1What are the three main genera of hemoflagellates discussed in the source material?
Leishmania, Trypanosoma cruzi, and Trypanosoma brucei.
2Trypanosomes are divided into two groups based on the location of development in the vector: Salivaria (anterior station) and _____ (posterior station).
Stercoraria
3Which morphological form of trypanosomatid flagellates is known as the tissue form?
Amastigote.
4Which morphological form of trypanosomatid flagellates is found in the blood?
Trypomastigote.
5What is the primary vector for Leishmania species?
The sand fly.
6In the Leishmania life cycle, what is the infective stage injected into the human host by the sand fly?
Promastigote.
7Once inside the human host, Leishmania promastigotes are phagocytized by macrophages and transform into what stage?
Amastigotes.
8What is the diagnostic stage of Leishmania found in the cells of infected humans?
Amastigotes.
9Leishmania transmission by its sand fly vector is classified as what type of transmission (anterior or posterior station)?
Anterior station transmission.
10Which two Leishmania species are the primary causes of Old World cutaneous leishmaniasis?
L. tropica and L. major.
11Which Leishmania species is responsible for mucocutaneous leishmaniasis in the New World?
L. braziliensis.
12What is the common name for visceral leishmaniasis?
Kala-azar.
13What are the key systemic signs of visceral leishmaniasis (Kala-azar)?
Intermittent fever, anemia, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and progressive weight loss.
14What condition, caused by L. donovani, can occur as a sequel to kala-azar following inadequate treatment?
Post-kala azar Dermal Leishmaniasis.
15Control methods for leishmaniasis focus on controlling the sand fly vector and what other major factor?
Control of reservoirs, such as dogs and rodents.
16Trypanosoma cruzi is the causative agent of what disease?
Chagas' disease (American trypanosomiasis).
17What is the vector for Trypanosoma cruzi?
Reduviid bugs (also known as kissing bugs).
18Transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi by its vector is classified as _____ station.
posterior (stercorarian)
19How does human infection with Trypanosoma cruzi occur after a reduviid bug takes a blood meal?
The bug defecates, and trypomastigotes in the feces enter the bite wound.
20A key sign of the acute phase of Chagas' disease, involving unilateral swelling of the eyelid, is known as what?
Romaña's sign.
21The chronic phase of Chagas' disease can lead to severe organ damage, including cardiomyopathy, megaesophagus, and _____.
megacolon
22What is the common name for the disease caused by Trypanosoma brucei?
African Sleeping Sickness (Human African Trypanosomiasis or HAT).
23What is the vector for Trypanosoma brucei?
The tsetse fly (Glossina sp.).
24Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei causes chronic sleeping sickness in West and Central Africa?
Trypanosoma brucei gambiense.
25Which subspecies of Trypanosoma brucei causes acute sleeping sickness in East Africa?
Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense.
26The ability of Trypanosoma brucei to evade the host immune system by changing its surface proteins is known as what?
Antigenic variation (involving Variable Surface Glycoproteins or VSGs).
27What are the two major stages of Human African Trypanosomiasis?
The hemolymphatic stage and the meningoencephalitis stage.
28Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of which genus?
Plasmodium.
29What is the definitive host and vector for Plasmodium species?
The Anopheles mosquito.
30In the Plasmodium life cycle, the mosquito injects _____ into the human host.
sporozoites
31The asexual reproduction phase of Plasmodium in the human liver is called the _____ cycle.
exo-erythrocytic
32The stage of Plasmodium that infects red blood cells is the _____.
merozoite
33Which species of Plasmodium is responsible for the most severe form of malaria and has a fever cycle of 36-48 hours?
Plasmodium falciparum.
34The characteristic recurring fever attacks in malaria, known as paroxysms, consist of what three stages?
A cold stage, a hot stage, and a sweating stage.
35Malaria relapses in P. vivax and P. ovale are due to dormant liver stages called _____.
hypnozoites
36A severe complication of malaria caused by P. falciparum, where infected red blood cells block capillaries in the brain, is known as what?
Cerebral malaria.
37What is the name of the condition, a complication of malaria, characterized by massive intravascular hemolysis leading to dark urine?
Blackwater fever.
38Individuals with sickle cell trait (heterozygous) have a protective advantage against which species of Plasmodium?
Plasmodium falciparum.
39The absence of the _____ blood group antigen on red blood cells provides protection against P. vivax.
Duffy
40Babesiosis is a zoonotic disease caused by parasites of the genus _____.
Babesia
41What is the primary vector for Babesia species?
Ticks.
42In the Babesia life cycle, what is the definitive host?
