Cardiac Action Potentials and Contraction

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1
What are the four phases of the cardiac contractile action potential?
Phase 0: Na⁺ channels open and Na⁺ enters; phase 1: Na⁺ channels close; phase 2: Ca²⁺ channels open and fast K⁺ channels close; phase 3: Ca²⁺ channels close and slow K⁺ channels open; phase 4: resting potential.
2
What causes the plateau in a cardiac contractile cell action potential?
Ca²⁺ entry through open calcium channels while fast K⁺ channels are closed.
3
Why is the cardiac contractile cell action potential plateau important?
It extends the action potential and refractory period, preventing sustained contractions.
4
What is the resting membrane potential of a cardiac contractile cell?
\$-90\$ mV.
5
What is the usual starting potential of a cardiac pacemaker cell?
\$-60\$ mV.
6
What causes the pacemaker potential to rise toward threshold?
Net Na⁺ entry through funny (If) channels, reinforced by Ca²⁺ entry.
7
What ion causes the rising phase of a cardiac pacemaker action potential?
Ca²⁺.
8
How does the contractile myocardium repolarize?
Ca²⁺ channels close and K⁺ exits the cell.
9
How does the autorhythmic myocardium repolarize?
K⁺ exits the cell.
10
How does cardiac contractile muscle differ from skeletal muscle in action potential duration?
Cardiac contractile action potentials last over 200 ms; skeletal muscle action potentials last about 1–2 ms.
11
What causes the long refractory period in cardiac contractile cells?
Delayed resetting of Na⁺ channel gates until the end of the action potential.
12
What are the two major factors that determine cardiac contraction force?
The amount of Ca²⁺ bound to troponin and sarcomere length.
13
What determines the number of active cardiac crossbridges?
The amount of Ca²⁺ bound to troponin.
14
What is the normal resting membrane potential of cardiac contractile myocardium?
\$-90\$ mV.
15
What is the usual resting membrane potential range of skeletal muscle?
\$-70\$ to \$-80\$ mV.
16
What is the usual duration of an autorhythmic myocardial action potential?
Variable, generally 150 ms or longer.
17
How does parasympathetic stimulation decrease heart rate?
It increases K⁺ permeability and decreases Ca²⁺ permeability, slowing pacemaker depolarization.
18
How does sympathetic stimulation increase heart rate?
It increases Na⁺ and Ca²⁺ permeability in pacemaker cells, speeding pacemaker depolarization.
19
Which receptors mediate sympathetic stimulation of cardiac pacemaker cells?
β₁-adrenergic receptors.
20
Which autonomic division normally dominates tonic control of heart rate?
The parasympathetic division.
21
What is contractility?
The intrinsic ability of a cardiac muscle fiber to contract at a given fiber length.
22
What is preload?
The degree of stretch of cardiac muscle before contraction.
23
What is a positive inotropic agent?
A substance that increases cardiac contractility.
24
What are examples of positive inotropic agents listed in the slides?
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, and digitalis.
25
How do catecholamines increase cardiac contractility?
They increase Ca²⁺ storage with phospholamban.
26
What is the cardiovascular system's pressure reservoir?
The arterial system.
27
What is the cardiovascular system's volume reservoir?
The venous system.
28
Which blood vessels are primarily manipulated to redirect blood flow?
Arterioles.
29
What structures can close off capillaries in a capillary bed?
Precapillary sphincters.
30
What is the function of metarterioles?
They can act as bypass channels when blood flow bypasses capillaries.
31
What happens when precapillary sphincters relax?
Blood flows through the capillaries in the bed.
32
What happens when precapillary sphincters constrict?
Blood bypasses the capillaries through metarterioles.
33
What are the main factors that determine mean arterial pressure?
Blood volume, cardiac output, and resistance to blood flow.
34
What determines cardiac output?
Heart rate and stroke volume.
35
What determines blood volume?
Fluid intake and fluid loss, regulated in part by the kidneys.
36
What determines resistance to blood flow in the arterioles?
Arteriole diameter.
37
How does sympathetic stimulation change arteriole diameter?
Norepinephrine acting on α receptors causes vasoconstriction.
38
What happens when sympathetic nerve signal frequency to an arteriole decreases?
The arteriole dilates.
39
What happens when sympathetic nerve signal frequency to an arteriole increases?
The arteriole constricts.
40
What is myogenic autoregulation?
A local response in which vascular smooth muscle adjusts its contraction to regulate blood flow.
41
What happens when vascular smooth muscle is stretched?
Mechanically gated Ca²⁺ channels open, causing contraction that resists the stretch.
42
What are paracrine signals in local blood flow control?
Chemical signals secreted by vascular endothelium or nearby cells that influence vascular smooth muscle.
43
What is active hyperemia?
Increased blood flow associated with increased tissue metabolic activity.
44
What is reactive hyperemia?
Increased blood flow following a period of reduced or blocked blood flow.
45
Which chemical mediators are identified in the slides as potent vasodilators?
Nitric oxide, kinins, and histamine.
46
What happens to blood flow in neighboring vessels when one arteriole constricts?
