1List the four basic types of tissues in the body.
Epithelial, muscular, connective, nervous
2What type of tissue binds together and supports the various structures of the body?
Connective
3List the ten systems of the human body.
Skeletal, nervous, muscular, integumentary, endocrine, reproductive, digestive, urinary, respiratory, circulatory
4How many individual body systems comprise the human body?
10
5How many bones are there in the adult axial skeleton?
80
6What is the name of the dense fibrous membrane that covers bone?
Periosteum
7Which aspect of the long bones is responsible for the production of red blood cells?
Spongy or cancellous bone of the epipyses
8Which of the following is a secondary growth center for endochondral ossification?
- Articular cartilage
- Diaphysis
- Metaphysis
- Epiphyses
9List the three functional classifications of joints.
Synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, diarthrosis
10Which of the following is not a functional classification of joints?
- Cartilaginous
- Synarthrosis
- Diarthrosis
- Amphiarthrosis
11List the three structural classifications of joints.
Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
12The structural term for a freely movable joint is:
synovial.
13List the seven types of movement for synovial joints.
Plane (gliding), ginglymus (hinge), trochoid (pivot), ellipsoid (condylar), sellar (saddle), spheroidal (ball and socket), bicondylar
14Which of the following is classified as a bicondylar joint?
- First and second cervical vertebra joint
- Temporomandibular joint
- Shoulder joint
- Distal radioulnar joint
15The ankle joint is what type of synovial joint?
Sellar (saddle)
16The vertical plane that divides the body into right and left halves describes the _____ (insert answer) plane.
median or midsagittal
17A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ (insert answer) plane.
Quiz: midcoronal
18The direction or path of the central ray defines which positioning term?
Projection
19Which positioning term describes the general and specific body position? ? wtf
Position
20What is the difference between a projection and a position?
A projection describes the direction or path of the central ray, whereas a position describes the general and specific body position.
21A patient is erect with the back to the IR. The left side of the body is turned 45 degrees toward the IR. What is the position?
Left posterior oblique (LPO)
22A patient is lying on her back facing the x-ray tube. The right side of her body is turned 20° toward the image receptor. What is this radiographic position?
RPO (right posterior oblique)
23A patient is erect with the right side of the body against the IR. The beam enters the left side and exits the right. What specific position is this?
Right lateral
24What is the name of the projection in which the CR enters the anterior surface and exits the posterior surface?
AP (anteroposterior)
25A projection using a CR angle of 10 degrees or more along the long axis of the body or body part is called an ______ projection.
axial
26The specific position that demonstrates the apices of the lungs without superimposition of the clavicles is called the ______ position.
lordotic
27What is the general term for a position in which the long axis of the body is angled in relationship to the image receptor rather than the central ray (e.g., special chest projection)?
- Decubitus
- Lordotic
- Trendelenburg
- Axial
28True or False: The term varus describes the bending of a part outward.
False. The term varus describes the bending of a part inward.
29The patient's head and neck are hyperextended with the top of the skull directly against the image receptor. The central ray enters just below the chin. Which specific projection has been performed?
- Submentovertical
- Parietoacanthial
- Acanthioparietal
- Verticosubmental
30The opposite of radial deviation is ______.
ulnar deviation
31Moving the foot and toes downward is:
plantar flexion.
32The opposite of inversion is ______.
eversion
33The opposite term for supination is:
pronation.
34Movement in the form of a circle is the definition for:
circumduction.
35What is the difference between proximal and distal?
Proximal means near the source or beginning, whereas distal means away from the source or beginning.
36List the three types of information that should be on every radiographic image.
Patient identification, date, anatomic side markers
37What is the minimum number of projections when joints are involved?
3 projections
38What is the minimum number of projections taken 90 degrees from each other?
2 projections
39A patient enters the emergency department (ED) with a piece of wire in the palm of the hand. What is the minimum number of projections required to be taken for this radiographic study?
Two
40Which of the following radiographic procedures often only requires a single AP projection be taken?
41What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the femur?
Two
42What is the minimal number of projections taken for a study of the right hip?
Two
43A young child with a fractured forearm refuses to move the arm after one projection confirms the fracture. What is the minimum number of projections for this forearm study?
Two
44PA or AP oblique projections are placed on the view box with the patient's right side of the body facing the viewer's right.
False
45When placing radiographs of the lower leg, the toes of the foot must be pointing upward.
46When viewing a CT (computed tomography) or MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) image, the patient's right is facing the viewer's left.
