Aviation Law

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1
The Constitution of the United States is empowered with the sovereign authority of the people thanks to which amendments?
9th and 10th
2
Unlike most tort claims, a claim for fraud must be pled with _________?
specificity
3
inter alia
among other things
4
The powers of each branch of the U.S. government which are not assigned, are
reserved to the states
5
The Bill of Rights are the same as which Constitutional Amendments?
the first ten
6
One of the writings the Constitution Bill of Rights was based on was the what?
the English Bill of RIghts
7
No state may deprive any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law is the basis for which amendment?
the 14th
8
The system of government which divides powers between two levels such as Federal and States is called what?
Federalism
9
The Constitution contains a laundry list of delegated powers. Those which are not enumerated go to whom?
the states
10
Article six of the constitution stated that the U.S. would honor its debts and what else?
No religious test would be required to hold office
11
The FAA operates under which Federal Cabinet Department?
the Department of Transportation
12
Laws are created to maintain order, protect rights, establish standards, and ???
resolve disputes
13
If you have a drivers license from Florida and are driving in Georgia, you are legal to do so because of Article IV of the Constitution
  • True
  • False
14
________________is also called regulatory law and includes rules and regulations made by the FAA, for example.
  • Adjudicated common law
  • Administrative law
  • Tort law
  • Case Law
15
The Bill of Rights was partially based on (MC)
  • the English Bill of RIghts
  • writings obtained from the Enlightenment
  • the Virginian Declaration of Rights
  • rights obtained from the A la Carta
16
A trial without a jury is
  • only occurs in criminal cases
  • a Bench Trial
  • not allowed in all states
  • occurs in arbitration trials at the option of the defendant
17
The Constitution of the United States is (MC)
  • empowered with the sovereign authority of the people
  • the supreme law of the land
  • protects the fundamental rights of the people of the world
  • provides for unlimited power to govern
  • source of all government powers
18
The Federalist Papers (MC)
  • were a defense of the newly drafted Constitution
  • advocated a small Republic
  • explained how the Constitution protected the rights of the people
  • were written by Hamilton, Jay, and Madison=
19
The supremacy Clause (Article 6) stated that (MC)
  • there is no supremacy and the state and federal governments were equal
  • The us would honor its debts
  • no religious test would be required as a qualification for public office
  • the States were more powerful than the Federal government
20
A person or business that files a formal complaint with the court is called the
  • complaitant
  • plaintiff
  • defendant
  • amicus curae
21
The FAA is organized under
  • as part of the NTSB
  • the DOT
  • to operate anonymously
  • the DHS
22
The Constitution of the United States is empowered with the sovereign authority of the people
  • True
  • False
23
The ____________________ of 1970 placed the agency in charge of a new airport aid program funded by a special aviation trust fund and made FAA responsible for safety certification of airports served by air carriers.
  • Airport and Airway Development Act
  • Full Faith and Credit Act
  • International Commerce Act
  • Commerce Clause
24
The ______________ Act of 1925 facilitated the creation of a profitable commercial airline industry and airline companies
  • Elastic Clause
  • Civil Aviation
  • Air Mail
  • Interstate Commerce
25
Congress writes on Organic Statute which
  • requires the approval of the President, the Supreme Court, and the majority vote of each U.S. State
  • determines how long an agency will be "fertilized".
  • specifies how agencies are "fed and grow".
  • lays out the purpose and structure of an agency, such as the FAA
26
The purpose of agency existence is
  • rule-making and adjuducation
  • laws and penalties
  • fraud prevention and jurisprudence
  • fines and imprisonment
27
The Act that charged the Secretary of Commerce with fostering air commerce in 1926
  • Commerce Clause
  • Air Commerce Act
  • Interstate Commerce Act
  • Full faith and credit
28
Prior to enacting a new rule or regulation, the FAA must first publish a notice about the proposed rule and accept comments about it and respond to any substantial comments.
  • False
  • True
29
In 1934, the Department of Commerce renamed the Aeronautics Branch the Bureau of Air Commerce to reflect the growing importance of aviation to the nation.
  • True
  • False
30
One of the primary responsibilities of the Litigation Division of the FAA is
  • all of these
  • prosecuting pilots for FAR violations on behalf of the NTSB
  • issuing NPRM and other DOC related misconduct activities
  • creating new FAR's
  • assisting the Department of Justice in defending wrongful death, personal injury, and property damage lawsuits that arise out of the alleged negligence or other tortious conduct of FAA employees
31
On November 1, 1958, retired Air Force General Elwood "Pete" Quesada became the first Federal Aviation Agency Administrator. Sixty days later, on December 31, the Federal Aviation Agency began operations.
