Biology

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1
Q.1. What is the scientific name of the banyan tree, a large evergreen tree of Asia characterised by its trunk-like aerial roots?
  • Ananas comosus
  • Ficus benghalensis
  • Gossypium herbaceum
  • Santalum album
2
Q.2. Match the columns.
Class. Common name.

i. Chlorophyceae. a. Brown algae
ii. Phaeophyceae b. Green algae
iii. Rhodophyceae. c. Blue-green
algae
iv. Cyanophyceae d. Red algae
  • i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
  • i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
  • i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
  • i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
3
Q3. Which of the following is another name for starch found mainly in the pulp of seeds, fruits, tubers, roots, and stems of plants, especially in corn, potatoes, wheat, and rice?
  • Saponin
  • Olestra
  • Amylum
  • Xanthan
4
Q4. What is the common term for Ancylostoma?
  • Tapeworm
  • Hookworm
  • Filaria worm
  • Roundworm
5
Q5. Solanum lycopersicum L. is the scientific name of which of the following highly consumed vegetables?
  • Onion
  • Tomato
  • Potato
  • Garlic
6
Q6. What is the common name of Parthenium hysterophorus?
  • Lemon grass
  • Carrot Grass
  • Horse grass
  • Lawn grass
7
Q7. Oleo gum resin (Asafoetida) can be obtained from:
  • Dried latex from the tap root of Ferula
  • Dried latex from the roots of mango
    tree
  • Dried latex from the banana leaves
  • Dried latex from the stem of ferula
8
Q8. The scientific name for the domestic ______ is Canis lupus familiaris.
  • Dog
  • Cow
  • Buffalo
  • Cat
9
Q9. What is the botanical name of mango?
  • Mangifera indica
  • Casuarina
  • Monoon longifolium
  • Cocos nucifera
10
Q10. Select the INCORRECT statement with regards to vitamins.
  • Most of the vitamins cannot get
    synthesised in sufficient amounts in
    our body.
  • Some bacteria in the gut do not produce vitamins
  • Vitamins are organic compounds.
  • Plants can synthesise almost all
    vitamins.
11
Q11. Which essential micronutrient plays a clear role in the synthesis, storage, and secretion of insulin in the hexameric form as well as in the conformational integrity of insulin?
  • Zinc
  • Selenium
  • Phosphorus
  • Fluoride
12
Q12. Which of the following was the first B vitamin discovered in 1897 that is essential in amino acid and carbohydrate metabolism and is active in energy production reactions?
  • Biotin
  • Folate
  • Riboflavin
  • Thiamine
13
Q13. What is the most important health benefit of Vitamin D?
  • Elevation of heartbeat
  • Reducing the blood pressure
  • Rapid growth after teenage years
  • Strengthening of bones and muscles
14
Q14. The food component present in sugar is:
  • Protein
  • Carbohydrates
  • Vitamins
  • Fats
15
Q15. Milk, seafood, nuts, and whole grains contain high amounts of which mineral that supports bone health and our body's repair process?
  • Zinc
  • Phosphorus
  • Potassium
  • Fluoride
16
Q16. Which of the following vitamins prevents major birth defects of the brain and spine of a newborn baby?
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin A
  • Folic acid
  • Vitamin E
17
Q17. Carbohydrates are utilized by the human body in the form of:
  • Nucleotides
  • Amino acids
  • Glucose
  • Fibre
18
Q18. What is the monomer unit of glycogen?
  • Galactose
  • Mannose
  • Fructose
  • Glucose
19
Q19. Which vitamin is synthesized in the presence of sunlight in our body?
  • Vitamin B
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin C
20
Q20. Which essential amino acid is necessary for the production of our brain’s chemical messengers including melatonin, dopamine, noradrenaline, and thyroxine?
  • Tryptophan
  • Valine
  • Phenylalanine
  • Leucine
21
Q.21. Which of the following is the
correct match of column-A with
column-B?
Nutrients. Source.

i. Protein rich food. a. Wheat
ii. Fat rich food b. Lemon
iii. Carbohydrate rich c. Egg white food
iv. Vitamin C rich d. Butter and
food cheese
  • i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
  • i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
  • i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
  • i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
22
Q22. Vitamins and minerals are helpful for which of the following?
  • Proper breathing
  • Proper fat storage
  • Carry out metabolic reactions in our body
  • Proper sweating
23
Q23. As per the dietary guidelines recommended by doctors, the RDA for cholesterol intake in healthy adults and children above four years of age is ______ mg/day.
  • 600
  • 400
  • 500
  • 300
24
Q24. Which water-soluble vitamin found in various foods, including liver, milk, eggs, and fish, helps to keep your body's blood and nerve cells healthy?
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin B12
25
Q25. Which of the following vitamins helps to keep our skin and eyes healthy?
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin B
26
Q26. Which among the following vitamins influences iron absorption?
  • Vitamin B
  • Vitamin K
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C
27
Q27. Which of the following vitamins helps our body to use calcium for bones and teeth?
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin A
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C
28
Q28. Which of the following pairs of 'mineral - source' is correct?

I. Vitamin A - Papaya
II. Iron - Spinach
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
29
Q29. Which among the following vitamins is known as Niacin?
  • Vitamin B3
  • Vitamin B4
  • Vitamin B2
  • Vitamin B1
30
Q30. Which among the following is a fat-soluble vitamin?
  • Vitamin B4
  • Vitamin B2
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C
31
Q.31. Match the columns.
Nutrients. Examples.

a. Protein. i.Calcium, Phosphorous
b. Carbohydrate. ii. Cholesterol
c. Fat. iii. Glucose
d. Minerals. iv. Myosin
  • a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  • a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
  • a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv
  • a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
32
Q.32. Match Column-A with Column-B.

Vitamin. AlternativeName.

i. Vitamin A a. Ascorbic
ii. Vitamin B12 b. Retinol
iii. Vitamin C c. Cobalamin
iv. Vitamin D d. Ergocalciferol
  • i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
  • i-b, ii-c, iii,-a, iv-d
  • i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
  • i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
33
Q33. Which of the following statements is correct?

I. The nutrition requirements of
adolescents are higher than adults.

II. Adolescents are generally grouped in the age group of 10 to 19 years.
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
34
Q34. Which of the following pairs (type of nutrient – nutrient) is correct?

I. Macronutrient – Iron
II. Micronutrient – Calcium
  • Only II
  • Both I and II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
35
Q35. Nuts, vegetable oil and fish are rich sources of__________.
  • Omega-3
  • Minerals
  • Vitamins
  • Carbohydrates
36
Q36. Which of the following pairs of minerals – need is correct?