- True
- False (because the quiz says so)
47List the four image quality factors of a radiograph (4th is hard)
Density, contrast, spatial resolution, distortion
48Which of the following is not one of the four image quality factors of an analog radiograph?
- Source image receptor distance (SID)
- Detail
- Distortion
- Contrast
49Which of the following factors primarily controls radiographic density in the analog image?
- mAs
- Film-screen speed
- Optimal immunomodulating dose (OID)
- kV
50If the distance between the x-ray tube and IR is increased from 40 to 80 inches with other factors unchanged, what is the effect on radiographic density?
Density decreases to 25% (one-fourth) of the original, per the inverse square law
51True or False: kV must be altered to change radiographic density on the IR image.
False. mAs, rather than kV, is the factor altered to change radiographic density on the IR image.
52When analog images using manual technique settings are under- or overexposed, a minimum change in mAs of ______ is required to make a visible difference in density.
25%-30%
53A radiograph of the hand is underexposed and nondiagnostic. The following analog (film screen) exposure factors were used: 50 kV, 2 mAs, 40-inch (102 cm) SID. Which of the following sets of exposure factors should be used during the repeat exposure?
- 50 kV, 1 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
- 50 kV, 8 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
- 50 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
- 60 kV, 4 mAs, 40 inches (102 cm)
54What side of the x-ray beam is more intense due to the anode heel effect?
Cathode
55Which of the following radiographic studies would best benefit by applying the anode heel effect?
- Hand
- Thoracic spine
- Skull
- Ribs
56List three common types of compensating filters.
Wedge, trough, boomerang
57Which compensating filter is used commonly for AP projections of the thoracic spine?
- Trough filter
- Boomerang filter
- Wedge filter
58Which compensating filter permits soft tissue and bony detail of the shoulder to be equally visualized?
Boomerang filter
59A foot radiograph made with analog cassettes demonstrates too little density. The original exposure was 5 mAs. What mAs is needed to correct it?
10 mAs
60What is the primary controlling factor for radiographic contrast?
kVp
61What is the main controlling factor of radiologic contrast?
kVp
62What type of radiographic contrast is produced with a high (120) kV technique?
Low contrast, long scale
63True or false: High contrast requires a low kVp, such as 50-60 kVp.
True
64Which exposure factors give the least patient exposure and long scale contrast on a PA chest image?
110 kV, 10 mAs
65If an anatomic part measures greater than ______, a grid must be used.
10 cm
66List the three geometric factors that control or influence image resolution.
Focal spot size, SID, OID
67In order to take a sharp, high definition image (good quality spatial resolution), the technologist must set:
a small focal spot
68Which of the following controlling factors will most affect radiographic resolution?
- kV
- Focal spot size
- mAs
- Filtration
69The term that describes the unsharp edges of the projected image is ______.
penumbra
70True or False: Every radiographic image reflects some degree of penumbra or unsharpness, even if the smallest focal spot size is used.
True
71The greatest contributor to image unsharpness related to positioning is ______.
motion
72A radiograph of the abdomen demonstrates involuntary motion caused by bowel peristalsis (involuntary contractions). Which of the following factors will best eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure?
- Turn patient into prone position rather than supine.
- Decrease SID.
- Use higher kV.
- Decrease exposure time.
73Which of the following changes will improve spatial resolution?
- Decrease SID.
- Decrease OID. (Quiz: Decrease OID / Quizlet: Decrease SID)
- Decrease kV.
- None of the above will improve spatial resolution.
74True or false: Magnification is a form of distortion.
True
75True or False: Distortion is reduced when the CR is kept perpendicular to the plane of the IR.
True
76True or False: As the distance between the object and the IR is increased, magnification is reduced.
False. As the distance between the object and the IR is increased, magnification is increased.
77The wide dynamic range of digital imaging systems results in fewer repeat exposures, increased efficiency, and operating cost reduction as compared with analog (film screen) systems.
78Highly complex mathematical formulas applied during digital processing of the image are termed:
algorithms.
79Contrast in the digital image is primarily affected by:
- kV. (Quiz: kV / Quizlet: application of processing algorithms)
- mAs.
- matrix size.
- predetermined algorithms.
80Exposure latitude with digital imaging is more ______ when compared with analog imaging.
wide
81List the six image quality factors used to evaluate a digital image.
Brightness, contrast resolution, spatial resolution, distortion, exposure indicator, noise
82Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on the brightness of the digital image?
