TYPES OF DONATION AND BLOOD DONOR DEFERRALS

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1
Identification: Identify the type of donation where blood is collected from a donor for transfusion to another person of the same species.
Allogeneic donation.
2
Fill in the blank: Allogeneic donation requires careful screening and selection to determine if donating a volume of ________ mL is safe.
450-mL.
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3
Enumeration: List three specific pieces of donor registration information required under identification and documentation for an allogeneic donation.
Name, address, and age.
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4
Fill in the blank: The acceptable physiological respiratory rate for an allogeneic blood donor is ________ bpm.
12-20 bpm.
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5
Fill in the blank: Prospective blood donors who are at least ________ years old can donate allogeneic blood without guardian consent.
18-years.
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6
Fill in the blank: Prospective allogeneic blood donors aged ________ years require mandatory guardian consent to donate blood.
16-17 years.
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7
Fill in the blank: Prospective allogeneic blood donors aged ≥60 years require ________ discretion to donate blood.
Physician.
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8
Fill in the blank: An allogeneic blood donor must weigh at least ________ kg (110 lb).
50-kg.
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9
Identification: Identify the most commonly used anticoagulant formula mentioned for blood collection and apheresis.
ACD (Acid Citrate Dextrose Formula A).
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10
Fill in the blank: The minimum acceptable hemoglobin requirement for an allogeneic blood donor is ≥******** g/dL.
12.5-g/dL.
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11
Fill in the blank: The minimum acceptable hematocrit requirement for an allogeneic blood donor is ≥********%.
38-%.
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12
Fill in the blank: The maximum acceptable body temperature for an allogeneic blood donor is ≤********°C (99.5°F).
37.5-°C.
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13
Fill in the blank: The maximum allowable systolic blood pressure for an allogeneic blood donor is ________ mmHg.
180-mmHg.
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14
Fill in the blank: By practice, the standard acceptable systolic blood pressure range for an allogeneic donor is ________ mmHg.
90-160 mmHg.
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15
Fill in the blank: The maximum acceptable diastolic blood pressure for an allogeneic blood donor is ≤******** mmHg.
100-mmHg.
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16
Fill in the blank: The acceptable physiological pulse rate range for an allogeneic blood donor is ________ bpm.
50-100 bpm.
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17
True or False: For athletes with a high exercise tolerance, a pulse rate of less than 50 bpm is acceptable for blood donation.
True.
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18
Enumeration: Name two adjustments that must be made using a specialized formula if an allogeneic donor weighs less than 50 kg (110 lb).
Volume of blood collected and amount of anticoagulant.
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19
Identification: State the mathematical formula used to calculate the allowable amount of blood to be collected if a donor's weight is less than 50 kg.
(Donor's weight x 450) / 50 kg.
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20
Identification: Identify the type of donation involving the removal and storage of a patient's own blood for later use during or after medical/surgical procedures.
Autologous donation.
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21
Enumeration: Name three distinct clinical advantages of autologous blood donation over allogeneic blood donation.
No risk of transfusion-transmitted diseases, no transfusion reactions, and no alloimmunization.
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22
Identification: Identify the type of autologous donation where blood is collected before elective surgery and stored for reinfusion during or after the procedure.
Preoperative collection (Predeposit).
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23
Identification: Identify the type of autologous donation where blood is collected after anesthesia and before surgery, and simultaneously replaced with crystalloids or colloids.
Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution (ANH).
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24
Fill in the blank: Acute Normovolemic Hemodilution utilizes crystalloids, colloids, or volume expanders to maintain normal ********.
Blood volume.
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25
Identification: Identify the type of autologous donation where blood lost during surgery is collected via vacuum-assisted devices, washed with saline, and concentrated.
Intraoperative collection.
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26
Fill in the blank: Intraoperative autologous collection concentrates the collected blood cells to a target hematocrit of ********%.
50-60%.
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27
Identification: Identify the type of autologous donation where blood is collected from surgical drainage and reinfused, with or without processing.
Postoperative collection (Postoperative salvage).
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28
Identification: Identify the specific filter used during postoperative salvage reinfusion to remove cellular debris.
Microaggregate filter.
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29
True or False: Under autologous donation general requirements, there is no absolute age restriction, but by practice it depends on the facility and is usually ≥10 years.
True.