I. Iron – formation of hemoglobin
II. Sodium – proper functioning of thyroid
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only II
37
Q37. Which of the following vitamins is absent in eggs?
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin K
  • Vitamin B
  • Vitamin A
38
Q38. Which amino acid is essential for healthy skin and teeth, as it is a component of tooth enamel, collagen and elastin?
  • Arginine
  • Phenylalanine
  • Leucine
  • Threonine
39
Q39. Which of the following is a micronutrient, and plays a role in cell division, cell growth, wound healing and the breakdown of carbohydrates?
  • Fe
  • Zn
  • Cu
  • Ca
40
Q40. Which vitamins are present in Milk?
  • Vitamin A, C and D
  • Vitamin C, D and E
  • Vitamin C, K and D
  • Vitamin A, B and D
41
Q.41. Match column A With column B.
Vitamin. Source.
i. Vitamin A a. Carrot,mango,
papaya

ii. Vitamin B b. Whole grain
bread and nuts

iii. Vitamin C c. Citrus fruits,
red and green pepper

iv. Vitamin D d. Egg yolk,soya
product
  • i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
  • i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d
  • i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
  • i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
42
Q42. What components are often called the building blocks of the body that play a vital role in helping to repair and strengthen muscle tissues after exercise?
  • Micronutrients
  • Proteins.
  • Carbohydrates
  • Fats
43
Q43. Which is a major essential lipophilic (fat-soluble) vitamin required for the protection of cell membranes and the formation of red blood cells (RBCs)?
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin A
44
Q44. A typical adult human body contains about ______ of magnesium.
  • 15 g
  • 20 g
  • 25 g
  • 10 g
45
Q45. Starch and sugar in our food are forms of _____.
  • Carbohydrates.
  • Vitamins
  • Protein
  • Fat
46
Q46. When the breakdown of food (glucose) occurs without the use of oxygen, it is called:
  • Aerobic respiration
  • Anaerobic respiration
  • Cellular respiration
  • Capillary respiration
47
Q47. Which organism among the following breaks down the food material outside the body and then absorbs it?
  • Yeast
  • Lice
  • Ticks
  • Leeches
48
Q48. From which of the following sources does the brain get energy?
  • Glucose
  • Fatty acids
  • Nucleic acids
  • Amino acids
49
Q49. Which natural bioactive water-soluble phenolic compound is present in fruits, vegetables, and grains with red, purple, blue, or black hues?
  • Naringenin
  • Coumarins
  • Anthocyanins
  • Quercetin
50
Q50. Which of the following nutrients is available mainly in apples?
  • Cobalt (Co)
  • Sodium (Na)
  • Sulfur (S)
  • Potassium (K)
51
Q51. Which of the following grains contain oryzenin?
  • Rice
  • Barley
  • Wheat
  • Soyabean
52
Q52. What happens to the guard cells when water flows into them?
  • Stomatal pores open
  • The guard cells close
  • Stomatal pores shrink
  • Stomatal pores close
53
Q53. Plants that are adapted to live under plenty of sunlight are called:
  • Heliophytes
  • Xerophytes
  • Neophytes
  • Protophytes
54
Q54. The leaves have a green pigment called ____________, which helps leaves to capture the energy from the sunlight.
  • Chlorophyll
  • Cladophyll
  • Xanthophyll
  • Cytoplasm
55
Q55. Which plant tissue is responsible for the transportation of water and minerals from the soil to the stems and leaves?
  • Xylem
  • Parenchyma
  • Collenchyma
  • Phloem
56
Q56. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy for all living organisms?
  • Sun
  • Soil
  • Water
  • Air
57
Q57. The mode of nutrition in which organisms make food themselves from simple substances is called ________.
  • Autotrophic nutrition
  • Heterotrophic nutrition
  • Saprotrophic nutrition
  • Phototrophic nutrition
58
Q58. Plants require nutrients for their growth which can be supplied through _______.
  • Soil, water, and air
  • Soil and air only
  • Soil and water only
  • Soil only
59
Q59. Water comes out of the leaves in the form of vapour by a process called ______.
  • Transpiration
  • Creepers
  • Transportation
  • Venation
60
Q60. The broad, green part of the leaf is called ______.
  • Lamina
  • Petiole
  • Veins
  • Midrib
61
Q.61. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem capture about _______ percent of the energy of sunlight that falls on their leaves and convert it into food energy.
  • 1
  • 20
  • 10
  • 5
62
Q.62. Nuts, vegetable oil and fish are good sources of which of the following?
  • Healthy fats
  • Carbohydrates
  • Minerals
  • Proteins
63
Q.63. Which nutrient is chlorella rich in?
  • Protein
  • Roughage
  • Carbohydrates
  • Fats
64
Q.64. Iron, iodine and zinc can be considered as which of the following?
  • Micronutrients
  • Macronutrients
  • Steroid hormone inducer
  • Non-essential nutrients
65
Q.65. Starches found in breads, cereals and pasta are made up of long chains of _______.
  • Glucose
  • Cellulose
  • Maltose
  • Galactose
66
Q.66. Which of the following pairs of plastids-thing stored is NOT correct?

