1What is pharmacology?
A broad description of a drug or medication that includes mechanism of action, pharmacokinetics/dynamics, drug interactions, adverse effects, and toxic effects.
2What is pharmacotherapeutics?
Pharmacology combined with disease state and patient considerations; it involves using medication in patients with various disease states.
3What is pharmacokinetics?
The study of what the body does to the drug, including absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination.
4What is pharmacodynamics?
The study of what the drug does to the body, including its mechanism of action.
5What must practitioners monitor when a patient is taking a medication?
Practitioners must monitor for efficacy (whether the drug is doing its intended job) while avoiding adverse effects (toxicities).
6What is a receptor in pharmacology?
A specific target where a medication exerts its effect, such as a membrane protein, enzyme, or nucleic acid, often described by the “lock and key hypothesis.”
7What are agonists?
Medications that bind to a receptor and activate it.
8What are antagonists?
Medications that bind to a receptor but do not have the exact structural features needed to activate it.
9What is the chemical name of a medication?
The specific chemical name, such as atorvastatin calcium, often long, burdensome, and hard to pronounce.
10What is the generic name of a medication?
An internationally recognized name, nonproprietary, with only one generic name per drug (e.g., atorvastatin).
11What is a brand name/proprietary name of a medication?
A patented property name from the pharmaceutical company that discovered or made the medication (e.g., Lipitor®).
12What are some common pharmaceutical product dosage forms?
Tablets, capsules, ointments, creams, sprays, lotions, etc.
13What is enteral administration?
Oral administration of a drug (PO).
14What is parenteral administration?
Administration involving a needle, such as intravenous (IV), intramuscular (IM), or subcutaneous (SC).
15What is topical administration?
Application of medication on the skin or mucous membranes for absorption, such as skin creams, vaginal products, or patches.
16What does systemic drug administration involve?
The circulation of medication through the vascular space, where most medications go once absorbed orally or through IV.
17What does the FDA do?
The Food and Drug Administration oversees the drug evaluation process in the USA and grants approval for the marketing of new drugs.
18What does the DEA do?
The Drug Enforcement Agency enforces the controlled substance laws and regulations of the United States.
19What legal actions can the DEA take against individuals involved in the drug trade?
The DEA can bring civil or criminal charges against those involved in growing, manufacturing, or distributing controlled substances.
20What is evaluated when classifying drugs into Schedules I-V?
The addiction potential of the substance.
21What is Schedule I for controlled substances?
Schedule I drugs are not considered medically necessary and are used for research only.
22What schedule drug is the MOST LIKELY to be abused?
Schedule I
23Give an example of a Schedule I drug.
Heroin or "Medical" Marijuana.
24True or False: Schedule II drugs are likely to be abused.
True
25Give examples of Schedule II drugs.
Narcotics like Morphine, fentanyl, and ADD/ADHD meds like Methylphenidate.
26Compare Schedule III and Schedule II drugs?
Safer and less likely to be abused than Schedule II drugs.
27Give an example of a Schedule III drug.
Combination products with APAP or ASA (e.g., codeine).
28Compare Schedule IV drugs to Schedule III?
Safer and less likely to be abused than Schedule III drugs.
29Provide examples of Schedule IV drugs.
Tramadol (Ultram) and Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam).
30What is the safest and least likely Schedule drug to be abused?
Schedule V
31Give an example of a Schedule V drug.
Expectorants with codeine.
32When was the first federal drug legislation passed in the U.S.?
1906
33What prompted the amendment to the Federal Food and Drug Act in 1938?
The deaths of over 100 children due to "elixir sulfanilamide."
34What did the Harris-Kefauver amendments require?
Proof of efficacy and documentation of safety in terms of the risk-to-benefit ratio.
35What is the purpose of preclinical testing in drug development?
To identify potential human toxicities and design tests to define the toxic mechanism.
36What must be filed with the FDA before clinical trials can begin?
An Investigational New Drug (IND) application.
37What is the main purpose of Phase IV in drug development?
To monitor the safety of the new drug in a more realistic setting.
38What is MedWatch?
The FDA’s program for reporting adverse reactions, product quality problems, and product use errors.
39What is pharmacogenetics?
The analysis of genetic variations that may influence a person's response to a drug.
40What is a fast-tracked drug?
A drug that meets unmet medical needs for patients with serious, life-threatening conditions.
41What does the Orphan Drug Amendment of 1983 provide?
Incentives for the development of drugs that treat diseases with fewer than 200,000 patients in the U.S.
42What is the FDA's definition of medical foods?
Foods specifically formulated for dietary management of diseases with distinctive nutritional needs that cannot be met by a normal diet alone.
43Four requirements of a Medical Food classification
1. Be specifically formulated for PO administration (not “naturally” occurring)
2. Be labeled for dietary management of a specific medical problem with distinctive nutritional requirements
3. Be intended for use under medical supervision (“RX only”)
4. Be intended for patient receiving ongoing medical care (ie. Requires regular instruction on the use of the medical food)
44What is the difference between "labeled" and "off-label" drug use?
"Labeled" use is FDA-approved for a specific indication, while "off-label" use refers to unapproved uses not studied by the manufacturer.
45What is a black box warning?
The most serious type of warning mandated by the U.S. FDA about potential adverse reactions or problems with a drug.
46What is a Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)?
An FDA-mandated strategy to ensure that the benefits of a drug outweigh its risks, often requiring special training for prescribers, patients, and pharmacists.
47Optometrists can prescribe which drugs from schedule II, III, and IV respectively?
Optometrists can prescribe hydrocodone (II), tylenol with codeine (III), and tramadol (IV)