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30
Fill in the blank: The minimum acceptable hemoglobin requirement for an autologous blood donor is ≥******** g/dL.
11-g/dL.
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31
Fill in the blank: The minimum acceptable hematocrit requirement for an autologous blood donor is ≥********%.
33-%.
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32
Enumeration: Name two severe medical conditions that must be completely absent for an autologous blood donation to be acceptable.
Bacteremia and severe cardiovascular or pulmonary disease.
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33
Fill in the blank: The last autologous blood donation procedure must occur at least ________ hours (3 days) before the scheduled surgery.
72-hours.
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34
Fill in the blank: To perform an autologous blood donation, the procedure must strictly be backed by a ________ order or prescription.
Physician's.
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35
Identification: Define the term derived from the Greek "aphairos" meaning to separate or remove, where blood is withdrawn, components are separated, and the rest is returned to the donor.
Apheresis.
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36
Identification: Identify the type of apheresis whose purpose is to collect a high yield of platelets for patients with quantity or quality platelet function disorders.
Plateletpheresis.
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37
Fill in the blank: To qualify for a plateletpheresis procedure, a donor's baseline platelet count must be ≥******** x 10^3 / µL.
150-.
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38
Fill in the blank: The mandatory donation interval for plateletpheresis requires procedures to be at least ________ days apart.
2-days.
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39
Fill in the blank: A blood donor can undergo a plateletpheresis procedure a maximum of ________ times per week.
2-times.
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40
Fill in the blank: One single donor platelet (SDP) product collected via apheresis is equivalent to ________ random donor platelets (RDPs).
6-8 RDPs.
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41
Fill in the blank: Quality standards dictate that ≥********% of apheresis platelet products must contain ≥3.0 x 10^11 platelets.
75-%.
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42
Fill in the blank: At the end of its storage period, the pH of a plateletpheresis product must be ≥********.
≥6.2
43
Identification: Identify the type of apheresis aimed at collecting immune plasma rich in specific antibodies for therapeutic use in immunocompromised patients.
Plasmapheresis.
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44
Fill in the blank: Frequent plasmapheresis donors have a donation interval of every 2 days, with a maximum of ________ donations per week.
2-donations.
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45
Fill in the blank: For frequent plasmapheresis donors, the baseline total protein test result must be at least ________ g/dL.
6-g/dL.
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46
Fill in the blank: For infrequent or serial plasmapheresis donors, the required mandatory donation interval is ________ weeks.
4-weeks.
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47
Identification: Identify the type of apheresis used to collect granulocytes for transfusion in patients with severe infections or neutropenia unresponsive to antibiotics.
Leukapheresis.
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48
Enumeration: Name three enhancement agents administered during leukapheresis to increase granulocyte yield or WBC degranulation.
HES (Hydroxyethyl Starch), Corticosteroids, and G-CSF.
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49
Fill in the blank: Enhancement agents for leukapheresis are administered ________ hours before collection to effectively boost the granulocyte yield.
12-24 hours.

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50
Identification: Identify the purpose of erythrocytapheresis.
To collect red blood cells for transfusion purposes.
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51
Fill in the blank: A female donor for erythrocytapheresis must weigh at least ________ lbs.
150-lbs.
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52
Fill in the blank: A male donor for erythrocytapheresis must be at least 5'1" and weigh at least ________ lbs.
130-lbs.
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53
Fill in the blank: The minimum hematocrit requirement for a male erythrocytapheresis donor is ≥________%.
40-%.
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54
Fill in the blank: Erythrocytapheresis collection consists of 2 units of RBCs or 1 RBC unit plus ________.
Plasma/platelets.
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55
Identification: Identify the purpose of therapeutic apheresis.
To remove specific blood components or disease-causing substances to treat or alleviate symptoms.
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56
Identification: Identify the type of therapeutic apheresis that targets cellular components.
Therapeutic Cytapheresis.
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57
Identification: Identify the type of therapeutic apheresis that targets plasma components.
Therapeutic Plasmapheresis.
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58
Identification: Identify the type of therapeutic apheresis that targets platelets.
Therapeutic Thrombocytopheresis.
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59
Identification: Identify the type of therapeutic apheresis that targets white blood cells.
Therapeutic Leukapheresis.
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60
Fill in the blank: For PCV-pancytosis, the clinical objective is to ________ the disease-causing component.