  • True
  • False
32
FTCA stands for the
  • Federal Transportation Commerce Administration
  • Federal Tort Claims Act
  • Federal Transportation Claims Agency
  • Fair Trade and Commerce Act
33
When considering Administrative Law, it is important to know that an agency can also be a part of another agency such as the FAA and the DOT
  • True
  • False
34
The modern age of powered flight began in 1903 when who made the first sustained, powered flight on December 17 in a plane he and his brother Wilbur built?
Orville Wright
35
What Act facilitated the creation of a profitable commercial airline industry, and airline companies such as Pan American Airways, Western Air Express, and Ford Air Transport Service began scheduled commercial passenger service?
The Air Mail Act of 1925
36
What legislation charged the Secretary of Commerce with fostering air commerce, issuing and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways, and operating and maintaining aids to air navigation?
Air Commerce Act
37
What legislation established the independent Civil Aeronautics Authority (CAA), with a three-member Air Safety Board that would conduct accident investigations and recommend ways of preventing accidents?
Civil Aeronautics Act
38
Under what cabinet department does the FAA fall?
Department of Transportation
39
When did nineteen radical Islamic extremists with the group al Qaeda penetrated security at three major airports, seized four U.S. domestic airliners, and turned three of the aircraft into missiles that destroyed the World Trade Center in New York City and damaged the Pentagon in Arlington, Virginia?
September 11, 2001
40
Which group provides legal services to FAA and its employees in aircraft accident investigations?
The Litigation Group
41
RNP stands for what?
Required Navigation Performance
42
The Transportation Security Administration was established by what act?
Aviation and Transportation Security Act in 2001
43
Tortious is defined as
A wrongful act
44
Administration
A branch of government that manages public affairs
45
A branch of government that manages public affairs
Administration
46
Airline Deregulation Act
The process of removing government-imposed entry and price restrictions on airlines affecting, in particular, the carriers permitted to serve specific routes
47
The process of removing government-imposed entry and price restrictions on airlines affecting, in particular, the carriers permitted to serve specific routes
Airline Deregulation Act
48
Litigation
The conduct of a lawsuit
49
The conduct of a lawsuit
Litigation
50
Tortious
wrongful conduct
51
wrongful conduct
Tortious
52
Bench trial
A trial without a jury, in which the judge serves as the fact-finder
53
A trial without a jury, in which the judge serves as the fact-finder
Bench trial
54
Commerce Clause
Article 1, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution.
55
Article 1, Section 8, Clause 3 of the U.S. Constitution.
Commerce Clause
56
Defendant
In a civil case, the person/organization against whom the plaintiff brings suit; in a criminal case, the person accused of the crime
57
In a civil case, the person/organization against whom the plaintiff brings suit; in a criminal case, the person accused of the crime
Defendant
58
Federalism
Government in which powers are divided between two levels
59
Government in which powers are divided between two levels
Federalism
60
Juruisprudence
The study of law and the structure of the legal system
61
The study of law and the structure of the legal system
Juruisprudence
62
Plaintiff
A person or business that files a formal complaint with the court
63
A person or business that files a formal complaint with the court
Plaintiff
64
Promulgated
Put into effect by law or decree
65
Locus Delicti
Scene of the crime
66
Corpus Delicti
Scene of the body
67
Proximate cause
an act without which the injury would not have occurred
68
Mens Rea
the guilty mind
69
Actus Rea
the guilty act
70
Res Judicata
Administration of law
71
The burden of proof in a criminal case is
  • weight of the evidence
  • none of these
  • beyond a preponderance of the evidence
  • reasonable doubt
72
An example of a process that describes thinking like a lawyer is
  • mediate, arbitrate, educate, humiliate
  • prepare, assess, validate, evaluate
  • collect, examine, weigh, decide
  • Identify the rule of law, use precedents from similar cases, use analogical reasoning to compare the attributes with the current case, arrive at the answer.
73
Stare Decisis
  • translates to: to stand by things decided
  • means to decide a case based on legal precedent
  • all of these
  • is the same a case law
74
Protect property rights of the government , preserve the integrity of land owners, and resolve disputes are the three functions of U.S. law.