Flow is diverted toward lower-resistance vessels.
47
What is the total flow into and out of a group of parallel vessels?
The total flow into the vessels equals the total flow out.
48
What are continuous capillaries?
Capillaries with endothelial junctions that allow water and small dissolved solutes to pass.
49
What are fenestrated capillaries?
Capillaries with larger pores that allow greater exchange.
50
Where are fenestrated capillaries found according to the slides?
The kidneys and intestines.
51
What is transcytosis?
Movement of proteins and macromolecules across endothelial cells in vesicles.
52
Why is blood velocity slowest in capillaries?
The total cross-sectional area of capillaries is greatest.
53
Where is blood velocity fastest in the systemic circulation?
The aorta, where total cross-sectional area is smallest.
54
What are controllable cardiovascular disease risk factors listed in the slides?
Smoking, obesity, sedentary lifestyle, and untreated hypertension.
55
What are non-controllable cardiovascular disease risk factors listed in the slides?
Sex, age, and family history.
56
How does diabetes mellitus contribute to cardiovascular disease?
It is a metabolic disorder that contributes to the development of atherosclerosis.
57
How is atherosclerosis characterized in the slides?
An inflammatory process associated with increased blood cholesterol and triglycerides.
58
What does apoB do in relation to LDL?
ApoB combines with LDL receptors.
59
What are the four globin molecules identified in the slides?
Alpha, beta, gamma, and delta.
60
How many heme groups does hemoglobin contain?
Four.
61
What is the usual globin composition of hemoglobin described in the slides?
Two alpha and two beta chains.
62
What is heme?
A porphyrin ring with an iron atom at its center.
63
Where does the body obtain iron for hemoglobin?
From the diet.
64
What protein transports iron in the blood?
Transferrin.
65
Where is iron taken up for hemoglobin production?
In the bone marrow.
66
Where is excess iron stored?
In the liver as ferritin.
67
What prevents platelets from adhering to intact blood vessel endothelium?
Prostacyclin and nitric oxide released by intact endothelium.
68
What does exposed collagen do during platelet plug formation?
It binds and activates platelets.
69
What do activated platelets release during platelet plug formation?
Platelet factors that attract additional platelets.
70
How is the platelet plug formed?
Platelets adhere to exposed collagen, become activated, release factors, attract more platelets, and aggregate.
71
What are the two pathways that begin coagulation?
The intrinsic pathway and the extrinsic pathway.
72
What is another name for the intrinsic coagulation pathway?
The contact activation pathway.
73
Which clotting factor is associated with the intrinsic pathway in the slides?
Factor XII.
74
What is another name for the extrinsic coagulation pathway?
The cell injury pathway.
75
Which clotting factor is associated with the extrinsic pathway in the slides?
Factor III.
76
Which factor begins the common coagulation pathway?
Factor X.
77
What does thrombin do during coagulation?
It converts fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin polymers.
78
What happens to fibrin during clot formation?
Fibrin fibers become part of the clot and trap red blood cells.
79
What enzyme breaks down fibrin?
Plasmin.
80
How is plasmin formed?
Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) activates plasminogen into plasmin.
81
What is fibrinolysis?
The breakdown of fibrin in a clot.
82
What are the four functions of the respiratory system?
Gas exchange, regulation of body pH, protection from inhaled pathogens and irritants, and vocalization.
83
What determines bulk flow in the respiratory system?
Air flows from higher pressure to lower pressure.
84
What creates pressure gradients for respiratory bulk flow?
A muscular pump.
85
What primarily influences resistance to airflow?
The diameter of the airways.
86
What is the function of an alveolar macrophage?
It ingests foreign material.
87
Which alveolar cell performs gas exchange?
The Type I alveolar cell.
88
Which alveolar cell produces surfactant?
The Type II alveolar cell.
89
What is Boyle's Law?
At constant temperature, gas pressure is inversely related to gas volume.
90
What is the equation for Boyle's Law?
\$P_1V_1=P_2V_2\$.
91
What happens to gas pressure when volume decreases by half, according to Boyle's Law?
Pressure doubles.
92
What is lung compliance?
The ability of the lungs to stretch.
93
What happens when lung compliance is high?
The lungs stretch easily.
94
What happens when lung compliance is low?
More force is required to stretch the lungs.
95
Which conditions are listed as causes of low lung compliance?
Restrictive lung diseases, pulmonary fibrosis, and inadequate surfactant production.
96
What is elastance?
The ability of the lungs to return to resting volume after the stretching force is released.
97
Which disease is associated with altered elastance in the slides?
Emphysema.
98
What is the Law of Laplace for alveoli?
\$P=\frac\$.
99
What do the variables in the Law of Laplace represent?
\$P\$ is pressure, \$T\$ is surface tension, and \$r\$ is radius.
100
How does radius affect pressure when surface tension is the same?
A smaller radius produces higher pressure.
101
How does surfactant affect surface tension?
It decreases surface tension.
102
How does surfactant help equalize pressure between alveoli of different sizes?
Smaller alveoli have more surfactant, reducing their surface tension and helping equalize pressure.