Remove.
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61
Identification: Identify the category of deferral where a prospective donor is unable to donate blood for someone else for an unspecified period of time due to current regulatory requirements.
Indefinite deferral.
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62
True or False: A donor under an indefinite deferral would not be able to donate blood until the current requirement changes.
True.
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63
Identification: A history of parenteral drug use results in what category of deferral?
Indefinite deferral.
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64
Fill in the blank: The presence of skin lesions, multiple puncture marks, or scars on the donor's arm results in an ________ deferral.
Indefinite.
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65
Fill in the blank: Donors with a history of hepatitis after their ________ birthday are indefinitely deferred.
11-th.
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66
Fill in the blank: A donor who spent 3 months in the UK from 1980 through ________ receives an indefinite deferral.
1996-.
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67
Fill in the blank: A donor who spent 5 years in Europe from ________ to the present receives an indefinite deferral.
1980-.
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68
Fill in the blank: An indefinite deferral is applied to anyone who lived in England for 1 year in the year ________.
1989-.
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69
Identification: Identify the specific hepatitis test that, if positive, results in an indefinite deferral.
HBsAg.
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70
Fill in the blank: A reactive test for anti-HBc on more than ________ occasion results in an indefinite deferral.
One.
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71
Enumeration: Name two specific parasitic diseases that result in an indefinite blood donor deferral.
Babesiosis and Chagas Disease.
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72
Enumeration: Name two types of hematologic/lymphatic cancers that result in an indefinite deferral.
Leukemia and Lymphoma.
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73
Identification: Identify the category of deferral where a prospective donor is unable to donate blood for a limited period of time.
Temporary deferral.
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74
Fill in the blank: Exposure of mucous membranes to blood results in a temporary deferral period of ********.
1-year.
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75
True or False: Nonsterile skin or needle penetration triggers a 1-year deferral period.
True.
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76
Identification: Identify the deferral length for an individual who has had sexual contact with someone positive for HBsAg, viral hepatitis, or HIV.
1-year deferral.
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77
Fill in the blank: Incarceration or imprisonment for ≥******** hours results in a 1-year deferral due to potential exposure to infectious diseases.
72-hours.
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78
Enumeration: Name two sexually transmitted bacterial infections whose history requires a 1-year deferral.
Syphilis and Gonorrhea.
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79
True or False: Receiving a blood transfusion or a tissue transplant requires a 1-year deferral.
True.
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80
Identification: Getting a tattoo or skin piercing results in what length of temporary deferral?
1-year deferral.
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81
Fill in the blank: Victims of ________ are subject to a 1-year temporary blood donor deferral.
Rape.
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82
Fill in the blank: A donor can undergo a maximum of ________ platelet apheresis procedures per year.
24-.
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83
Fill in the blank: According to the AABB, the deferral period following an allogeneic whole blood (WB) donation is ________ weeks.
8-weeks.
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84
Fill in the blank: In the Philippines, the deferral period following a 450mL whole blood donation is ________ weeks.
12-weeks.
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85
Fill in the blank: The mandatory deferral period required after a double red cell unit apheresis is ________ weeks.
16-weeks.
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86
Fill in the blank: Under AABB guidelines, a donor is temporarily deferred for ________ weeks after childbirth.
6-weeks.
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87
Fill in the blank: In the Philippines, a donor is deferred for ________ months after delivery.
9-months
88
Fill in the blank: In the Philippines, the post-delivery deferral may be ___ months after weaning.
3 months.
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89
Fill in the blank: The temporary deferral period required after a tooth extraction is ________ days.
3-days.
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90
Fill in the blank: The presence of mouth ulcers, white patches, or oral thrush carries a deferral period of ________.
2-3 weeks.
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91
Identification: Identify the HIV/AIDS-associated malignancy characterized by purplish-blue lesions on the skin.
Kaposi sarcoma.
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92
Fill in the blank: An acute febrile episode or recent alcohol intake requires a temporary deferral of ________ hours before whole blood donation.
12-24 hours.
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93
Fill in the blank: A visit to countries with SARS results in a ________ deferral if the individual was infected.
28-days.
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94
Fill in the blank: A confirmed clinical diagnosis of malaria requires a deferral of ________ years after becoming asymptomatic.
3-years.