  • True
  • False
75
Some forms of legal dispute resolution are
  • Lawsuit and Mediation
  • Meditation and Arbitration
  • Constellation and Mediation
  • Revenge and negotiation
76
To "stand by things decided" is from the Latin phrase:
  • Res ipsa loquitor
  • stare decisis
  • vice - versa
  • carpe diem
77
The level of proof finding that it is more likely than not that the defendant is guilty is
  • preponderance of the evidence
  • beyond a reasonable doubt
  • stare decisis
  • 99% sure
78
To win a civil case, absolute proof is necessary, where-as in criminal cases, it is beyond a reasonable doubt.
  • This is false, except when the trial is by jury.
  • This is true, except when the trial is by jury
  • none of these
  • This is only true in the case of the defendant being a minor, intoxicated at the time of the alleged incident, or in the case of diminished capacity.
79
An effective legal system must be
  • stable and fair
  • accessible to anyone in the world
  • Arbitrated and swift
  • Stable and free
80
When lawyers use analogical reasoning they
  • attempt to apply law from other countries to resolve conflicts
  • compare two or more things to see how similar they are to help resolve ambiguities in a case
  • use anecdotes to make bridges between abstract thoughts
  • apply common law to abstract situations when a jury is not involved
81
Law decided from prior cases is known as
  • Common law
  • Res Ipsa Loquitor
  • Arbitrated law
  • Volente diem
82
Case Law
Law established in previous court descisions.
83
Originated in the England, articulation of legal princin0ples in a historical succession of judicial decsions
Common Law
84
Stare Decisis
to stand by that which is decided
85
A trial without a jury is called a __________ trial.
bench
86
What is the phase called where both sides have an opportunity to get the facts from each other?
discovery
87
Most aviation legal matters fall into either contracts or what?
torts
88
At the very top of the Federal Court system rests the US Supreme Court, and just under that there are what type of court?
District
89
What is the code of conduct or standards of a profession called?
Ethics
90
Common Law is also known as what type of law?
Case law
91
What type of law, also called statutory law, is law that results from legislative process?
Code Law
92
The principal that the precedent decisions are generally to be followed by the courts is known by the Latin term _____.
Stare decisis
93
Any other laws that conflict with the constitution would be deemed to be what?
unenforceable
94
The burden of proof in a civil case is usually by what standard?
By a "preponderance of the evidence"
95
If a person is allowed to use an asset for week and fails to return it, that is either Criminal (Theft by taking) or Civil (Conversion).
  • False
  • True
96
Misrepresentation and fraud are considered the same in common law in the U.S
  • True
  • False
97
A mistake is an incorrect understanding by one or more parties to a contract and may be used as grounds to invalidate the agreement. Common law has identified different types of mistake in contracts which are: (MC) (scroll)
  • fraud in the inducement
  • unilateral
  • common
  • mutual
  • fraud in the factum
98
When it comes to contracts, an agreement is not binding if
  • all of these
  • it is made under duress
  • there was no mistake
  • the parties are the age of majority
99
Fraud in the factum focuses on whether the party alleging misrepresentation knew they were creating a contract.
  • True
  • False
100
As a general rule, anyone under the age of _____ is said to lack capacity to enter into contracts.
  • 21
  • 25, in most states
  • There is an age, but a minor is allowed to enter into contracts for necessities such as food, clothing and accommodation.
  • 16
101
________________________provides that only those who are party to a contract may sue or be sued on it
  • The common law doctrine of privity of contract
  • The administrative law of fraud in the factum
  • The private law of inducement
  • The regulatory law of conversion of contract
102
Individuals who are under the influence of alcohol or drugs
  • will only be relieved of the contract if the other party contributed to the intoxication.
  • will be forced to honor the contract if the sober party did not know they were under the influence
  • Might still be forced to honor the contract
  • are never held accountable in contracts
103
Misrepresentation means
  • a false statement of fact made by one party to another party and has the effect of inducing that party into the contract.
  • An omission of factual importance in privity
  • a blatant error in the factum resulting in decisis.
  • at least 2 parties of the contract have committed fraud in the factum, 1 of which has suffered harm.
104
"threat of harm made to compel a person to do something against his or her will or judgment" is the legal definition of redress
  • True
  • False
105
A contract based on a mutual mistake in _____________ does not cause the contract to be voidable by the party that is adversely affected.