I. Amyloplasts - oils and fats.

II. Aleuroplasts - carbohydrates.
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
67
Q.67. How is food stored in brown algae?
  • In the form of complex carbohydrates that may be in the form of laminarin or mannitol.
  • In the form of glucose.
  • In the form of complex lipids.
  • In the form of oil droplets.
68
Q.68. Pneumatophores are specialized ______ in hydrophytes.
  • Roots
  • Seeds
  • Fruits
  • Flowers
69
Q.69. At least ______ of the carbon dioxide fixation on earth is carried out by algae through photosynthesis.
  • A half
  • A quarter
  • One-tenth
  • One-third
70
Q.70. Capsaicinoids, carotenoids, phenolics, and vitamins are dominant chemicals in which of the following foods?
  • Chilli
  • Carrot
  • Radish
  • Garlic
71
Q.71. Which of the following is an essential element used in the synthesis of proteins in plants?
  • Nitrogen
  • Calcium
  • Sodium
  • Chlorine
72
Q.72. The ______ is the term used for the reactions of photosynthesis that use the energy stored by the light-dependent reactions to form glucose and other carbohydrate molecules.
  • Calvin cycle
  • Bloom cycle
  • Rock cycle
  • Macroscopic cycle
73
Q.73. Energy and carbon requirements of the autotrophic organism are fulfilled by ______.
  • Photosynthesis
  • Lysis
  • Prognosis
  • Glycolysis
74
Q.74. Which of the following does NOT figure among the main functions of the root system of a plant?
  • Supply of food to the plant parts.
  • Providing a proper anchorage to the
    plant parts.
  • Absorption of water from the soil`.
  • Absorption of minerals from the soil
75
Q.75. Which of the following plant hormones regulates growth, particularly by stimulating cell elongation in stems?
  • Auxin
  • Ethylene
  • Cytokinin
  • Gibberellin
76
Q.76. The application of plant and soil science to crop production is known as?
  • Agronomy
  • Agrostology
  • Bryology
  • Anatomy
77
Q.77. Which of the following gases is released in the process of photosynthesis?
  • Oxygen
  • Nitrous dioxide
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Nitrogen
78
Q.78. Severe undernutrition due to the deficiency of food and energy is termed as?
  • Marasmus
  • Kwashiorkor
  • Wasting
  • Dementia
79
Q.79. Deficiency of iodine results in an insufficient amount of the ________ hormone.
  • Thyroid
  • Thrombopoietin
  • Adrenaline
  • Melatonin
80
Q.80. Among the choices listed, which one is NOT a form of cancer?
  • Glaucoma
  • Carcinoma
  • Lymphoma
  • Sarcoma
81
Q.81. Among the following diseases, which one is NOT inherited?
  • Malaria
  • Down syndrome
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Muscular dystrophy
82
Q.82. In what condition does the body's immune system attack the actual intrinsic factor protein or the cells in your stomach lining that make it?
  • Pernicious anemia
  • Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
  • Hepatic cirrhosis
  • Hartnup disorder
83
Q.83. What happens when old aged people get cataract?
  • Crystalline lens of people in old age becomes milky and cloudy
  • Crystalline lens of people in old age
    becomes clear and shiny
  • Iris becomes cloudy
  • Pupil becomes dull
84
Q.84. In which of the following conditions is there severe physical and mental retardation due to deficiency of iodine and thyroid hormones, especially during early pregnancy?
  • Cretinism
  • Preeclampsia
  • Toxoplasmosis
  • Syphilis
85
Q.85. Which of the following tests is used to confirm the presence of typhoid fever?
  • Widal Test.
  • Smear Examination
  • C Reactive Protein (CRP) Test
  • Vivax Test
86
Q.86. Which disease is caused by NOT having enough vitamin C in the diet for at least 3 months leading to weakness, anaemia, gum disease, and skin problems?
  • Scurvy.
  • Rickets
  • Pellagra
  • Beriberi
87
Q.87. Which of the following is NOT the manifestation of Iron-deficiency anemia (IDA)?
  • Blindness.
  • Paleness of conjunctiva of eyes
  • Soft palate
  • General pallor
88
Q.88. Which is the most obvious symptom of infantile jaundice that usually appears between the second and fourth day after birth?
  • Yellowing of the skin and the whites of the eyes.
  • Cracking and irritation at the corners of mouth
  • Swollen or puffy ankles
  • Swelling and bleeding of the gums
89
Q.89. Which condition causes bone pain, poor growth, and soft, weak bones that can lead to bone deformities?
  • Rickets.
  • Cerebral Palsy
  • Pertussis
  • Asplenia
90
Q.90. Lack of functional small intestine can cause a malabsorption disorder leading to diarrhoea, malnutrition, weight loss etc. This particular condition is known as:
  • Short bowel syndrome.
  • Down syndrome
  • hypoglycaemia
  • hyperglycaemia
91
Q.91. Vitamin B1 deficiency causes which nutritional disorder that causes problems with peripheral nerves and wasting?
  • Beriberi.
  • Xerophthalmia
  • Pernicious anaemia
  • Rickets
92
Q.92. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of an infected female phlebotomine sandfly, characterized by irregular fever, weight loss, and enlargement of the spleen and liver?
  • Visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar).
  • Japanese encephalitis
  • Diarrhea
  • Anaplasmosis
93
Q.93. Which of the following diseases is a potential contender for worldwide eradication?
  • Polio.
  • Tuberculosis
  • Measles
  • Malaria
94
Q.94. An excessive amount of cadmium in the human body causes:
  • Itai-itai.
  • minamata
  • anaemia
  • alzima
95
Q.95. Which type of surveillance is specifically aimed at identifying missing cases of disease?
  • Sentinel surveillance.
  • Overt surveillance
  • Active surveillance
  • Passive surveillance
96
Q.96. Sleeping sickness is a vector borne disease caused by the infection of which microscopic parasite of the species?
  • Trypanosoma brucei.
  • Balantioides coli
  • Giardia duodenalis
  • Cyclospora cayetanensis
97
Q.97. Which is an inherited blood disorder that affects the hemoglobin gene and results in ineffective erythropoiesis?
  • Thalassemia.
  • Somatostatinoma
  • Venous Thromboembolism
  • Polycythemia vera
98
Q.98. Which Vitamin D analogue is used to treat hypoparathyroidism, refractory rickets and familial hypophosphatemia?
  • Ergocalciferol (D2).
  • Tacalcitol
  • Tocopherol
  • Retinol
99
Q.100. Select the correct option about Kwashiorkor.

Statement A: It is a form of malnutrition
caused by a lack of fat in the diet.

Statement B: Children who develop
Kwashiorkor may not grow or develop
properly and may remain stunted for the
rest of their lives.
  • Only statement B is correct.
  • Both statements A and B are correct
  • Both statements A and B are incorrect
  • Only statement A is correct
100
Q.101. Which of the following pairs is INCORRECTLY matched?
  • Acromegaly - Adrenaline.
  • Cushing's syndrome - Cortisol
  • Diabetes - Insulin

  • (c) Goitre -Thyroxine
101
Q.104. Which disease is caused by excessive iron deposition within the reticuloendothelial cells of the liver, spleen and bone marrow?
  • Hemosiderosis.
  • Paraesthesia
  • Ariboflavinosis
  • Dermatitis
102
Q.105. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins in the human diet causes a disease called xerophthalmia?
  • Vitamin A.
  • Vitamin K
  • Vitamin C
  • Vitamin D
103
Q.106. Which among the following organs in the human body, is most affected by Pneumonia disease?
  • Lungs.
  • Kidneys
  • Urinary bladder
  • Heart
104
Q.107. What is added to toothpaste to reduce tooth decay?
  • Fluoride.
  • Cobalt
  • Molybdenum
  • Iron
105
Q.108. Which among the following is NOT a bacterial disease?
  • Rabies.
  • Cholera
  • Typhoid
  • Plague
106
Q.109. Which of the following is 'NOT' an example of communicable diseases?
  • Diabetes.
  • Chicken Pox
  • Common cold
  • Tuberculosis
107
Q.110. The disease-causing microbes are called ________.
  • Pathogens.
  • toxins
  • decomposers
  • antibodies
108
Q.111. "Goitre" is a disease of which of the following glands?
  • Thyroid gland.
  • Pancreas
  • Adrenal gland
  • Pituitary gland
109
Q.112. Which of the following diseases is not caused by a mosquito bite?
  • Hepatitis.
  • Elephantiasis
  • Dengue
  • Malaria
110
Q.113. Chikungunya is an infection caused by _______ mosquito.
  • Aedes.
  • Culex
  • Mansonia
  • Anopheles
111
Q.114. Which among the following is a bacterial disease?
  • Leprosy.
  • Rabies
  • Malaria
  • Ebola
112
Q.115. Which of the following pairs of 'disease - duration' is correct?
I. Acute-long duration

II. Chronic - short time
  • Neither I nor II.
  • Only II
  • Only I
  • Both I and II
113
Q.116. ___________ diseases last for only shorter periods of time.
  • Acute.
  • Hereditary
  • Chronic
  • Genetic
114
Q.117. Which of the following disease is caused by fungi?
  • Ring Worm.
  • Covid-19
  • Tuberculosis
  • Cholera
115
Q.118. Which among the following is a viral disease?
  • Chicken pox.
  • Tuberculosis
  • Whooping Cough
  • Malaria
116
Q.119. Which of the following options is correct regarding sexually transmitted disease (STD)?