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95
Fill in the blank: A prior resident of a malaria-endemic country who left less than 3 years ago faces a ________ deferral if asymptomatic.
1-year.
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96
True or False: Travel to a malaria-endemic country, but remaining within a non-endemic area for more than 24 hours, results in no deferral.
True.
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97
True or False: A previous history of Tuberculosis that has been treated fully and is no longer active results in no deferral.
True.
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98
True or False: Recipients of recombinant type growth hormone face no blood donor deferral.
True.
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99
Identification: Identify the category of deferral where a prospective donor will never be eligible to donate blood for someone else.
Permanent deferral.
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100
True or False: Donors under a permanent deferral status may still be eligible to donate autologous blood.
True.
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101
Fill in the blank: Men-to-men sexual contact since the year ________ results in a permanent deferral.
1977-.
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102
True or False: Men and women who have engaged in sex for money or drugs since 1977 are permanently deferred.
True.
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103
Identification: What high-risk occupation is explicitly associated with a permanent blood donor deferral?
Prostitution.
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104
Fill in the blank: Receiving growth hormone derived from human-derived ________ results in a permanent deferral.
Pituitary.
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105
True or False: A positive laboratory test for Hepatitis causes a permanent donor deferral.
True.
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106
Identification: A previous blood donation associated with the transmission of HCV, HIV, or HTLV results in what category of deferral?
Permanent deferral.
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107
Enumeration: List three medical or transplant-related risk factors for Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) that result in a permanent deferral.
Contaminated neurosurgical equipment, cornea transplants, and dura mater transplants.
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108
True or False: Having an immediate family member diagnosed with Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) results in a permanent deferral.
True.
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109
Identification: Identify the animal-derived substance (associated with Mad Cow disease in cattle) that results in a permanent deferral if received by a donor.
Bovine insulin.
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110
True or False: Having a bleeding condition, blood disease, or a history of receiving clotting factor concentrates results in a permanent deferral.
True.
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111
Identification: Identify the teratogenic psoriasis medication that causes congenital malformations and results in a permanent deferral.
Tegison/Etretinate.
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112
Fill in the blank: Soriatane, a medication used for the treatment of psoriasis, requires a deferral period of ________ years.
3-years.
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113
Fill in the blank: Avodart, used in the treatment of Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH), requires a deferral period of ________ months.
6-months.
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114
Enumeration: Name three medications (used for baldness, acne, or BPH) that carry a 1-month deferral period.
Propecia, Accutane/Isotretinoin, and Proscar/Finasteride.
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115
True or False: For whole blood (WB) donation, taking Aspirin or aspirin-derived products results in no deferral.
True.
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116
Fill in the blank: For platelet (Plt) donation, the use of Aspirin requires a deferral period of ________ days.
3-days.
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117
Fill in the blank: The medication Piroxicam requires a temporary deferral of ________ hours before a whole blood donation.
48-hours.
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118
Enumeration: List the four vaccines or immune globulins that carry a 12-month deferral period.
Rabies vaccine (post-bite), Hepatitis B Immune globulin (HBIg), Gamma globulin, and Rh Immune globulin (RhoGam).
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119
Enumeration: Identify two live attenuated vaccines that carry a 4-week (1 month) deferral period.
German measles (Rubella) and Chicken pox (Varicella Zoster virus).
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120
Enumeration: Name five live attenuated vaccines that require a 2-week deferral period.
Measles (Rubeola), Oral Polio (Sabin vaccine), Mumps, Oral typhoid, or Yellow fever.
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121
True or False: Toxoids, killed, synthetic viral, bacterial, or rickettsial vaccines require no deferral if the donor remains completely asymptomatic.
True.
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122
Enumeration: Name five examples of toxoids, killed, or synthetic vaccines that result in no deferral for asymptomatic donors.
Cholera, Anthrax, DPT, Influenza, or Tetanus.
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123
True or False: An asymptomatic donor who received a nonreplicating, inactivated, or mRNA-based COVID-19 vaccine requires no deferral.
True.
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124
Fill in the blank: A symptomatic recipient of an mRNA-based COVID-19 vaccine must be deferred for ________ days after recovering from the infection.
14-days.
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125
Fill in the blank: Receiving a live-attenuated viral COVID-19 vaccine or being uncertain of which COVID-19 vaccine was administered requires a deferral of ________ weeks.
2-weeks.
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