1Psychology is best defined as:
A. The study of emotions only
B. The scientific study of behaviour and mental processes
C. The study of the brain only
D. The study of mental illness only
B. The scientific study of behaviour and mental processes - Psychology is the scientific study of behaviour and mental processes.
2 Which of the following is a goal of psychology?
A. Describe behaviour
B. Explain behaviour
C. Predict behaviour
D. All of the above
D. All of the above - Psychology aims to describe, explain, predict, and influence behaviour.
3 Which school of psychology focused on observable behaviour?
A. Structuralism
B. Functionalism
C. Behaviourism
D. Psychoanalysis
C. Behaviourism - Behaviourism focuses on observable behaviour.
4 Who developed psychoanalysis?
A. William James
B. B.F. Skinner
C. Wilhelm Wundt
D. Sigmund Freud
D. Sigmund Freud - Sigmund Freud developed psychoanalysis.
5 What does the cognitive perspective focus on?
A. Culture
B. Thinking and memory
C. Hormones
D. Reinforcement
B. Thinking and memory - The cognitive perspective studies thinking, memory, perception, and problem solving.
6 Which perspective examines the influence of culture and society?
A. Humanistic
B. Biological
C. Sociocultural
D. Cognitive
C. Sociocultural - The sociocultural perspective examines cultural and social influences.
7 What is a hypothesis?
A. A proven fact
B. A testable prediction
C. An observation
D. A conclusion
B. A testable prediction - A hypothesis is a testable prediction.
8 Which research method involves studying one person in depth?
A. Survey
B. Experiment
C. Case Study
D. Observation
C. Case Study - A case study investigates one person or group in depth.
9 What is the independent variable?
A. The outcome measured
B. The factor manipulated
C. The control group
D. The conclusion
B. The factor manipulated - The independent variable is manipulated by the researcher.
10 What is the dependent variable?
A. The measured outcome
B. The manipulated factor
C. The sample
D. The hypothesis
A. The measured outcome - The dependent variable is the outcome measured.
11 Why is random assignment important?
A. It reduces bias
B. It increases costs
C. It proves causation
D. It eliminates variables
A. It reduces bias - Random assignment helps reduce bias and creates similar groups.
12 Which research method is best for determining cause and effect?
A. Survey
B. Case Study
C. Experiment
D. Observation
C. Experiment - Experiments are used to determine cause-and-effect relationships.
13 What is the placebo effect?
A. Changes caused by expectations
B. Random assignment
C. A type of survey
D. A research error
A. Changes caused by expectations - The placebo effect occurs because participants expect a treatment to work.
14 In a double-blind study:
A. Only participants know the treatment
B. Only researchers know the treatment
C. Nobody knows who receives the treatment
D. Everyone knows the treatment
C. Nobody knows who receives the treatment - In a double-blind study, neither participants nor researchers know who receives the treatment.