- kV
- mAs
- Processing software
- Matrix size
83The ability of a digital imaging system to distinguish between similar tissues is the definition for:
contrast resolution.
84The number of shades of gray that can be demonstrated by each pixel is the definition for:
bit depth.
85List the two pixel sizes used in digital imaging.
Acquisition pixel size, display pixel size
86In addition to acquisition pixel size, spatial resolution in the digital image is controlled by the ______.
display matrix
87Exposure indicator is a numeric value that is representative of the level of exposure the image receptor has acquired.
True
88List the four factors that affect the exposure indicator in the digital image.
mAs, kV, objects exposed, total detector area irradiated
89If the recommended exposure indicator range for a well-exposed image is 150 to 250, what does a value of 350 indicate?
Underexposure
90When insufficient mAs is used to produce a digital image, it produces a ______ SNR image.
low
91The application of specific image processing to increase the visibility of the image margins is the definition for:
edge enhancement.
92The application of specific image processing to reduce noise in an image is termed:
smoothing.
93The photostimulable storage phosphor (PSP) imaging plate is light sensitive and must be processed in a dark environment.
94When using a PSP image plate, patient data can be linked to the image by a ______.
bar code reader
95The latent image on a PSP image plate is read by a ______ within the CR reader.
laser
96Which of the following energy sources will erase any residual latent image from an exposed PSP imaging plate?
- Low-dose radiation
- Bright light
- Heat
- Ultraviolet light
97Lead masking/mats should be used when recording multiple images on the same cassette-based PSP system.
98True or False: Fifty percent of the IP must be exposed to produce a correct reading of the image.
False. Fifty percent of the IP does not need to be exposed to produce a correct reading.
99True or False: The use of grids is optional with PSP because the IP is not as sensitive to scatter radiation as analog radiography.
False. Grids are still generally necessary with PSP.
100Charged couple device (CCD) systems have the potential to produce diagnostic radiographs with low levels of exposure.
True
101As a general rule, exposure factors are decreased 5 to 10 kV with digital systems as compared with analog imaging systems.
102PACS stands for ______.
Picture Archiving and Communication System
103A network system with an array of hardware and software that connects all imaging modalities is termed a(n):
- archive.
- HIS.
- PACS.
- network.
104DICOM stands for ______.
Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine
105A standard that ensures that all digital imaging equipment can communicate with each other is referred to as:
DICOM.
106What is the complete term for RIS?
- Radiographic imaging system
- Radiology information system
- Radiology interpretation system
- Reduced intensity system
107Which radiation unit is used to measure the amount of ionizations created in air?
Roentgen (R) or coulombs per kilogram (C/kg)
108Which radiation unit of measurement is used to describe absorbed dose?
RAD
109One gray equals 1000 rads.
110What is the whole body effective dose limit per year for a technologist?
5 rem (50 mSv)
111What is the cumulative dose limit for a 35-year-old technologist?
35 rem (350 mSv)
112The cumulative (ED) lifetime dose for an occupationally exposed worker is _____ (insert answer) mSv × years of age.
10
113The annual occupational dose limit for the lens of the eye is:
150 mSv (15,000 mrem).
114Personnel monitoring devices must be worn if there is a possibility of acquiring ______ of the annual occupational dose limit.
10%
115ALARA stands for ______.
As Low As Reasonably Achievable
116What is the maximum dose limit to the embryo/fetus of a pregnant technologist per month?
0.5 mSv (50 mrem) / Quizlet set 1: .5 Sievert
117What is the maximum dose limit to the embryo/fetus of a pregnant technologist for the entire gestational period?
5 mSv (500 mrem) / Quizlet set 1: 50 Sievert
118True or False: With accurate and close collimation, area shields do not need to be used.
False. Area shields are still needed even with accurate, close collimation.
119Collimators must be accurate to within ______ of the selected SID.
2%
120The adjustable collimator light field must be accurate within 5% of the selected SID.
False
121Positive beam limitation (PBL) collimators restrict the size of the exposure field to the size of the ______ in the Bucky tray.
cassette
122The minimum thickness of a gonadal shield placed within the primary x-ray field is ______ lead equivalent.
1 mm
123If placed properly, gonadal shields absorb ______ of the primary beam in the 50-100 kV range.
95%-99%
124When correctly placed, gonadal shielding will reduce gonadal dose by ____ (insert answer) if gonads are in the primary x-ray field.
50% to 90%
125An area shield should be used when radiation-sensitive tissues lie within ______ of the primary beam.