The tick.
43Babesia bigemina is the causative agent of what disease in cattle?
Texas Cattle Fever.
44What is the term for the transmission of a pathogen from a tick to its offspring through the eggs?
Transovarial transmission.
45What is the term for the transmission of a pathogen from one life stage of a tick to the next (e.g., larva to nymph)?
Transstadial transmission.
46Which species of Babesia is cosmopolitan, uses mice as an intermediate host, and primarily causes disease in elderly or immunocompromised humans?
Babesia microti.
47Coccidia, such as Eimeria and Cystoisospora, have a _____ life cycle, meaning they complete their entire life cycle within a single host.
direct (monoxenous)
48What is the infective stage of coccidia that is ingested by the host?
The mature (sporulated) oocyst.
49Infection with Cryptosporidium sp. can cause a life-threatening, hyperinfective diarrhea in what group of people?
Immunocompromised people.
50What is the definitive host for Toxoplasma gondii?
Cats.
51How can humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii?
By ingesting tissue cysts from undercooked meat or ingesting oocysts from cat feces.
52What is a major risk associated with a primary Toxoplasma gondii infection in a pregnant woman?
Congenital toxoplasmosis in the fetus, which can cause blindness, mental impairment, and other defects.
53What are the three main body segments of an insect?
Head, thorax, and abdomen.
54What are the two main body segments of an arachnid (like a tick or spider)?
Combined head and thorax (cephalothorax) and abdomen.
55What type of metamorphosis involves egg, larva, pupa, and adult stages?
Complete metamorphosis.
56What type of metamorphosis involves egg, nymph, and adult stages, where nymphs resemble smaller versions of the adult?
Incomplete (or gradual) metamorphosis.
57Adult arachnids are characterized by having how many pairs of legs?
Four pairs (8 legs total).
58The mite Demodex canis is a normal resident of the hair follicle but can cause disease, known as demodicosis, in what kind of dogs?
Dogs with immune deficiencies.
59Which mite species burrows into the skin of humans and most domestic animals, causing an intensely pruritic condition known as scabies?
Sarcoptes scabiei.
60Ticks are divided into two main families: Ixodidae, known as _____ ticks, and Argasidae, known as soft ticks.
hard
61Ixodes scapularis, the blacklegged tick, is a primary vector for which three diseases mentioned in the text?
Lyme disease, Babesiosis, and Anaplasmosis/Ehrlichiosis.
62Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is primarily transmitted by which two tick genera in the U.S.?
Dermacentor (American dog tick) and Rhipicephalus (brown dog tick).
63What is the term for the invasion of living animal tissue by the larvae of dipterous flies?
Myiasis.
64Cochliomyia hominovorax is the primary screwworm, which is an example of _____ myiasis, meaning the larvae require living tissue to develop.
obligatory (or specific)
65What is the common name for the larvae of Gasterophilus sp., which are found in the stomach of horses?
Horse stomach bots.
66Dermatobia hominis, the human bot fly, has a unique method of delivering its eggs to a host by capturing a mosquito and attaching its eggs to the mosquito's body. What is this method called?
Phoresis.
67Lice are divided into two main orders: Mallophaga, the chewing lice, and _____, the sucking lice.
Anoplura
68How can one visually distinguish a sucking louse (Anoplura) from a chewing louse (Mallophaga)?
Sucking lice have narrow heads (narrower than the thorax), while chewing lice have broad heads (wider than the thorax).
69What is the most common species of flea found on both dogs and cats?
Ctenocephalides felis (the cat flea).
70What is the primary cause of Flea Allergy Dermatitis (FAD) in dogs and cats?
A hypersensitivity to antigens found in flea saliva.
71What type of parasite is Babesia microti?
An intraerythrocytic (infects red blood cells) protozoan.
72What is a chagoma?
A hardened, red inflammatory lesion at the site of inoculation in acute Chagas' disease.
73What does the term 'zoonotic' mean?
A disease that can be transmitted from animals to humans.
74Which group of trypanosomes, the Brucei Group or the Lewisi Group, is associated with anterior station (salivarian) transmission?
The Brucei Group.
75What is the name of the disease in ruminants caused by Trypanosoma brucei brucei?
Nagana.
76The Plasmodium life cycle stage that undergoes sexual reproduction in the mosquito gut is the _____.
gametocyte
77What is the term for the re-emergence of malaria symptoms from parasites persisting in the blood, as seen with P. malariae?
Recrudescence.
78What is the one-host tick that is the vector for Babesia bigemina and Babesia bovis?
Boophilus spp.