103
What causes bronchoconstriction according to the slides?
Parasympathetic stimulation.
104
What causes bronchodilation according to the slides?
Sympathetic stimulation of β₂ receptors by epinephrine.
105
How does bronchodilation affect airway resistance?
It decreases airway resistance.
106
How does bronchoconstriction affect airway resistance?
It increases airway resistance.
107
What happens when ventilation decreases in a group of alveoli?
Alveolar PCO₂ increases and PO₂ decreases.
108
How does the body respond to low PO₂ around underventilated alveoli?
Nearby arterioles constrict, diverting blood toward better-ventilated alveoli.
109
What is the purpose of local ventilation-perfusion control?
To match blood flow with alveolar ventilation and maximize gas exchange.
110
What primarily mediates bronchiole diameter according to the slides?
CO₂ levels in the exhaled air passing through them.
111
What is obstructive lung disease?
A lung disease characterized by increased airway resistance.
112
What are examples of obstructive lung diseases listed in the slides?
Asthma, obstructive sleep apnea, and COPD.
113
What is restrictive lung disease?
A lung disease characterized by reduced lung compliance.
114
What is an example of restrictive lung disease listed in the slides?
Pulmonary fibrosis.
115
What is forced vital capacity (FVC)?
The amount of air forcibly exhaled after a full inhalation.
116
What is FEV₁?
The forced expiratory volume exhaled in the first second.
117
What FEV₁/FVC ratio suggests obstructive lung disease?
Less than 0.7.
118
What FEV₁/FVC pattern is associated with restrictive lung disease?
Normal or increased.
119
What factors determine the rate of gas diffusion across the alveolar membrane?
Surface area, concentration gradient, barrier permeability, and diffusion distance.
120
How does diffusion distance affect gas diffusion?
Diffusion rate is inversely proportional to the square of the diffusion distance.
121
What is the diffusion relationship shown in the slides?
\$\text\propto\frac\times\text\times\text}^2}\$.
122
How does asthma affect oxygen diffusion?
Increased airway resistance decreases alveolar ventilation.
123
How does emphysema affect oxygen diffusion?
Destruction of alveoli decreases the surface area available for gas exchange.
124
How does fibrotic lung disease affect oxygen diffusion?
It thickens the alveolar membrane, slowing gas exchange, and may reduce lung compliance.
125
How does pulmonary edema affect oxygen diffusion?
Fluid in the interstitial space increases diffusion distance.
126
Why can arterial PCO₂ remain normal in pulmonary edema?
CO₂ is more soluble in water than oxygen.
127
How is oxygen transported in the blood?
More than 98% is bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells; less than 2% is dissolved in plasma.
128
What percentage of oxygen in blood is dissolved in plasma?
Less than 2%.
129
What percentage of oxygen in blood is bound to hemoglobin?
More than 98%.
130
What are the three forms of carbon dioxide transport in blood?
About 7% dissolved in plasma, 23% bound to hemoglobin, and 70% as bicarbonate in plasma.
131
What is the most prominent method of carbon dioxide transport?
As bicarbonate ions in plasma.
132
What is carbaminohemoglobin?
Hemoglobin with carbon dioxide bound to it.
133
What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported bound to hemoglobin?
About 23%.
134
What percentage of carbon dioxide is transported as bicarbonate?
About 70%.
135
What percentage of carbon dioxide remains dissolved in plasma?
About 7%.
136
What enzyme helps convert carbon dioxide and water into the bicarbonate system?
Carbonic anhydrase.
137
What happens to carbon dioxide in systemic capillaries?
It diffuses from body cells into the blood and red blood cells.
138
What happens when carbon dioxide enters red blood cells?
It participates in a reaction that produces bicarbonate and hydrogen ions.
139
How does hemoglobin help during carbon dioxide transport?
It buffers hydrogen ions.
140
What is the chloride shift?
Bicarbonate leaves the red blood cell and chloride enters in exchange.
141
What happens to bicarbonate in the lungs?
It moves back into red blood cells and is converted back into carbon dioxide.
142
What happens to carbon dioxide at the lungs?
It leaves hemoglobin and red blood cells, then diffuses into the alveoli.
143
What is the law of mass action?
A reversible reaction shifts in the direction that helps counter a change in the concentration of reactants or products.
144
What brain region contains the respiratory neural networks that generate breathing rhythm?
The brain stem.
145
What is the role of the medulla oblongata in breathing?
Its respiratory neurons control inspiratory and expiratory muscles.
146
What is the role of the pons in breathing?
It integrates sensory information and interacts with medullary neurons to influence ventilation.
147
What is a central pattern generator in respiration?
A brain-stem neural network that produces the rhythmic pattern of breathing.
148
What can modify the basic breathing rhythm?
Chemoreceptor and mechanoreceptor reflexes and higher brain centers.
149
What triggers protective respiratory reflexes?
Physical injury, irritation, and overinflation of the lungs.
150
Which protective reflexes clear irritants from the respiratory tract?
Sneezing and coughing.
151
What is the Hering-Breuer inflation reflex?
A protective reflex that responds to lung overinflation.
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