1What is the other term for Hematopoiesis?
Hemopoiesis.
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2Hematopoiesis is the process of blood cell formation from what specific stem cells?
CD34.
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3What do the acronyms CD stand for in the context of stem cells?
Cluster of Differentiation or Cluster of Determination.
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4According to the lecture guide, hematopoiesis is considered to start around the ________ day of embryonic development after fertilization.
19th.
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5Identify the theory that suggests each blood cell lineage is derived from its own unique stem cell.
Polyphyletic Theory.
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6Identify the theory that suggests all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell.
Monophyletic Theory.
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7What is the name of the single progenitor stem cell in the Monophyletic Theory?
Pluripotential stem cell (PSC).
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8Which theory regarding the origin of hematopoietic progenitor cells is most widely accepted among experimental hematologists?
Monophyletic Theory.
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9What are the three phases of Hematopoiesis?
Mesoblastic/Megaloblastic, Hepatic, and Intramedullary/Medullary/Myeloid.
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10Identify the chief site of hematopoiesis during the Mesoblastic phase.
Yolk sac.
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11During the Hepatic phase, what are the three chief sites of hematopoiesis?
Liver, Spleen, and Thymus.
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12What is the chief site of hematopoiesis during the Medullary phase?
Bone Marrow.
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13Which phase occurs intravascularly within developing blood vessels?
Mesoblastic phase.
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14What is the predominant hemoglobin formed during the Hepatic phase?
Hb F (Fetal hemoglobin).
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15Identify the three types of embryonic hemoglobin necessary for oxygen delivery to embryonic tissues.
Gower-1, Gower-2, and Portland.
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16What is the first fully developed organ in the fetus?
Thymus.
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17True or False: The size of the thymus decreases during fetal development.
False.
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18Which organs produce B cells during the Hepatic phase?
Kidneys and spleen.
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19Hematopoiesis starts in the bone marrow cavity before the ________ month of fetal development.
5th.
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20The bone marrow becomes the chief site of hematopoiesis by the end of ________ weeks' gestation.
24.
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21In adults, hematopoietic tissues are located in the bone marrow, lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, and ________.
Liver.
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22What type of blood cells are produced in the lymph nodes, spleen, and thymus of an adult?
Lymphocytes.
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23The bone marrow is considered a primary lymphoid organ equivalent to what structure in birds?
Bursa of Fabricius.
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24In adults, the liver is only involved in hematopoiesis during ________ states.
Diseased.
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25How many RBCs is the bone marrow capable of generating daily per kilogram of body weight?
2.5-billion.
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26How many Granulocytes is the bone marrow capable of generating daily per kilogram of body weight?
1-billion.
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27How many Platelets is the bone marrow capable of generating daily per kilogram of body weight?
2.5-billion.
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28Identify the process of replacing red marrow with yellow marrow during development.
Retrogression.
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29At what age range do adipocytes start to occupy spaces in long bones previously dominated by active marrow?
5-to 7 years.
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30Active marrow is also known as ________ marrow.
Red.
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31Inactive marrow composed primarily of fat cells (adipocytes) is known as ________ marrow.
Yellow.
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32Name the 8 specific sites where red marrow is restricted in a healthy adult.
Ribs, Sternum, Skull, Shoulder blade, Vertebrae, Pelvis, Proximal end of long bones, and Clavicle.
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33What is the mnemonic provided to remember the sites of red marrow in adults?
RIVP S3 B.
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34In the red marrow areas of adults, what is the approximate percentage of red marrow versus yellow marrow?
50% red and 50% yellow.
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35True or False: Yellow marrow has the ability to revert back to active marrow in cases of excessive blood loss or hemolysis.
True.
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36What are the two primary lymphoid organs where T and B lymphocytes are derived?
Bone marrow and thymus.
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37Where do lymphoid cells fated to become B cells undergo their early stages of differentiation?
Bone marrow.
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38Identify the two major secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs.
Spleen and lymph nodes.
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39What is the largest of the secondary lymphoid organs?
Spleen.
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40What are the two major functions of the secondary lymphoid organs?
Trapping and concentration of foreign substances.
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41Identify the specific cells in the spleen where antibodies are synthesized.
Plasma cells.
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42In children, a splenectomy often leads to increased incidence of bacterial sepsis caused by which three organisms?
S. pneumoniae, N. meningitidis, and H. influenzae.
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43True or False: Splenectomy in adults has more adverse effects than in children.
False.
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44Define splenomegaly.
Enlargement of the spleen.
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45Identify the term for a malignant solid tumor neoplasm of the lymphoid tissue.
Lymphoma.
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46Identify the four minor secondary lymphoid organs.
Tonsils, Appendix, Peyer's patches, and MALT.
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47What does the acronym MALT stand for?
