1How is TCR and BCR diversity generated?
Through V(D)J recombination with millions of specificities.
2How is MHC diversity generated?
Through inherited genetic variation with thousands of specificities.
3Does pathogen exposure change an individual's MHC repertoire?
No; MHC types remain fixed throughout life.
4What is the purpose of positive selection in the thymus?
Ensure developing T cells can recognize self-MHC without reacting to self-peptides.
5What is the purpose of negative selection in the thymus?
Remove strongly self-reactive T cells before they leave the thymus to prevent autoimmunity.
6What does the Aire transcription factor do?
Allows thymic epithelial cells to express tissue-specific antigens by mTECs
- express antigens not in the thymus (like insulin)

7What can happen to strongly self-reactive T cells during negative selection?
They undergo apoptosis or become regulatory T cells (Tregs).
8What four characteristics do mature T cells have when leaving the thymus?
1. Functional TCR, recognize antigen
2. CD4 or CD8 commitment (lineage decision)
3. Self-MHC recognition (positive selection)
4. Do not react to host antigens (Central tolerance/negative selection)
9What is a naïve T cell?
A mature T cell that has not yet encountered its specific antigen.
10Where do antigens commonly enter the body during vaccination?
Through the skin or mucosal surfaces.
11Where are naïve T cells typically activated after vaccination?
In the draining lymph node.
12What transports antigens and immune cells from tissues to lymph nodes?
Afferent lymphatic vessels.
13What is the primary function of dendritic cells (DCs)?
Capture antigens and activate naïve T cells, guided by chemokines, activated by PRR
14Why are dendritic cells considered a bridge between innate and adaptive immunity?
They detect danger signals and present antigens to activate T cells.
15What signals activate dendritic cells in peripheral tissues? (3)
PAMPs, DAMPs, and pro-inflammatory cytokines.
16What happens to antigen uptake when dendritic cells become activated?
It decreases as the cells mature.
17Why do activated dendritic cells increase chemokine receptor expression?
To migrate toward draining lymph nodes.
18Where do activated dendritic cells migrate within lymph nodes?
T-cell zones.
19Which MHC molecule presents intracellular antigens to CD8+ T cells?
MHC I.

20Which MHC molecule presents extracellular antigens to CD4+ T cells?
MHC II.

21A dog is infected with a virus that produces proteins inside its cells. Which T cells recognize these peptides on MHC I?
CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.
22What is signal 1 of dendritic cells during naïve T-cell activation?
Antigen-specific recognition of a peptide-MHC complex by the TCR.
23What is signal 2 of dendritic cells during naïve T-cell activation?
Co-stimulation between CD28 on T cells and CD80/CD86 on dendritic cells.
24What is signal 3 of dendritic cells during naïve T-cell activation?
Polarization; Cytokines and other signals that determine T-cell differentiation.
25Which cells are especially important for activating naïve T cells?
Dendritic cells.
26What happens when a naïve T cell receives the appropriate activation signals?
It proliferates and differentiates into effector T cells.
27What is clonal expansion? How long between 1st and 2nd generation? How long between 2nd and 3rd generation?
1. Rapid multiplication of antigen-specific T cells with identical TCR specificity.
2. 24 hours
3. 4-8 hr per division
28Why is the primary adaptive immune response relatively slow?
Naïve antigen-specific T cells must first become activated and proliferate.

29What determines which CD4+ helper T-cell subset develops?
Polarizing cytokines released by dendritic cells (signal 3) and then T helper cell subsets will go to cytokines

30What is the main function of regulatory T cells (Tregs)?
Suppress excessive immune responses and maintain tolerance.
31How do CD8+ cytotoxic T cells destroy target cells?
Release perforin and granzymes to induce apoptosis.

32What does perforin do during cytotoxic T-cell killing?
Helps form pores that allow granzymes to enter target cells.

33What do granzymes do during cytotoxic T-cell killing?
Trigger apoptosis in the target cell.

34How do NK cells differ from CD8+ cytotoxic T cells?
NK cells kill without antigen-specific TCR recognition (without MHC1); CD8+ T cells recognize specific peptide-MHC I complexes.
35How does MHC I affect NK-cell activity?
Normal MHC I expression provides an inhibitory signal that prevents killing, DO NOT KILL
36A virus-infected cell loses MHC I expression. Which immune cell is more likely to kill it?
Natural killer (NK) cell.
37Why might a CD8+ T cell kill an infected cell that still expresses MHC I?
Its TCR recognizes a specific viral peptide presented on MHC I.
38Where do activated effector T cells travel after leaving lymph nodes?
Through circulation to peripheral tissues where inflammation is occurring.

39What happens to most effector T cells after an infection is cleared?
They undergo apoptosis as the immune response contracts.
40What happens to memory T cells after an infection is cleared?
They survive and provide long-term immune memory.
41Why is the secondary T-cell response faster than the primary response?
Memory T cells are already antigen-experienced and can respond rapidly.
42What is the purpose of an ELISPOT assay (quantiFERON assay)?
Determine frequency of TB specific IFNg secreting T-cells
43What does each spot in an ELISPOT assay represent?
An individual cytokine-secreting cell.
44Why are antigen-presenting cells needed in an antigen-stimulated T-cell ELISPOT assay?
They process and present antigen to activate antigen-specific T cells.
45A dog's ELISPOT assay produces many IFN-γ spots after antigen stimulation. What does this suggest?
The sample contains antigen-responsive T cells that secrete IFN-γ.