size.
  • predetermined algorithms.
80
Exposure latitude with digital imaging is more ______ when compared with analog imaging.
wide
81
List the six image quality factors used to evaluate a digital image.
Brightness, contrast resolution, spatial resolution, distortion, exposure indicator, noise
82
Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the brightness of the digital image?
  • kV
  • mAs
  • Processing software
  • Matrix size
83
The ability of a digital imaging system to distinguish between similar tissues is the definition for:
contrast resolution.
84
The number of shades of gray that can be demonstrated by each pixel is the definition for:
bit depth.
85
List the two pixel sizes used in digital imaging.
Acquisition pixel size, display pixel size
86
In addition to acquisition pixel size, spatial resolution in the digital image is controlled by the ______.
display matrix
87
Exposure indicator is a numeric value that is representative of the level of exposure the image receptor has acquired.
True
88
List the four factors that affect the exposure indicator in the digital image.
mAs, kV, objects exposed, total detector area irradiated
89
If the recommended exposure indicator range for a well-exposed image is 150 to 250, what does a value of 350 indicate?
Underexposure
90
When insufficient mAs is used to produce a digital image, it produces a ______ SNR image.
low
91
The application of specific image processing to increase the visibility of the image margins is the definition for:
edge enhancement.
92
The application of specific image processing to reduce noise in an image is termed:
smoothing.
93
The photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP) imaging plate is light sensitive and must be processed in a dark environment.
  • True
  • False
94
When using a PSP image plate, patient data can be linked to the image by a ______.
bar code reader
95
The latent image on a PSP image plate is read by a ______ within the CR reader.
laser
96
Which of the following energy sources will erase any residual latent image from an exposed PSP imaging plate?
  • Low-dose radiation
  • Bright light
  • Heat
  • Ultraviolet light
97
Lead masking/mats should be used when recording multiple images on the same cassette-based PSP system.
  • True
  • False
98
True or False: Fifty percent of the IP must be exposed to produce a correct reading of the image.
False. Fifty percent of the IP does not need to be exposed to produce a correct reading.
99
True or False: The use of grids is optional with PSP because the IP is not as sensitive to scatter radiation as analog radiography.
False. Grids are still generally necessary with PSP.
100
Charged couple device (CCD) systems have the potential to produce diagnostic radiographs with low levels of exposure.
True
101
As a general rule, exposure factors are decreased 5 to 10 kV with digital systems as compared with analog imaging systems.
  • True
  • False
102
PACS stands for ______.
Picture Archiving and Communication System
103
A network system with an array of hardware and software that connects all imaging modalities is termed a(n):
  • archive.
  • HIS.
  • PACS.
  • network.
104
DICOM stands for ______.
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
105
A standard that ensures that all digital imaging equipment can communicate with each other is referred to as:
DICOM.
106
What is the complete term for RIS?
  • Radiographic imaging system
  • Radiology information system
  • Radiology interpretation system
  • Reduced intensity system
107
Which radiation unit is used to measure the amount of ionizations created in air?
Roentgen (R) or coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)
108
Which radiation unit of measurement is used to describe absorbed dose?
RAD
109
One gray equals 1000 rads.
  • True
  • False
110
What is the whole body effective dose limit per year for a technologist?
5 rem (50 mSv)
111
What is the cumulative dose limit for a 35-year-old technologist?
35 rem (350 mSv)
112
The cumulative (ED) lifetime dose for an occupationally exposed worker is _____ (insert answer) mSv × years of age.
10
113
The annual occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye is:
150 mSv (15,000 mrem).
114
Personnel monitoring devices must be worn if there is a possibility of acquiring ______ of the annual occupational dose limit.
10%
115
ALARA stands for ______.
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
116
What is the maximum dose limit to the embryo/fetus of a pregnant technologist per month?
0.5 mSv (50 mrem) / Quizlet set 1: .5 Sievert
117
What is the maximum dose limit to the embryo/fetus of a pregnant technologist for the entire gestational period?
5 mSv (500 mrem) / Quizlet set 1: 50 Sievert
118
True or False: With accurate and close collimation, area shields do not need to be used.
False. Area shields are still needed even with accurate, close collimation.
119
Collimators must be accurate to within ______ of the selected SID.
2%
120
The adjustable collimator light field must be accurate within 5% of the selected SID.
False
121
Positive beam limitation (PBL) collimators restrict the size of the exposure field to the size of the ______ in the Bucky tray.
cassette
122
The minimum thickness of a gonadal shield placed within the primary x-ray field is ______ lead equivalent.
1 mm
123
If placed properly, gonadal shields absorb ______ of the primary beam in the 50-100 kV range.
95%-99%
124
When correctly placed, gonadal shielding will reduce gonadal dose by ____ (insert answer) if gonads are in the primary x-ray field.