Statement A: Sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs) are infections
transmitted from an infected person to
an uninfected person through sexual
contact.

Statement B: HIV, HPV and Hepatitis B
virus is responsible for STD
  • Both Statements A and B correct.
  • Only Statement B is correct
  • Both Statements A and B incorrect
  • Only Statement A is correct
117
Q.120. Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes excessive bleeding from wounds?
  • Vitamin K.
  • Vitamin D
  • Vitamin E
  • Vitamin A
118
Q.122. Which of the following pairs of plant diseases – microorganisms is correct?
I. Citrus canker – Virus

II. Rust of wheat – Fungi
  • Only II (Rust of wheat – Fungi).
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
  • Both I and II
119
Q.123. ________ is a technique in which cancer cells are damaged with radiation, while limiting the harm to nearby healthy tissue.
  • Radiotherapy.
  • Physiotherapy
  • Surgery
  • Chemotherapy
120
Q.124. Typhoid fever is caused by ______.
  • Bacteria.
  • protozoa
  • viruses
  • fungi
121
Q.125. Athlete's foot is a disease caused by _________.
  • Fungi.
  • bacteria
  • virus
  • genetic disorder
122
Q.126. How is tuberculosis spread in humans?
  • Droplet infection.
  • Inoculation into skin
  • Direct touching
  • Contact with soil
123
Q.127. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of Beriberi caused due to the deficiency of Vitamin B1?
  • Slowly healing wounds.
  • Involuntary eye movement
  • Difficulty speaking
  • Pain in the limbs
124
Q.128. Which disease refers to the inflammation of the liver caused by a variety of infectious viruses and non-infectious agents leading to a variety of health problems?
  • Hepatitis.
  • Tuberculosis
  • Pneumonia
  • Diabetes
125
Q.129. Identify the disease that is caused due to inadequate secretion of the hormone insulin from the pancreas?
  • Diabetes mellitus.
  • Tuberculosis
  • Gallstones
  • Blood cancer
126
Q.130. Identify the disease caused by a monkey bite.
  • Rabies.
  • Malaria
  • Typhoid
  • Influenza
127
Q.131. What disease in adults means ‘soft bones’ that usually develops due to a deficiency of vitamin D (often from not getting enough sunlight), or less often, digestive or kidney disease?
  • Osteomalacia.
  • Osteopenia
  • Osteomyelitis
  • Osteoporosis
128
Q.132. Identify a way that does NOT prevent a non-communicable disease from occurring in someone.
  • Blood transfusion.
  • Adequate sleep
  • Balanced diet
  • Healthy diet
129
Q.133. Poor sanitation conditions may NOT be the likely reason behind which of the following diseases/conditions?
  • Arthritis.
  • Typhoid
  • Cholera
  • Polio
130
Q.134. Which of the following diseases CANNOT be prevented by vaccination?
  • Beri beri.
  • Rabies
  • Typhoid
  • Measles
131
Q.135. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), “Hygiene refers to _____ and practices that help to maintain _____ and _____ the spread of diseases.”
  • Conditions, health, prevent.
  • situations, fitness, prevent
  • values, health, stop
  • conditions, physique, retard
132
Q.136. Which of the following is a type of plant disease?
  • Blight.
  • Botulism
  • Coccidiosis
  • Mastitis
133
Q.137. _______ is a disorder resulting in abnormal electrical discharge from the brain cells causing seizures,
  • Epilepsy.
  • Prostatitis
  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Rheumatoid arthritis
134
Q.138. Which of the following is NOT a type of mosquito?
  • Limulus.
  • Culex
  • Aedes
  • Anopheles
135
Q.139. Which of the following factors is responsible for the disease called 'Mad Hatter Disease'?
  • Mercury poisoning.
  • inhaling silica dust
  • inhaling iron dust
  • Vitamin-D deficiency
136
Q.140. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a flavivirus?
  • Polio.
  • Yellow fever
  • Dengue
  • Japanese encephalitis
137
Q.141. Which of the following diseases marked by dementia, diarrhoea, and dermatitis, is also known as ‘the three Ds’?
  • Pellagra.
  • Osteoporosis
  • Xerophthalmia
  • Scurvy
138
Q.142. Which of the following causative agents causes the disease Ebola?
  • Virus.
  • Bacteria
  • Fungus
  • Protozoan
139
Q.143. AMR occurs when bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites change over time and no longer respond to medicines making infections harder to treat and increasing the risk of disease spread, severe illness, and death. What is the full form of AMR?
  • Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR).
  • Acute Microbial Resistance
  • Anti Measles Resistance
  • Antimalarial Resistance
140
Q.144. What is another name for the disorder called 'parasomnia'?
  • Sleepwalking.
  • Night blindness
  • Seasickness
  • Stammering
141
Q.145. Trachoma is a preventable disease that results from poor hygiene and sanitation. Which of the following body parts does it affect?
  • Eyes.
  • Heart
  • Stomach
  • Ear
142
Q.146. Which of the following diseases is caused by Helicobacter pylori?
  • Gastritis.
  • Chikungunya
  • Ringworm
  • Rubella
143
Q.147. The cause of Siderosis is excessive deposition of ______ in the body tissue.
  • Iron.
  • aluminium
  • coal
  • zinc
144
Q.148. Which of the following diseases damages the eye’s optic nerve and results in vision loss and blindness and occurs when the normal fluid pressure inside the eyes slowly rises?
  • Glaucoma.
  • Vitiligo
  • Psoriasis
  • Gonorrhea
145
Q.149. Leukaemia is a cancer of the:
  • Blood.
  • skin
  • lungs
  • uterus
146
Q.150. Nyctophobia is the fear of:
  • Darkness.
  • Birds
  • Animals
  • Light
147
Q.151. Name a reproductive strategy in which parasites take advantage of the care of other individuals of the same species or different species to raise their young.
  • Brood parasitism.
  • Sexual parasitism
  • Klepto parasitism
  • Competitive parasitism
148
Q.152. Identify an organism that exhibits metagenesis.
  • Obelia (sea fur).
  • Spongilla
  • Sycon
  • Euspongia
149
Q.153. The period of life, when the body undergoes changes leading to reproductive maturity is called .
  • Adolescence.
  • maturity
  • cloning
  • budding
150
Q.154. The stage of the embryo in which all the body parts can be identified is called _________.
  • Foetus.
  • Uterus
  • Ovulation
  • Zygote
151
Q.155. Breeding of fish in specially constructed tanks and ponds is called ____________
  • Pisciculture
  • Viticulture
  • Horticulture
  • Sericulture
152
Q.156. Which of the following is NOT an example of "viviparous" animals?
  • Bird
  • Dog
  • Cat
  • Cow
153
Q.157. The transformation of the larva into an adult through drastic change is called ___________
  • Metamorphosis
  • budding
  • shifting
  • bulging
154
Q.158. How many arteries are there in an umbilical cord?
  • Two
  • One
  • Three
  • Four
155
Q.159. ______ is the ability of a single cell to produce a fertile, adult individual.
  • Totipotency
  • Pluripotency
  • Cloning
  • Mutation
156
