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Missed Test 3 Questions

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1
Which is the first event to occur during the initiation of translation?

a. a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the 5-prime end of mRNA to expose the start codon
b. a large ribosomal subunit binds close to the 5-prime end of mRNA to form the initiation complex
c. the anticodon of a charged aminoacyl tRNA hydrogen bond to AUG on mRNA in the A-site
d. the A-site on a ribosome binds a charged tRNA
e. the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
  • a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the 5-prime end of mRNA to expose the start codon
  • a large ribosomal subunit binds close to the 5-prime end of mRNA to form the initiation complex
  • the anticodon of a charged aminoacyl tRNA hydrogen bond to AUG on mRNA in the A-site
  • the A-site on a ribosome binds a charged tRNA
  • the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
2
Which is the second event to occur during the initiation of translation?

a. a large ribosomal subunit binds to the initiation complex
b. a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the start codon on mRNA
c. the entry of a charged aminoacyl tRNA into the A-site and the polypeptide transfer to it from the P-site
d. the translocation of ribosome to the next codon and release of uncharged tRNA
e. the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
  • a large ribosomal subunit binds to the initiation complex
  • a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the start codon on mRNA
  • the entry of a charged aminoacyl tRNA into the A-site and the polypeptide transfer to it from the P-site
  • the translocation of ribosome to the next codon and release of uncharged tRNA
  • the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
3
Which is the third event of translation?

a. a large ribosomal subunit binds to the initiation complex
b. a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the start codon on mRNA
c. the entry of a charged aminoacyl tRNA into the A-site and the polypeptide transfer to it from the P-site
d. the translocation of ribosome to the next codon and release of uncharged tRNA
e. the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
  • a large ribosomal subunit binds to the initiation complex
  • a small ribosomal subunit binds close to the start codon on mRNA
  • the entry of a charged aminoacyl tRNA into the A-site and the polypeptide transfer to it from the P-site
  • the translocation of ribosome to the next codon and release of uncharged tRNA
  • the initiator charged tRNA binds to start codon on mRNA
4
What is the function of the release factor during translation in prokaryotes?

a. the release factor binds to stop codons on mRNA causing separation and release of the two ribosomal subunits
b. it releases an amino acid from charged tRNA to allow the formation of a peptide bond between amino acids
c. it catalyzes the release of energy from ATP to terminate translation
d. it releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides to enter the cytosol
e. it releases uncharged tRNA from ribosomes
  • the release factor binds to stop codons on mRNA causing separation and release of the two ribosomal subunits
  • it releases an amino acid from charged tRNA to allow the formation of a peptide bond between amino acids
  • it catalyzes the release of energy from ATP to terminate translation
  • it releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides to enter the cytosol
  • it releases uncharged tRNA from ribosomes
5
Which type of eukaryotic RNA polymerase catalyzes transcription of genes coding pre-mRNA?
  • RNA polymerase I
  • RNA polymerase II
  • RNA polymerase III
  • RNA polymerase IV
  • primase
6
A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is TAC. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon of AUG is which of the following?
  • TAC
  • AUG
  • ATG
  • UAC
  • GUA
7
During the synthesis of each polypeptide, which end of the polypeptide is synthesized first?
  • 5-prime end
  • amino end
  • 3-prime end
  • carboxyl end
  • 3-prime hydroxyl end
8
During the synthesis of each polypeptide, which end of the polypeptide is synthesized last?
  • 5-prime end
  • amino end
  • 3-prime end
  • carboxyl end
  • 3-prime hydroxyl end
9
The specific sequence of amino acids covalently bonded in a polypeptide forms which level of protein of protein structure?
  • basic structure
  • primary structure
  • secondary structure
  • tertiary structure
  • quaternary structure
10
Which chemical bonds link amino acids in a chain during the formation of the protein's secondary structure?
  • peptide bonds
  • hydrogen bonds
  • disulfide bonds
  • phosphodiester bonds
  • single ester bonds
11
The tertiary structure of a protein is described by which of the following?
  • the unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide
  • the organization of a polypeptide chain into an alpha helix shape
  • the overall protein structure resulting from the covalent bonding of 2 or more polypeptide subunits
  • the bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds
  • the order in which amino acids are joined in a polypeptide chain
12
Which level of protein structure is formed when 2 or more polypeptide chains are bonded together by disulfide bonds to form a biologically active protein molecule?
  • primary structure
  • secondary structure
  • tertiary structure
  • quaternary structure
13
The chemical bonding and interactions between the side chains (R groups) contribute to which level of polypeptide structure?
  • primary structure
  • secondary structure
  • tertiary structure
  • quaternary structure
14
As a polypeptide is synthesized in a cell, how would you expect the hydrophilic radical groups of amino acids to be orientated towards?
  • on the exterior of the protein, interacting with water
  • interacting with water molecules to form solutions
  • on the exterior of the folded protein interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
  • all of the above answer choices are expected of the radical group
  • in the interior of the folded protein, away from water, or in a transmembrane protein interacting with lipid fatty acid chains
15
Which of the following characteristics is directly related to the coding of a single amino acid during the process of translation?
  • the base sequence of the tRNA
  • the amino acetyl tRNA synthase
  • the three-base sequence of mRNA
  • the complementary of DNA and RNA
16
The tRNA has its 3' end projecting beyond its 5' end. Which of the following process will occur at this 3' hydroxyl end?
  • the amino acid binds covalently
  • the excess nucleotides (ACCA) will be cleaved off at the ribosome
  • the small and large subunits of the ribosome will attach to it
  • the 5' cap of the mRNA will become covalently bound
17
During the elongation phase of translation, which site in the ribosome represents the location where a codon is being read?