50% to 90%
125
An area shield should be used when radiation-sensitive tissues lie within ______ of the primary beam.
2 inches (5 cm)
126
What type of protective shield is not in contact with the patient's body?
Shadow shield
127
Must area shields be used for all radiographic procedures with all patients?
No (not used in certain trauma situations) / Quizlet set 1: True
128
What is the minimum lead equivalency recommended for a protective apron worn during fluoroscopy?
0.5 mm lead
129
Which of the following precautions reduces radiation exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure to the greatest degree?
  • Wearing a protective lead apron of 1-mm lead thickness
  • Wearing a thyroid shield
  • Standing as far away as possible from the radiation scatter fields
  • Turning your back to the fluoroscopy table
130
What are the three cardinal principles for radiation protection?
Distance, time, shielding
131
Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?
  • Shielding
  • Filtration
  • Time
  • Distance
132
True or False: If the exposure indicator value is outside the suggested range for that procedure, the projection must be repeated.
False. Clinical judgment applies first, so the projection is not automatically repeated.
133
Where is the best place for a tech to stand during a fluoroscopy procedure to reduce occupational exposure?
Behind the radiologist
134
What is the federal limit for exposure rates for intensified fluoroscopy units?
10 R/minute
135
Which projection provides the greatest amount of dose to the ovaries?
AP abdomen
136
Which of the following patient dose categories carries the highest numerical value of all patient doses?
  • Effective dose
  • Gonadal dose
  • Midline dose
  • Entrance skin exposure
137
Which of the following radiographic projections will provide the greatest amount of effective dose to a female patient (without shielding)?
  • AP pelvis
  • Lateral upper gastrointestinal
  • AP skull
  • AP abdomen (using 70 kV)
138
The minimum radiation dose that will produce temporary skin injury is ______.
3 Gy (300 rad)
139
SID stands for ______.
Source image receptor distance
140
The effect of SID on density is explained by the ______ law.
inverse square
141
The ______ effect is the greater intensity of radiation from the cathode end than from the anode end of the x-ray tube.
anode heel
142
What percentage must be changed in the kVp to have the same affect similar to doubling the mAs?
15%
143
What is the 15% rule?
Increasing kVp by 15% has the same effect as doubling mAs, and decreasing kVp by 15% has the same effect as cutting mAs in half.
144
Starting at 80 kVp and 10 mAs, which technique gives about the same receptor exposure as 80 kVp at 20 mAs?
92 kVp at 10 mAs (80 × 1.15)
145
The amount of energy deposited in a material per unit mass by ionizing radiation, measured in gray, is the ______ dose.
absorbed
146
Which dose measures radiation dose to a specific tissue while accounting for the type of radiation and how damaging it is?
Equivalent dose
147
Which dose estimates overall biological risk to the whole body by considering the sensitivity of different tissues?
Effective dose
148
Which quantity measures the energy transferred from x-ray photons to charged particles in air?
Air kerma
149
Which dose estimates overall risk to the whole body?
  • Effective dose
  • Equivalent dose
  • Absorbed dose
150
What is the difference between absorbed dose and equivalent dose?
Absorbed dose is the physical energy deposited (Gy or rad), whereas equivalent dose is absorbed dose multiplied by a radiation weighting factor (Sv or rem).
151
What unit is typically used when recording patient dose after fluoroscopy?
Milligray (mGy)
152
TLD stands for ______.
Thermoluminescent Dosimeter
153
OSL stands for ______.
Optically Stimulated Luminescence (dosimeter)
154
What are the two major forms of x-ray tube filtration?
Inherent and added
155
What is the difference between inherent and added filtration?
Inherent filtration is built into the tube (glass, oil, housing), whereas added filtration is added at the collimator.
156
Why is aluminum added to harden the beam?
It absorbs low-energy photons that would only scatter within the patient and would not reach the IR, which lowers patient dose
157
Which type of area shield is best for a sterile procedure?
  • Shadow shield
  • Shaped shield
  • Lead mat
  • Gonadal flat shield
158
True or False: The 10-day rule is still considered valid by the ICRP and ACR.
False. The 10-day rule is considered obsolete by the ICRP and ACR.
159
The Image Wisely program is focused on reducing unnecessary exposure in children during imaging procedures.
False
160
What is the difference between Image Wisely and Image Gently?
Image Wisely targets adult dose reduction, whereas Image Gently targets pediatric (children's) dose reduction.
161
Body habitus is the build, physique, and general ______ of the body.
shape
162
What percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
50%
163
What percentage of the population has a hyposthenic body habitus?
35%
164
What percentage of the population has an asthenic body habitus?
10%
165
What percentage of the population has a hypersthenic body habitus?
5%
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