Q.160. The phenomenon whereby the female gamete undergoes development to form new organisms without fertilisation in some organisms like honey bees, some lizards and birds is called
  • Parthenogenesis
  • Budding
  • Fragmentation
  • Apomixis
157
Q.161. Which of the following is the primary sex organ in females?
  • Ovary
  • Fallopian tube
  • Uterus
  • Vagina
158
Q.162. The reproduction process in which only a single parent is involved is called ___________
  • Asexual reproduction
  • external fertilization
  • In vitro fertilization
  • sexual reproduction
159
Q.163. The innermost part of a flower is called the _______
  • Pistil
  • stamens
  • petals
  • sepals
160
Q.164. Which of the following is not an asexual form of reproduction in plants?
  • Pollination
  • Spore formation
  • Buddin
  • Vegetative propagation
161
Q165. Productivity of an ecosystem is composed of which of the following?
  • Net primary productivity and gross primary productivity.
  • Gross productivity and primary
    productivity
  • Primary and secondary productivity
  • Net productivity and consumption
162
Q166. How do the red algae reproduce vegetatively?
  • Fragmentation.
  • Spore formation
  • Fission
  • Cutting
163
Q167. Which part of a flower is the sticky surface at the top of the pistil, it traps and holds the pollen?
  • Stigma.
  • Style
  • Sepal
  • Ovary
164
Q168. A type of asexual reproduction in which new plants are produced from roots, stems, leaves, and buds is known as:
  • Vegetative propagation.
  • layering propagation
  • grafting propagation
  • budding propagation
165
Q169. Which structural layer in some cell types is composed mainly of carbohydrates like cellulose, hemicellulose, and lignin in the ratio 4:3:3 and some fatty substances like wax?
  • Cell wall.
  • cell soluble
  • plasma membrane
  • nuclear envelope
166
Q170. The primary function of which channel protein is to transport water across the cell membrane in response to the osmotic gradient created by active solute transport?
  • Aquaporins.
  • Mucins
  • Cupredoxins
  • Transferrin
167
Q171. Most centrioles have a ___________________ structure of triple microtubules, which are present in pairs and arranged orthogonally after duplication.
  • 9 + 0.
  • 9 + 3
  • 8 + 0
  • 6 + 1
168
Q172. Which is a reversible, fluorescent red, acidic dye used to stain cytoplasm, red blood cells, collagen, and muscle fibers for histological examination?
  • Eosin.
  • Safranin
  • Alizarin
  • Crystal violet
169
Q173. Which cellular structure controls cell motility, adhesion, and polarity at interphase, and facilitates the organization of spindle poles during mitosis?
  • Centrosomes.
  • Peroxisomes
  • Lysosomes
  • Glyoxysomes
170
Q174. What is the percentage of proteins in the cell membrane?
  • 40-60%.
  • 80-100%
  • 20-40%
  • 60-80%
171
Q175. What do you call the fluid matrix filling the cell?
  • Cytoplasm.
  • Golgi bodies
  • Ribosome
  • Plasmid
172
Q.176. The main function of centriole is:
  • to help cell division in animal cell.
  • to maintain mineral composition in
    bacterial cell
  • to help plant cell for multiplication
  • to maintain rigidity in plant cell
173
Q.177. During which phase of the cell cycle does metabolic changes assemble the cytoplasmic material required for mitosis and cytokinesis?
  • G2 phase.
  • G1 phase
  • M phase
  • S phase
174
Q.178. How big are red blood cells in diameter?
  • 7.5 μm.
  • 40.0 μm
  • 4.0 μm
  • 2.0 μm
175
Q.179. Which cell organelle appears as rounded or sausage-shaped structures under electron microscopy, measuring about 0.5 - 1.0 μm in diameter and 2-8 μm in length?
  • Mitochondria.
  • Lysosomes
  • Plastids
  • Ribosomes
176
Q.180. What is the length of a bacterial cell?
  • 3 to 5 μm.
  • 1 to 40 μm
  • 0 to 3 μm
  • 30 to 50 μm
177
Q.181. What do you call a Glycocalyx that is a loose sheath type?
  • Slime layer.
  • Tubules
  • Mesosomes
  • Capsule
178
Q.182. Which process is sometimes called "reduction division" because it reduces the number of chromosomes to half the normal number to form sperm and eggs?
  • Meiosis.
  • Amitosis
  • Karyokinesis
  • Cytokinesis
179
Q.183. Which is the primary structural component responsible for most of the mechanical strength of the cell wall?
  • Cellulose.
  • Heparin
  • Glycogen
  • Chitin
180
Q.184. By what name are the flat membrane-enclosed sacs present in the Golgi apparatus known?
  • Cisternae.
  • Cristae
  • Lamellae
  • Stroma
181
Q.185. Which cell found in the bone marrow acts as a repair system for the body?
  • Stem cells.
  • Bone Cells
  • Fat Cells
  • Muscle cells
182
Q.186. During cell division, the formation of a new cell wall is followed by the accumulation of:
  • Phragmoplast.
  • peristome
  • periplasm
  • protoplast
183
Q.187. Which part of a cell converts nutrients into energy?
  • Mitochondria
  • Cell membrane
  • Lysosomes
  • Chromosome
184
Q.188. Which cell analysis technique is used to rapidly analyse single cells or particles as they flow through single or multiple lasers while suspended in a buffered salt-based solution?
  • Flow cytometry
  • Mass spectroscopy
  • Electrochemical analysis
  • Multiple displacement amplification
185
Q.189. The division of cytoplasm is known as:
  • Cytokinesis
  • cytoskeleton
  • karyokinesis
  • cytosol
186
Q.190. Which of the following cell organelles can make copies of themselves?
  • Mitochondria
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Vacuole
  • Cytoplasm
187
Q.191. Which type of haploid unicellular eukaryote cells has a diameter of ~10 μm, and about half of their volume is occupied by cup-shaped chloroplasts?
  • Chlamydomonas
  • Hydrodictyon
  • Ulva
  • Oedogonium
188
Q.192. Which cell organelles are known as cell's post office?
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Nucleus
  • Ribosome
  • Plastid
189
Q.193. Which of the following cells are found in the liver of mammals?
  • Kupffer cells
  • Purkinje cells
  • Microglial cells
  • Sensory cells
190
Q.194. Which of the following cell organelles is made up of ribosomal RNA and protein?
  • Ribosome
  • Nucleus
  • Lysosome
  • Golgi body
191
Q.195. In cells, proteins are synthesized in ________.
  • Ribosome
  • Mitochondria
  • Nucleus
  • Golgi apparatus
192
Q.196. Mitochondria is not found in ____.
  • Bacteria
  • yeast
  • algae
  • fungi
193
Q.197. In a plant, ______ is present in the middle lamella, primary cell and secondary walls and accumulates in the initial stages of development during cell expansion.
  • Pectin
  • chitin
  • gelatin
  • alginate
194
Q.198. Select the correct statement.
  • Ribosomes, mitochondria and lysosomes are found in animal cells
  • Mitochondria and nucleus are found
    in bacteria.
  • Chloroplast, ribosomes and nucleus
    are present in fungal cells.
  • Mitochondria and nucleus are absent
195
Q.199. Which of the following statements is correct regarding cell membrane?
I. The membrane is selectively
permeable to some molecules present
on either side of it.