  • Stare decisis
  • Fact
  • Judgement
  • res ipsa loquitor
106
The agreement criteria for a valid contract is not binding if (MC)
  • there was fraud
  • it was made under duress
  • if undue influence occurred
  • there was a material mistake
107
Adequate consideration is a benefit or detriment which a party receives which reasonably and fairly induces them to make the promise/contract.
  • True
  • False
108
Misrepresentation and fraud are considered the same in common law in the U.S
  • True
  • False
109
volenti non fit injuri
  • at first sight
  • Advice formally offered to the court in a brief filed by an entity interested in, but not a party to, the case.
  • A guilty deed or act
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
110
Actus reus
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
  • Advice formally offered to the court in a brief filed by an entity interested in, but not a party to, the case.
  • at first sight
  • A guilty deed or act
111
Amicus curiae
  • at first sight
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
  • A guilty deed or act
  • Advice formally offered to the court in a brief filed by an entity interested in, but not a party to, the case.
112
res ipsa loquitor
  • at first sight
  • the thing speaks for itself
  • Advice formally offered to the court in a brief filed by an entity interested in, but not a party to, the case.
  • A guilty deed or act
113
stare decisis
  • to stand by that which is decided
  • A guilty deed or act
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
  • the thing speaks for itself
114
Prima facie
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
  • A guilty deed or act
  • at first sight
  • the thing speaks for itself
115
tort lawsuits have a lower burden of proof (preponderance of evidence) rather than beyond a reasonable doubt
  • false
  • True
116
______________________ allows recovery without the need to demonstrate negligence.
  • strict liability
  • stare decisis
  • fraud in the inducement
  • actus res
117
Tort law is different from criminal law in that (MC) (scroll)
  • torts require proof beyond a reasonable doubt rather than preponderance of evidence
  • tort lawsuits have a lower burden of proof
  • tort may result from negligence
  • torts may result from intentional or criminal actions
  • torts may include breech of contract if the contract was for an illegal act
118
While many torts are the result of negligence, tort law also recognizes
  • all of these
  • strict liability which allows recovery with the need to demonstrate negligence in only one particular area.
  • contract breach
  • where a person has intentionally acted in a way that harms another
119
An act, but not an omission, that is considered in law to result in a consequence, is the definition of proximate cause.
  • True
  • False
120
Distinctions between civil and criminal cases are (MC)
  • standards of proof
  • consequences for the defendant
  • the possible outcomes
  • the procedural rules remain the same
  • who the parties are
121
In Common Law civil cases there are two types of lawsuits: torts and contracts
  • False
  • True
122
volenti non fit injuri is translated as:
  • the thing speaks for itself
  • to a willing person, no injury is done
  • out of many, one
  • a willing deed
123
If the actions of a person depart from the standards of conduct of a reasonable person acting under similar conditions, they
  • cannot run for public office
  • will face criminal charges
  • acted negligently, if they owed a duty of care
  • all of these
124
An act or omission, that is considered in law to result in a consequence is the definition of strict liability.
  • False
  • True
125
The first aviation policies were underwritten by what community?
Marine insurnace underwriting
126
What convention was the 1st agreement to establish terms, conditions, and limitations of liability for carriage by air?
Warsaw Conventions
127
What insurance market is still the largest single center for aviation insurance?
London Insurance
128
What type of loss results from an aviation accident that damages the aircraft beyond economical repair?
Hull loss
129
What is the term for the assumption by a third party of another party's legal right to collect a debt or damages?
subrogation
130
What is a common clause in contracts which essentially frees both parties from liability or obligation when an extraordinary event or circumstance beyond the control of the parties occurs?
Force majeure
131
In the event of a hull loss, who has the final say as to whether he wishes to make a partial or total claim?
The assured, not the insurer
132
What type of coverage provides more flexibility in paying claims for liability, especially if passengers are injured, but little damage is done to third party property on the ground?
CSL
133
An event described by the legal term act of God prevents one or both parties from fulfilling their obligations under the contract is an example of what contract clause?
Force majeure
134
Third party liability covers aircraft owners for damage that their aircraft does to third party property, such as houses, cars, crops, airport facilities, and other aircraft struck in a collision. This is also known as what coverage?
Public liability insurance
135
The term for a "threat of harm made to compel a person to do something against his or her will or judgment".
Duress
136
Misrepresentation attempting to get the party to enter into the contract is known as Fraud in the ________?
factum
137
What are factual promises which are enforced through a contract legal action, regardless of materiality, intent, or reliance?