2 inches (5 cm)
126What type of protective shield is not in contact with the patient's body?
Shadow shield
127Must area shields be used for all radiographic procedures with all patients?
No (not used in certain trauma situations) / Quizlet set 1: True
128What is the minimum lead equivalency recommended for a protective apron worn during fluoroscopy?
0.5 mm lead
129Which of the following precautions reduces radiation exposure to the technologist during a fluoroscopic procedure to the greatest degree?
- Wearing a protective lead apron of 1-mm lead thickness
- Wearing a thyroid shield
- Standing as far away as possible from the radiation scatter fields
- Turning your back to the fluoroscopy table
130What are the three cardinal principles for radiation protection?
Distance, time, shielding
131Which of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection?
- Shielding
- Filtration
- Time
- Distance
132True or False: If the exposure indicator value is outside the suggested range for that procedure, the projection must be repeated.
False. Clinical judgment applies first, so the projection is not automatically repeated.
133Where is the best place for a tech to stand during a fluoroscopy procedure to reduce occupational exposure?
Behind the radiologist
134What is the federal limit for exposure rates for intensified fluoroscopy units?
10 R/minute
135Which projection provides the greatest amount of dose to the ovaries?
AP abdomen
136Which of the following patient dose categories carries the highest numerical value of all patient doses?
- Effective dose
- Gonadal dose
- Midline dose
- Entrance skin exposure
137Which of the following radiographic projections will provide the greatest amount of effective dose to a female patient (without shielding)?
- AP pelvis
- Lateral upper gastrointestinal
- AP skull
- AP abdomen (using 70 kV)
138The minimum radiation dose that will produce temporary skin injury is ______.
3 Gy (300 rad)
139SID stands for ______.
Source image receptor distance
140The effect of SID on density is explained by the ______ law.
inverse square
141The ______ effect is the greater intensity of radiation from the cathode end than from the anode end of the x-ray tube.
anode heel
142What percentage must be changed in the kVp to have the same affect similar to doubling the mAs?
15%
143What is the 15% rule?
Increasing kVp by 15% has the same effect as doubling mAs, and decreasing kVp by 15% has the same effect as cutting mAs in half.
144Starting at 80 kVp and 10 mAs, which technique gives about the same receptor exposure as 80 kVp at 20 mAs?
92 kVp at 10 mAs (80 × 1.15)
145The amount of energy deposited in a material per unit mass by ionizing radiation, measured in gray, is the ______ dose.
absorbed
146Which dose measures radiation dose to a specific tissue while accounting for the type of radiation and how damaging it is?
Equivalent dose
147Which dose estimates overall biological risk to the whole body by considering the sensitivity of different tissues?
Effective dose
148Which quantity measures the energy transferred from x-ray photons to charged particles in air?
Air kerma
149Which dose estimates overall risk to the whole body?
- Effective dose
- Equivalent dose
- Absorbed dose
150What is the difference between absorbed dose and equivalent dose?
Absorbed dose is the physical energy deposited (Gy or rad), whereas equivalent dose is absorbed dose multiplied by a radiation weighting factor (Sv or rem).
151What unit is typically used when recording patient dose after fluoroscopy?
Milligray (mGy)
152TLD stands for ______.
Thermoluminescent Dosimeter
153OSL stands for ______.
Optically Stimulated Luminescence (dosimeter)
154What are the two major forms of x-ray tube filtration?
Inherent and added
155What is the difference between inherent and added filtration?
Inherent filtration is built into the tube (glass, oil, housing), whereas added filtration is added at the collimator.
156Why is aluminum added to harden the beam?
It absorbs low-energy photons that would only scatter within the patient and would not reach the IR, which lowers patient dose
157Which type of area shield is best for a sterile procedure?
- Shadow shield
- Shaped shield
- Lead mat
- Gonadal flat shield
158True or False: The 10-day rule is still considered valid by the ICRP and ACR.
False. The 10-day rule is considered obsolete by the ICRP and ACR.
159The Image Wisely program is focused on reducing unnecessary exposure in children during imaging procedures.
False
160What is the difference between Image Wisely and Image Gently?
Image Wisely targets adult dose reduction, whereas Image Gently targets pediatric (children's) dose reduction.
161Body habitus is the build, physique, and general ______ of the body.
shape
162What percentage of the population has a sthenic body habitus?
50%
163What percentage of the population has a hyposthenic body habitus?
35%
164What percentage of the population has an asthenic body habitus?
10%
165What percentage of the population has a hypersthenic body habitus?
5%