II. Water may also move across this
membrane from lower to higher
concentration.
  • Only I
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Both I and II
196
Q.200. Which form of leucoplast specializes in oil synthesis and storage and is mainly found in the layer of cells in pollen grains that develop pollen grains?
  • Elaioplasts
  • Gerontoplasts
  • Chloroplasts
  • Proteinoplasts
197
Q.201. Which cells, also called neurilemma cells, are the main glial cells in the PNS and play an essential role in the survival and functions of neurons?
  • Schwann cells
  • Bipolar cells
  • Ganglion cells
  • Photoreceptor cells
198
Q.202. Which of the following is found in plant cells only?
  • Cell wall
  • Nucleolus
  • Mitochondria
  • Cell membrane
199
Q.203. Which cell organelle containing millions of membrane-bound ribosomes is involved in the production, folding, quality control, and dispatch of certain proteins?
  • Rough endoplasmic reticulum
  • Peroxisome
  • Mitochondrion
  • Golgi apparatus
200
Q.204. The cells having well-organized nuclei with a nuclear membrane are designated as__________ .
  • Eukaryotic cells
  • Cheek cells
  • prokaryotic cells
  • autokaryotic cells
201
Q.205. Which component of the cell contains the hereditary material of the cell, the DNA?
  • Nucleus
  • Cell Wall
  • Cell Membrane
  • Cytoplasm
202
Q.206. Cells were first observed in cork by __________ in 1665.
  • Robert Hooke
  • Anton van Leeuwenhoek
  • Theophrastus
  • Edward Jenner
203
Q.207. Which of the following is NOT one of the three main parts of the cell?
  • Vacuole
  • Nucleus
  • Cytoplasm
  • Cell membrane
204
Q.208. What is the jelly-like substance between the nucleus and the cell membrane called?
  • Cytoplasm
  • plasma
  • plasma membrane
  • cell wall
205
Q.209. Which component of the cell organelles principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the cell?
  • Golgi Apparatus
  • Chloroplast
  • Mitochondria
  • Chromosomes
206
Q.210. What is the major function of a cell wall?
  • It provides shape and rigidity to the cell
  • It works as a storage for material
  • It is responsible for cell division
  • It helps in synthesis of carbohydrate
207
Q.211. The cells having nuclear material without a nuclear membrane are termed as____.
  • Prokaryotic cells
  • Cheek cells
  • Eukaryotic cells
  • Onion cells
208
Q.212. Which of the following is a characteristic of a plant cell?
  • Cell wall is present
  • Small central vacuole
  • Chloroplasts absent
  • Plastid absent
209
Q.213. Which among the following statements is incorrect?
  • Cell walls are present in animals
  • Cell membrane is also called the
    plasma membrane.
  • Chromosomes are composed of DNA
    and Protein.
  • Mitochondria are known as the
    powerhouse of the cell.
210
Q.214. Cytology is the study of _________
  • Cells
  • Genes
  • Tissues
  • Chloroplasts
211
Q.215. Plant cell have a big central ___ unlike a number of small ___ in animal cells.
  • Vacuole, vacuoles
  • Cell wall, cell walls
  • Tissue, tissues
  • Cell membrane, cell membranes
212
Q.216. Which among the following is the structural and fundamental unit of life?
  • Cell
  • Tissue
  • Enzyme
  • Hormone
213
Q.217. Which of the following is a complex permanent plant tissue?
  • Xylem
  • Lateral meristems
  • collenchyma
  • Apical meristems
214
Q.218. Which cell organelles help in intercellular digestion and are known as the “Suicidal bags” of the cell?
  • Lysosome
  • Golgi bodies
  • Chloroplasts
  • Centrosome
215
Q.219. At high doses, ________ kills cancer cells or slows their growth by damaging their DNA.
  • Radiation therapy
  • Chemotherapy
  • Surgery
  • Physiotherapy
216
Q.220. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the prokaryotic cell?
  • Membrane bound cell organelles are present
  • They have only very small ribosomes
    as organelles
  • Their chromosomes are composed of
    only nucleic acid.
  • Their size is generally in the range of
    1 - 10 μm
217
Q.221. ________ is the chemical process in which different types of chemical reactions are involved in controlling the living state of the cells in an organism.
  • Metabolism
  • Transportation
  • Respiration
  • Excretion
218
Q.222. In Golgi apparatus, the maturing face is:
  • Concave
  • spherical
  • convex
  • bi-concave
219
Q.223. What is the outermost layer found in the cell envelope of the bacterial cell called?
  • Glycocalyx
  • Plasma membrane
  • Cytoplasm
  • Cell membrane
220
Q.224. There are ____ main types of cell division.
  • 2
  • 4
  • 3
  • 5
221
Q.225. Which of the following options is NOT correct about plant cells?
  • The plant cells cannot divide by mitosis
  • Cell wall of a plant cell is made up of
    cellulose
  • A plant cell usually contains a large
    vacuole.
  • Generally, all plant cells contain
    chloroplast
222
Q.226. Identify an option that does NOT represent prokaryotic cells.
  • Sperm
  • Mycoplasma
  • Blue-green algae
  • Pleuropneumonia-like organism
223
Q.227. A group of ribosomes attached to mRNA is known as __________.
  • Polysomes
  • monomer
  • polypeptide
  • polysomes
224
Q.229. An undifferentiated layer, _______ is present in between the ectoderm and the endoderm.
  • Mesoglea
  • Coeliea
  • Acoelomea
  • Ectinoglea
225
Q.230. What happens to the decomposition rate when detritus is rich in lignin and chitin?
  • It is slower
  • It is negligible
  • It is faster
  • There is no movement
226
Q.231. Identify the function of plasmid DNA.
  • To confer certain unique phenotypic characters to bacteria
  • None of the given options are correct
  • To form blood cells
  • To help in the formation of rRNA
227
Q.232. ______ is a group of cells similar in structure and function.
  • Tissue
  • Organ system
  • Organ
  • Molecule
228
Q.234. What is the role of ribosomes of a polysome?
  • The ribosomes of a polysome translate the mRNA into proteins
  • The ribosomes synthesise the fats
  • The ribosomes of a polysome translate the rRNA into proteins.
  • The ribosomes of a monosome
    translate the rRNA into proteins.
229
Q.235. Which of the following is a plant tissue?
I. Meristematic tissue
II. Permanent tissue
  • Both I and II
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
230
Q.236. Cells of meristematic tissue lack ________.
  • Vacuoles
  • Cellulose wall
  • cytoplasm
  • Nuclei
231
Q.237. Which of the following is NOT a type of chromosome, on the basis of the location of the centromere?
  • Lophocentric
  • Telocentric
  • Acrocentric
  • Metacentric
232
Q.238. Which cell organelle is an overlapping membranous sac with ER-like thickness that helps in processing and packaging protein and lipid molecules, especially stable proteins?
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Lysosome
  • mitochondria
  • Reaper
233
Q.239. Which thin flexible barrier separates the internal environment of the cell from the extracellular fluid?
  • Plasma membrane
  • Nuclear envelope
  • Cytoplasmic membrane
  • Restriction barrier
234
Q.240. Which of the following cell organelles functions both as a passageway for intracellular transport and as a manufacturing surface?
  • Endoplasmic Reticulum
  • Golgi Apparatus
  • Lysosome
  • Mitochondria
235
Q.241. Which organelle is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
  • Ribosome
  • Golgi bodies
  • Mitochondria
  • Lysosome
236
Q.242. In plant cell, ______ are primarily organelles in which materials such as starch, oils and protein granules are stored.
  • Leucoplasts
  • chromoplasts
  • mitochondria
  • vacuoles
237
Q.243. Amoeba acquires its food through the process of ______.
  • Endocytosis
  • photosynthesis
  • diffusion
  • exocytosis
238
Q.244. Which of the following statements is correct about endoplasmic reticulum?
I. It is a large network of membrane-bound tubes and sheets.
II. It is similar in structure to the plasma membrane.
  • Both I and II
  • Only I
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
239
Q.245. What are the projections of varying lengths protruding out of an amoeba’s body, which can appear and disappear, known as?
  • Pseudopodia
  • Contractile vacuole
  • Paramecium
  • Pseudo vacuole
240
Q.246. ______ is known as the energy currency of the cell.
  • ATP
  • DNA
  • RNA
  • ADP
241
Q247. Which of the following cell organelles are NOT present in animal cells?
  • Plastids
  • Ribosomes
  • Lysosomes
  • Mitochondria
242
Q248. Which of the following are situated in the nucleus of a cell?
  • Chromosome and genes
  • Cytoplasm and chromosome
  • Nucleolus and cytoplasm
  • Protoplasm and chromosome
243
Q249. Select the correct statement.