Warranties
138
What is the common law doctrine (of contract) that provides that only those who are party to a contract may sue or be sued on it?
Privity
139
In most cases, the parties may enter into a binding agreement without signing a formal written document. (T/F)
  • True
  • False
140
The ability to understand the full meaning and effects of the contract is known as what?
Mental capacity
141
What is it called if there is an undoing of the contract by restoring the parties to where they were before the contract?
rescission
142
In contracts, what is it called when one person is taking advantage of a position of power over another person?
Undue influence
143
What type of contract cannot be ratified?
A contract considered to be void
144
What type of damages, although not naturally flowing from a breach of contract, are naturally supposed by both parties at the time of contract formation?
Consequential
145
The term COI stands for Certificate of _________________________.
insurance
146
If you insure an aircraft for a lower value to save money on the premium, there is a possibility that in the event of an accident
  • The insurer would not pay against a claim because it was intentionally under-insured
  • the aircraft would be a total loss, even when it is repairable
  • passenger liability limits would be eliminated
  • the territorial limits would be restricted
147
It would not be unusual for an Airbus A-380 to be
  • insured for $2.5 billion dollars
  • self insured
  • covered by the government in which the company is based because the value is so large and all the A-380 flights are international
  • covered with CSL of $100,000,000
148
In-flight insurance coverage means that
  • includes the time the aircraft nose wheel decompresses to the time it compresses on landing
  • coverage does not include taxi time
  • all phases of aircraft operation are covered
  • covers begins and ends at the gate for air carrier operations
149
Insurance that provides a stated overall limit per accident is
  • CSL
  • not legal in the U. S.
  • Co-insurance
  • Commercially available only to Part 121 operators
150
How are aircraft inured?
  • FAA data base
  • a percentage of the loan amount
  • On an "agreed value" basis
  • "Blue Book" valuation
151
Insurance crimes are diverse and
  • expensive but rarely include fraud
  • range from misrepresenting value to causing accidents
  • rarely ever paid
  • most often involve alcohol
152
MAT stands for _________________ Aviation Transit
Marine
153
Insurance that covers liability and hull together is
  • usually for smaller risks
  • not available for general aviation
  • Combined Single Limit
  • only available to Part 121 carriers in the U. S.
154
A significant portion of all aviation claims are
  • international
  • fraudulent
  • a result of intoxication
  • from improper valuation
155
When insuring an aircraft for hull coverage
  • there is no such insurance for aircraft
  • the actual aircraft is insured for physical damage
  • this is the coverage just for seaplanes since they become a boat when in the water
  • the policy will pay for damage to the lower half of the aircraft "hull"
156
The term BOW stands for Breach of _____________________.
warranty
157
The term CSL stands for ___________ single limit.
Combined
158
The Montreal Convention (MC)
  • is an understanding, not a contract
  • is international treaty for persons rights to compensation in the event of an international accident
  • limits how compensation is paid in an international accident
  • must be renewed every year by all signatories
159
A ___________ is a civil wrong that unfairly causes someone else to suffer loss or harm and results in legal liability for the person who commits the offense.
  • tort
  • tortilla
  • res actus
  • tart
160
When we can say because of what happened and how it happened, therefore negligence is the only logical explanation. The components of this doctrine are (MC)
  • The injury is plainly seen within 48 hours of the occurance
  • The injury is caused by an agency or instrumentality within the exclusive control of the
    defendant.
  • The injury is of the kind that does not ordinarily occur without negligence
  • The injury-causing accident is not by any voluntary action or contribution on the part of the
    plaintiff
  • there was a superseding intervening cause in the inducement
161
The principle defenses against negligence are (MC)
  • strict liability
  • Comparative or contributory negligence
  • volenti non fit injuri
  • prima facie
  • ex turpi causa non oritur actio
  • no breech of duty
162
Other than negligence, examples or tort include: (MC)
  • unlawfully detaining someone
  • false imprisonment
  • defamation
  • trespass
  • libel
163
What year was the Air Commerce Act
1926
164
well-established legal rules that are no longer subject to reasonable dispute
Blackletter Law
165
Bona Fide
sincerely; without intention to deceive
166
sincerely; without intention to deceive
Bona Fide
167
A condition without which something could not be
"But for"
168
an item other than real estate
Chattel
169
Chattel
an item other than real estate
170
a statement that injures a third party's reputation
Defamation
171
Defamation
a statement that injures a third party's reputation
172
when on person intentionally damages someone else's contractual or business relationships with a third party, causing economic harm.