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue.
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48What is the term for blood cell formation occurring outside the bone marrow, such as in the liver or spleen?
Extramedullary hematopoiesis.
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49Identify the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in adults.
Posterior superior iliac crest.
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50Identify the site for bone marrow aspiration in children under 2 years old.
Anterior medial surface of the tibia.
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51List four indications for bone marrow examination.
Neoplasia diagnosis, Marrow failure (cytopenias), Metabolic disorders, and Infections.
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52True or False: Bone marrow examination can be used to monitor treatment after chemotherapy or stem cell transplantation.
True.
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53For a marrow differential, what is the recommended minimum number of cells to be counted?
500-cells.
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54Which bone marrow procedure disturbs the bone architecture and is used for individual cell morphology?
Bone marrow aspirate.
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55How long should bone marrow smears be retained?
10-years.
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56Which bone marrow procedure removes a cylinder of marrow intact and is used to study bone marrow architecture?
Bone marrow biopsy.
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57What does the M:E ratio represent?
Myeloid-to-erythroid ratio.
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58Which cell types are excluded from the myeloid count when calculating the M:E ratio?
Monocytic precursors, lymphoid precursors, and plasma cells.
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59What is the normal M:E ratio range in a healthy adult?
1.5:1 to 3.3:1.
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60What is the typical M:E ratio seen in Leukemia?
10:1.
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61True or False: Extramedullary hematopoiesis occurs when the bone marrow is incapable of meeting demands, such as in hemolytic anemias.
True.
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62Define Erythron.
Total mass of RBCs circulating in peripheral blood and the bone marrow RBC precursors.
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63What term describes the dynamics of RBC creation and destruction?
Erythrokinetics.
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64What organ is referred to as the "graveyard of RBCs"?
Spleen.
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65What is the average life span of an RBC?
120-days.
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66Identify the term for the production of defective erythroid precursor cells that often undergo apoptosis in the bone marrow.
Ineffective erythropoiesis.
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67List three conditions associated with ineffective erythropoiesis.
Vitamin B12 deficiency, Folate deficiency, and Thalassemia.
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68Identify the term for a decrease in the number of RBC precursors in the bone marrow.
Insufficient erythropoiesis.
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69List two conditions associated with insufficient erythropoiesis.
Iron deficiency and Acute leukemia.
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70Identify the earliest marker of erythroid differentiation which acts as a transferrin receptor.
CD71.
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71What is the major hormone that stimulates the production of erythrocytes?
Erythropoietin (EPO).
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72What is the primary cell source of Erythropoietin?
Peritubular interstitial cells of the kidneys.
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73What are the primary target cells of EPO?
BFU-E and CFU-E.
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74What are the three major effects of EPO on RBC production?
Allowing early release of reticulocytes, reducing maturation time, and preventing apoptosis.
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75True or False: Estrogen stimulates erythropoiesis.
False.
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76Which hormones produced by the pituitary gland stimulate erythropoiesis?
Growth hormone and Prolactin.
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77What is the earliest committed erythroid progenitor cell?
BFU-E (Burst-forming unit-erythroid).
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78How long does it take to mature from BFU-E to CFU-E?
1-week.
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79How long does it take for a BFU-E to mature into a mature erythrocyte?
18-to 21 days.
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80List the stages of RBC maturation in the Normoblastic nomenclature system in order.
Pronormoblast, Basophilic Normoblast, Polychromatophilic Normoblast, Orthochromatic Normoblast, Reticulocyte, Mature erythrocyte.
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81List the stages of RBC maturation in the Rubriblastic nomenclature system in order.
Rubriblast, Prorubricyte, Rubricyte, Metarubricyte, Reticulocyte, Mature erythrocyte.
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82Identify two supravital stains used to demonstrate reticulocytes.
Brilliant Cresyl Blue (BCB) and New Methylene Blue (NMB).
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83What is a reticulocyte called when found in a Wright-stained smear?
Polychromatophilic erythrocyte or Diffusely basophilic erythrocyte.
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84As erythroid precursors mature, does the N:C ratio increase or decrease?
Decrease.
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85Identify the earliest recognizable erythroid precursor using a light microscope.
Rubriblast (Pronormoblast).
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86Which maturation stage is the first stage of hemoglobin synthesis?
Prorubricyte (Basophilic normoblast).
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87Which maturation stage is the last stage capable of mitosis?
Rubricyte (Polychromatic normoblast).
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88What is the characteristic chromatin pattern of a Rubricyte?
Checkerboard pattern.
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89Identify the maturation stage where the nucleus is pyknotic and eventually extruded.
Metarubricyte (Orthochromatic normoblast).
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90What are two other names for a Metarubricyte?
Nucleated RBC (NRBC) or Pyknotic erythroblast.