  • The cytoplasm and nucleus are enclosed within the cell membrane, also called the plasma membrane
  • There are only 2 basic components of
    a cell-cytoplasm and nucleus
  • The membrane separates ribosomes
    and mitochondria of a cell
  • The plasma membrane does not
    allow inward movement of the
    substance
244
Q250. Which cell theory proved that the quasi-fluid nature of lipids enables lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer?
  • Fluid mosaic model
  • Cell theory
  • Model of Golgi bodies
  • Vacuole theory
245
Q251. Under the electron microscope, which cell organelle is visible as either clusters or single, small dots that float freely in the cytoplasm?
  • Ribosomes
  • Golgi apparatus
  • Vesicles
  • Peroxisomes
246
Q252. Identify the cell that is amoeboid in shape.
  • White blood cell
  • Nerve cell
  • Red blood cell
  • Columnar epithelial cell
247
Q253. Which structural layer surrounds the algal, fungal and plant cells and provides tensile strength and protection against mechanical and osmotic stress?
  • Cell wall
  • Cell membrane
  • Plastids
  • Vacuole
248
Q254. Which of the following statements is correct about mitochondria?
  • Mitochondria without outer membrane is called mitoplast
  • Mitochondria is present only in
    bacteria.
  • Mitochondria is present in all living
    cells.
  • Mitochondria is not bound by any
    membrane.
249
Q255. In cell biology, what is a large double-membraned organelle that is sometimes referred to as the ‘central unit’ of the cell because it contains the chromosomes that bear genetic material?
  • Nucleus
  • Peroxisome
  • Mitochondrion
  • Lysosome
250
Q256. In animal cells, which membrane-bound cell organelles are generally smaller and help to separate waste products?
  • Vacuoles
  • Plastids
  • Cytosols
  • Golgi apparatus
251
Q257. Identify the component found only in a eukaryotic cell.
  • Nuclear membrane
  • Ribosomes
  • Plasma membrane
  • Cytoplasm
252
Q258. Which is the major microtubule-organising centre (MTOC) in eukaryotic cells involved in various cellular processes, including sensory reception, locomotion, and embryogenesis?
  • Centrosome
  • Lysosomes
  • Vacuoles
  • Plastids
253
Q259. What is the role of ribosomes of a polysome?
  • Translate the mRNA into proteins
  • Help in making DNA
  • Help in DNA replication
  • Create rRNA
254
Q260. Which of the following is an example of active transport?
  • Sodium and potassium pumps
  • Iron assimilation
  • Salt elimination
  • Glucose transport
255
Q261. Which of the following microscopic cells are of an amoeboid shape with a distinctive central membrane?
  • White blood cells
  • Nerve cells
  • Red blood cells
  • Guard cells
256
Q262. Choose the correct sequence for central dogma.
  • DNA Replication, m-RNA transcription, Protein translation
  • Protein translation, DNA Replication,
    m-RNA transcription
  • m-RNA transcription, DNA
    Replication, Protein translation
  • m-RNA transcription, Protein
    translation, DNA Replication
257
Q264. Which biological stain is used in histology and cytology to colour all cell nuclei red?
  • Safranin
  • Methyl orange
  • Phenolphthalein
  • Cresol red
258
Q266. Which of the following is a characteristic of permanent tissue?
  • Intercellular spaces are present
  • Vacuoles are absent
  • Inorganic inclusions are absent
  • Cells divide repeatedly
259
Q267. Which of the following is the largest cell in the human body?
  • Ovum
  • Osteoclast
  • Sperm
  • Neurons
260
Q268. ______ include/s glycogen, poly-β-hydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles.
  • Cytoplasm
  • Mesosomes
  • Flagella
  • Plasma membrane
261
Q269. Which protein protects the epithelial cells from damage?
  • Keratin
  • Actin
  • Elastin
  • Collagen
262
Q270. Clove is an ________ indicator.
  • Olfactory
  • Chemical
  • Universal
  • Gustatory
263
Q271. The size of the pupil of the eye is controlled by the ______.
  • Iris
  • cornea
  • retina
  • blind spot
264
Q272. What do you call the transparent front part of the eye?
  • Cornea
  • Iris
  • Pupil
  • Retina
265
Q273. Which tissue among the following is a protective tissue in the animal body?
  • Epithelial tissue
  • Muscular tissue
  • Nervous tissue
  • Connective tissue
266
Q274. Which of the following body parts behaves like a stretched rubber sheet?
  • Eardrum
  • Tongue
  • Nostril
  • Eye lens
267
Q275. Identify the pigment that gives blood its colour.
  • Haemoglobin
  • Chlorophyll
  • Ferritin
  • Xanthophyll
268
Q276. _______ are the vessels which carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.
  • Arteries
  • Veins
  • Plasma
  • Tracheas
269
Q277. Fishes have ________ chambers of the heart.
  • Two
  • One
  • Three
  • Four
270
Q278. _______________ are the vessels which carry carbon dioxide-rich blood back to the heart.
  • Veins
  • capillaries
  • neurons
  • arteries
271
Q279. The blood platelets are also known as
  • Thrombocytes
  • leucocytes
  • thrombin
  • erythrocytes
272
Q280. Muscles are of three types. Which of the following is NOT one of them?
  • Sesamoids
  • Smooth
  • Skeletal
  • Cardiac
273
Q281. What is the pH of human blood?
  • 7.4
  • 6.5
  • 5.8
  • 10
274
Q282. Which of the following is a type of connective tissue? I. Blood II. Bone III. Ligament
  • I, II and III
  • Only III
  • Only II and III
  • Only I and II
275
Q283. Which of the following is essential to form haemoglobin in blood?
  • Iron
  • Fats
  • Calcium
  • Protein
276
Q284. Which of the following is NOT a type of blood cell made by the bone marrow?
  • Osteoclasts
  • Platelets
  • Red blood cells
  • White blood cells
277
Q285. Lymph is a light clear fluid made up of white blood cells that attack harmful ______ in the blood.
  • Bacteria
  • protozoa
  • fungi
  • viruses
278
Q286. Which of the following is a large bean-shaped lymphoid organ in the human body?
  • Spleen
  • Thymus
  • Lymph node
  • Tonsil
279
Q.287. Which of the following statements about blood pressure is correct?
  • The normal systolic pressure is about 120 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is 80 mm of Hg.
  • The normal systolic pressure is about
    80 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is
    120 mm of Hg.
  • The normal systolic pressure is about
    160 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure
    is 80 mm of Hg.
  • The normal systolic pressure is about 72 mm of Hg and diastolic pressure is
    35 mm of Hg.
280
Q.288. Swollen bluish veins resulting from the valves that do not close properly are called ______.
  • Varicose veins.
  • deep veins
  • superficial veins
  • systemic veins
281
Q.289. Which is a specialised excretory cell found in Platyhelminthes that acts like a kidney, removing waste material through filtration?
  • Flame cell.
  • Fat cell
  • Stem cel
  • Sponge cell
282
Q.290. ______ is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.
  • Nephron.
  • Cortex
  • Ureter
  • Medulla
283
Q.291. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for the yellow colour in urine?
  • Urobilin or urochrome.
  • Bilirubin
  • Albumin
  • Creatinine
284
Q.292. Which gland gets enlarged in the goitre due to which there is a swelling in the front part of the throat?
  • Thyroid gland.
  • Adrenal gland
  • Pineal gland
  • Pituitary gland
285
Q.293. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?
  • Liver.
  • Pancreas
  • Pineal
  • Hypothalamus
286
Q.294. Proboscis gland for excretion is present in the phylum:
  • Hemichordata.
  • Arthropoda
  • Porifera
  • Mollusca
287
Q.295. Which gland produces Cortisol often known as a 'stress hormone' in humans?
  • Adrenal gland.
  • Thyroid gland
  • Pituitary gland
  • Pineal gland
288
Q.296. Which of the following parts of the bodylands maintains the body temperature?
  • Hypothalamus.
  • Pituitary
  • Adrenal
  • Thyroid
289
Q.297. ______ glands release tears from our eyes.
  • Lacrimal glands.
  • Adrenal
  • Thyroid
  • Pituitary
290
Q.298. What is a leaf-shaped flap of cartilage located behind the tongue, at the top of the larynx or voice box called?
  • Epiglottis.
  • Gallbladder
  • Ileum
  • Jejunum
291
Q.299. In boys, the growing 'larynx' is visible as a distinct bulge at the front of the throat called _______.
  • Kanthamani (Adam's apple).
  • Adrenaline
  • Corn
  • Gullet
292
Q.300. Breakdown of pyruvate into lactic acid and energy in lack of Oxygen takes place in Which of the following?
  • Human muscle cells.
  • Bacteria
  • Mitochondria
  • Yeast
293
Q.301. Which of the following is correct regarding the respiration?
I. Regular traditional breathing exercise
(pranayama) can increase the capacity of
lungs to take in more air.