Economic interference
173
One of the defenses to Intentional Economic Interference is ________ & ___________
Privilege; justification
174
A defendant cannot interfere with its own contract - it can merely ________ it.
breach
175
Many jurisdictions have two causes of action in the area of economic interference: the tort of intentional interference with contract and the separate tort of: __________
Intentional interference with prospective economic advantage
176
A plaintiff can establish a prima facie case for intentional economic interference by showing: (MC)
  • The breach caused damages to the plaintiff
  • But for the interference, the plaintiff would have received the benefit of the interest
  • A valid contract existed
  • Defendant intentionally interfered with the contract, causing breach.
  • Defendant knew of the contractual relationship
177
If the defendant in an Economic Interference case backs out of a contract, the remedy is __________.
Breach of contract
178
An aviation maintenance shop or FBO undercutting a competitor's price could be actionable. But it would not be,
because of the _______ _________ economy we have.
Free market
179
Intentional Economic Interference may have two causes of action: (Mc)
  • interference with contract
  • fraud in the inducement
  • interference with prospective economic advantage
  • Interference with privity
180
_________ law is the term that refers to "well established rules that are no longer subject to reasonable dispute." (Enter a one word response)
blackletter
181
It is not possible to make a binding promise for something over which one has no control.
  • False
  • True
182
The tort of interference with business relationships should be confined to cases in which
  • the defendant employed unlawful means to "stiff the competition"
  • intentional fraud is proven
  • only the parties of the contract are affected
  • all of these
183
Promissary fraud is not actionable unless
  • it was intentional
  • it involved a third party
  • it is part of a scheme to defraud
  • all of these
184
The defenses to Intentional Economic Interference are: (select all the apply)
  • the commerce clause
  • justification
  • priviledge
  • privity
185
It is possible to make a binding promise for something over which one has no control. This is called a ____________.
warranty
186
In law, an item other than real estate is known as
chattel
187
In law, an item other than real estate is known as
  • real property
  • possessions
  • personal belongings
  • none of these
  • tattles
188
Many actions involving the undercutting of a competitor's price may be actionable, but we do not want it to be tortious, because we have a ______ market economy.
  • free
  • closed
  • contract-based
  • litigation based
189
A plaintiff can establish a prima facie case for Intentional Economic Interference by showing: (MC)
  • the pricing at issue was at least 50% below market rate
  • the defendant intended to interfere
  • there is a valid contract between the plaintiff and a third party
  • the pricing adversely affected outside parties beyond the reach of the defendant
190
With Intentional interference with prospective economic advantage
  • the most common defense is the lack of privity
  • there would have been a contract but for the defendants actions
  • there is a contract with a third party
  • the plaintiff does not need to prove the case
191
If the defendant in a Intentional Economic Interference case, backs out of a contract, the remedy is
_____________.
  • breach of contract
  • the doctrine of res ipsa loquitor
  • comparative negligence
  • forseeability
192
Administrative control of a Federal Agency such as the FAA is accomplished mainly by the rules in
  • airline deregulation act
  • the DOT oversight committee
  • the Administrative Procedure Act
  • the Commerce Clause
193
Administrative Law is created by an Agency, which has been formed by
  • the FAA
  • by the people by popular vote each November
  • an act of Congress, which writes a type of law called an Organic Statute
  • the president of the united states
194
In a civil or criminal case the guilt or innocence of the defendant is determined by
  • always by the judge, even if a jury is present.
  • judge or jury (if there is one)
  • arbitrator, judge, mediator, or lawyer
  • judge or jury, because there will always be a jury
195
The burden of proof in a criminal case is beyond a preponderance of the evidence
  • True
  • False
196
One of the functions of law is
  • to resolve disputes
  • redistribute wealth
  • allow foreign nations to seize property in the U.S.