a. E site
b. P site
c. A site
d. the large ribosomal subunit
  • E site
  • P site
  • A site
  • the large ribosomal subunit
18
Which chemical reaction occurs in newly formed somatic tissue cells in female mammals to form Barr Bodies?
  • activation of the Barr gene on one of the two X chromosomes that then inactivates that chromosome
  • crossover between the XIST gene on one X chromosome and a related gene on an autosome
  • inactivation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome derived from the male parent
  • the removal of methyl (CH3) groups from cytosine nucleotides in the DNA of X chromosomes
  • random expression of the XIST gene resulting in the addition of a methyl group to a cytosine nucleotide of X chromosomal DNA to form a Barr body
19
The autosomal dominant trait expressed in Huntington's disease causes severe neural/ brain damage at approximately age 40. A heterozygous father whose father developed Huntington's disease marries a female whose parents are normal. What is the probability that their offspring will inherit the gene that causes Huntington's disease?
  • 25%
  • 50%
  • 75%
  • 100%
  • 0%
20
In the replication of DNA, a phosphodiester bond is formed between a phosphate group of the nucleotide being added to which functional group of the last nucleotide in the chain?
  • the 5' phosphate group
  • carbon number 6 of deoxyribose
  • the 3' OH (hydroxyl) group
  • a nitrogen atom of the purine or pyrimidine
  • the amino group
21
What is the function of DNA ligase during DNA replication?
  • it catalyzes phosphodiester bonding between the DNA of 2 Okazaki fragments
  • it unwinds the parental double helix
  • it stabilizes the unwound parental DNA
  • it catalyzes the formation of a phosphodiester bond between the DNA chain and the template chain
  • it synthesizes RNA nucleotides to make a primer
22
In human females, meiosis II produces how many haploid gametes?
  • one
  • two
  • three
  • four
  • eight
23
The ribonucleotide substrates molecules used for transcription in living cells are composed of which component molecules?
  • one ribose
  • either a purine or a pyrimidine
  • one ribose sugar ester bonded to one phosphate group, while bonded to either a purine or a pyrimidine
  • three phosphate groups ester bonded to a ribose which is covalently bonded to either a purine or a pyrimidine
  • one ribose molecule covalently bonded to either a purine or a pyrimidine
24
RNA polymerase catalyzes bonding which substrate molecules into a chain of RNA that is complementary to the DNA template?
  • dATP, dGTP, dCTP, and dUTP
  • the 20 different types of amino acids and tRNA molecules
  • ATP, GTP, CTP, and UTP
  • a single DNA template chain and deoxyribonucleotide triphosphates
  • rRNA, tRNA, and amino acids
25
Which can eukaryotic genes located in euchromatin regions of chromosomes be used for?
  • they can be inhibited
  • they can be duplicated
  • they can be actively transcribed
  • they can be repressed
  • they can be unregulated
26
The nuclear envelope in eukaryotic cells consists of which of the following?
  • one concentric membrane with pores made of protein complexes
  • two concentric membranes separated by space with protein pores at intervals to regulate passage of materials
  • chromatin, histone proteins, and ribosomes
  • DNA, RNA, and proteins
  • chromosomes, genes, loci, and alleles
27
Each eukaryotic chromosome consists of which of the following?
  • series of nucleosomes wrapped around 2 DNA molecules
  • the different cell types of an organism consist of unique chromosomes which consist of different numbers of genes
  • one gene per chromosome
  • a single strand of DNA
  • a single linear DNA molecule complexed with nucleosomes
28
During the initiation of transcription in eukaryotic cells, which proteins bind to the specific promoter to facilitate the binding of RNA polymerase II to the promoter and initiate transcription of the gene?
  • transcriptional factors
  • primase
  • RNA polymerase
  • DNA polymerase
  • helicase
29
Which of the following statements best describes the significance of the TATA box in the promoters of eukaryotes?
  • it sets the reading frame of the mRNA during translation
  • it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding during translation
  • it is the recognition site for the binding of a specific transcription factor
  • it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding during transcription
  • it is the recognition site for helicase to bind activate separation of DNA chains
30
Which of the following statements correctly describes a ribozyme?
  • it is a catalyst that uses RNA as a substrate
  • it is an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
  • it is an RNA with specific catalytic activity
  • it is an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
  • it is the catalyst for the synthesis of ribosomes
31
In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons code for which of the following?
  • the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon
  • the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein
  • the promoter sequence
  • the secondary structure of each domain formed in the polypeptide product
  • the number of start sites for transcription
32
Which are the most stable molecules involved in eukaryotic protein synthesis?
  • pre mRNA
  • polypeptides
  • uncharged tRNA
  • charged tRNA
  • the mRNA
33
Which describes how some eukaryotic DNA sequences function as introns in tissue cells, also function as exons in other types of tissue cells?
  • differential gene repression in the different types of cells
  • splicing and recombination of DNA in the different types of cells
  • gene amplification in some tissue cells and none occurs in other tissue cells
  • alternative splicing of pre-mRNA into mRNA in the different types of cells
  • splicing of DNA genes occurs differently in each type of cell
34
Which explains why nerve cells, bone cells, and skin cells of an individual contain the same DNA genome, but the respective proteins they synthesize varies drastically?
  • alternative gene splicing
  • cytokinesis or cell division during the cell cycle
  • differential expression of genes in the various tissue types
  • crossing over between non-sister chromatids of a tetrad during prophase I of meiosis
  • the process of evolution
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