II. During inhalation, ribs move up and
outwards and diaphragm moves down.
  • Both I and II.
  • Only II
  • Neither I nor II
  • Only I
294
Q.302. What is the percentage of carbon dioxide in the air exhaled by human lungs?
  • 4.4%.
  • 3.2 %
  • 2.3 %
  • 5.9 %
295
Q.303. What is the network of air tubes for gas exchange in insects?
  • Tracheae.
  • Gills
  • Diaphragm
  • Spiracles
296
Q.304. Identify the function of lipase in the process of digestion.
  • Breaking down emulsified fats.
  • Breaking down roughage
  • Digesting proteins
  • Secreting intestinal fluids
297
Q.305. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the liver?
  • It is situated in the upper part of the abdomen on the left side.
  • It secretes bile juice that is stored in a
    sac called the gallbladder.
  • It is a reddish-brown gland.
  • It is the largest gland in the body.
298
Q.306. Liver gland secretes that are stored in a sac called the gallbladder.
  • Bile juice.
  • estrogen
  • hydrochloric acid
  • mucous
299
Q.307. In humans, the digestion of carbohydrates like starch, begins in which of the following parts?
  • Buccal cavity.
  • Rectum
  • Small Intestine
  • Oesophagus
300
Q.308. In ruminants like cattle, bacteria present in _______ helps in digestion of cellulose.
  • Rumen.
  • oesophagus
  • large intestine
  • small intestine

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