  • all of these
197
Resolving disputes is
  • all of these
  • one of the functions of law
  • limited to court room trials
  • not a function of law when it comes to conflicts over land
198
Apart from proof that there was no breach of duty, there are three principal defenses to tortious liability
  • False
  • True
199
The law of civil wrongs is a brief definition of
  • torts
  • the "but for" test
  • amicus curaie
  • administrative law
200
Apart from proof that there was no breach of duty, there are three principal defenses to tortious liability
  • True
  • False
201
What is the cornerstone of a highly successful economic system? Type in your one word answer.
competition
202
One of the differentiating factors between an Intentional Economic Interference case and a contract fraud case is that
  • Intentional Economic Interference does not involve intentional fraud
  • Fraud cases are remedied by comparative damages
  • Fraud contracts involve third parties who suffer economic harm
  • Economic Interference involves relationships with a third party resulting in harm
203
One of the defenses to the tort of Intentional Economic Interference is
  • commerce clause
  • economic inequity
  • competitive priviledge
  • breech of contract
204
Justifications are fact-intensive affirmative defenses.
  • False
  • True
205
What defenses are fact-intensive affirmative defenses for Intentional Economic Interference?
  • Fraud
  • Justifications
  • Unequal standing
  • Free-market
206
It is possible to make a binding promise for something over which one has no control. This is called a guarantee.
  • True
  • False
207
Intentional Economic Interference may have two causes of action, one of which is
  • fraud in the inducement
  • breech of contract
  • interference with prospective economic advantage
  • fraud in the factum
208
Gibbons v Ogden
  • was won by Ogden and established States rights of control over the waterways within the borders of the state
  • was the first major case which defined that Congress, not the States woud regulate interstate commerce
  • is also known as the Interstate Commerce case
  • was won by Gibbons and established States rights of control over the waterways within the borders of the state
209
Laws are created to (Mc)
  • maintain order
  • establish standards
  • protect rights
  • resolve disputes
  • reduce liberties
210
It is said the Constitution comes with a pencil and an eraser due to the language of article 5.
  • False
  • True
211
The reason the Act described on page 21 of the textbook was not effective was because
  • because of the 2nd amendment
  • There were different prices for different trip length
  • some customers paid more then others
  • the Railroads had set fares between themselves instead of by the free market
212
Exculpatory
tending to clear someone of blame or guilt
213
tending to clear someone of blame or guilt
Exculpatory
214
In fraud, what is the requirement called that the plaintiff either knew that the repre false or else acted recklessly as to the truth in making the statement
  • foreseability
  • Scienter
215
In a fraud case, the plaintiff must have relied upon the misrepresentation. There are two types of reliance: justifiable and
  • factum
  • actual
216
A good method to categorize all the tort causes of action for study, is to label them as either "lineal" or _________.
oblique
217
Lineal torts are the ones that involve some kind of direct injury to a person's body or _____.
Personal property
218
The elements for strict liability are the same as those for negligence with one powerful exception: ______:
duty-of-care & breach-of-duty elements are removed
219
The intentional property torts are trespass to land, trespass to chattels, and ______
conversion
220
The key defense against false imprisonment that keeps airlines from incurring liability for making passengers wait for the ding before getting out of their seats, is ___________.
consent
221
The tort of __________ is commonly called intentional infliction of emotional distress.
outrage
222
When the neighborhood kids come trick-or-treating, they will not be considered as trespassing because they will have a defense of _______ ________.
implied consent
223
An aircraft is an example of tangible property that does not qualify as real property. This is called a _________.
chattel
224
An intentional exercise of dominion or control over a chattel that so substantially interferes with the plaintiff's rights is known as ___________.
conversion
225
A fraud claim requires that the defendant made a misrepresentation to the plaintiff, that the plaintiff relied on it, and ______________.
damage to the plaintiff
226
The FAA regulation requires how much time to elapse between the last alcoholic drink and exercising the duties of a flight crew member?
8 hours
227
The operation of an aircraft takes place from the time any person boards the aircraft with the _______ _______ ______ until all such persons have disembarked.
Intention of Flight
228
CVR stands for _______ ________ _______.
cockpit voice recorder
229
A pilot does not need to be steering the aircraft in order to be considered "operating the aircraft" (T/F)
  • True
  • False
230
It is possible to be under the legal blood alcohol limit and still be in violation of the FAA regulation regarding 8 hours from "bottle to throttle" (T/F)
  • True
  • False
231
It is likely that Captain ______ in the Value Jet crash was incapacitated by smoke prior to the crash
Kubeck
232
A class D cargo compartment limits combustion because the compartment is what?
Sealed when closed to limit oxygen
233
In the Value Jet crash, the pilots were unable to extinguish the fire because?
No fire extinguishers in cargo bay
234
If the FAA revokes a pilot's certificate, that is the same as __________.
if the person never had a license, must start over
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