15 Why are ethical guidelines important?
A. To increase sample size
B. To protect participants
C. To improve grades
D. To reduce costs
B. To protect participants - Ethics protect participants' rights, safety, and well-being.
16 What is the basic unit of the nervous system?
A. Hormone
B. Neuron
C. Synapse
D. Gland
B. Neuron - Neurons are the basic communication units of the nervous system.
17 Which part of a neuron receives incoming signals?
A. Axon
B. Myelin
C. Dendrite
D. Synapse
C. Dendrite - Dendrites receive incoming messages from other neurons.
18 What is the function of the myelin sheath?
A. Produces neurotransmitters
B. Slows neural messages
C. Speeds neural transmission
D. Stores memories
C. Speeds neural transmission - Myelin speeds the transmission of neural impulses.
19 What occurs during an action potential?
A. The neuron is resting
B. The neuron fires
C. Hormones are released
D. Memory is stored
B. The neuron fires - An action potential occurs when a neuron fires.
20 What does the all-or-none principle state?
A. Neurons always fire weakly
B. Neurons fire completely or not at all
C. Neurons never stop firing
D. Neurons choose their firing strength
B. Neurons fire completely or not at all - Neurons either fire completely or do not fire at all.
21 What are neurotransmitters?
A. Electrical impulses
B. Hormones
C. Chemical messengers
D. Brain scans
C. Chemical messengers - Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that cross synapses.
22 Which neurotransmitter is most associated with pleasure and movement?
A. Serotonin
B. GABA
C. Dopamine
D. ACh
C. Dopamine - Dopamine is linked to movement, pleasure, and reward.
23 What structures make up the central nervous system?
A. Nerves and glands
B. Brain and spinal cord
C. Brain and muscles
D. Nerves and receptors
B. Brain and spinal cord - The CNS consists of the brain and spinal cord.
24 Which division controls voluntary movement?
A. Autonomic
B. Sympathetic
C. Somatic
D. Parasympathetic
C. Somatic - The somatic nervous system controls voluntary actions.
25 Which nervous system division is responsible for fight-or-flight?
A. Somatic
B. Sympathetic
C. Parasympathetic
D. Central
B. Sympathetic - The sympathetic nervous system prepares the body for emergencies.
26 What is the function of the cerebellum?
A. Memory
B. Vision
C. Balance and coordination
D. Language
C. Balance and coordination - The cerebellum coordinates balance and movement.
27 Which brain structure is most important for memory formation?
A. Amygdala
B. Pons
C. Hippocampus
D. Medulla
C. Hippocampus - The hippocampus is essential for forming new memories.
28 Which brain structure is strongly linked to fear and emotion?
A. Hippocampus
B. Amygdala
C. Thalamus
D. Cerebellum
B. Amygdala - The amygdala is strongly involved in fear and emotion.
29 Why is the thalamus called a relay station?
A. It stores memories
B. It controls breathing
C. It directs sensory information
D. It produces hormones
C. It directs sensory information - The thalamus relays sensory information to the cortex.
30 What is the role of the pituitary gland?
A. Controls digestion
B. Controls other endocrine glands
C. Produces neurotransmitters
D. Stores memories
B. Controls other endocrine glands - The pituitary gland regulates other endocrine glands.
31 What is heredity?
A. Learned behaviour
B. Environmental influence
C. Transmission of traits from parents
D. Brain development
C. Transmission of traits from parents - Heredity refers to traits passed from parents to offspring.
32 What are genes?
A. Hormones
B. Segments of DNA
C. Brain cells
D. Neurotransmitters
B. Segments of DNA - Genes are segments of DNA that influence traits.
33 What does epigenetics study?
A. Brain imaging
B. Hormone production
C. Environmental influences on gene expression
D. Neuron structure
C. Environmental influences on gene expression - Epigenetics examines how environmental factors affect gene activity.
34 Which brain imaging technique measures electrical activity?
A. MRI
B. PET
C. CT
D. EEG
D. EEG - EEG records electrical activity in the brain.
35 Which imaging technique measures brain activity while a person performs tasks?
A. fMRI
B. EEG
C. CT
D. X-ray
A. fMRI - fMRI measures brain activity while people perform tasks.
36 What is the difference between sensation and perception?
A. They are identical processes
B. Sensation detects stimuli
37 perception interprets them
C. Perception occurs before sensation
D. Sensation only involves vision
B. Sensation detects stimuli
38 perception interprets them - Sensation detects stimuli
39 perception interprets them.
40 What is an absolute threshold?
A. Maximum stimulus intensity
B. Minimum detectable stimulus
C. Difference between stimuli
D. Adaptation level
B. Minimum detectable stimulus - The absolute threshold is the minimum detectable stimulus.
41 Which concept describes the smallest detectable change between two stimuli?
A. Signal detection
B. Sensory adaptation
C. Difference threshold
D. Closure
C. Difference threshold - The difference threshold is the smallest detectable change.
42 What does Weber's Law explain?
A. Colour vision
B. Perceptual constancy
C. Just noticeable differences
D. Hearing loss
C. Just noticeable differences - Weber's Law explains just noticeable differences.
43 What is sensory adaptation?
A. Increased sensitivity
B. Reduced sensitivity to constant stimulation
C. Perceptual illusion
D. Blindness
B. Reduced sensitivity to constant stimulation - Sensory adaptation reduces sensitivity to constant stimulation.
44 Which receptors are responsible for colour vision?
A. Rods
B. Cones
C. Ganglion cells
D. Bipolar cells
B. Cones - Cones detect colour and fine detail.
45 What is the function of rods?
A. Colour vision
B. Night vision
C. Depth perception
D. Taste perception
B. Night vision - Rods are specialized for low-light vision.
46 Which structure controls the size of the pupil?
A. Retina
B. Cornea
C. Iris
D. Lens
C. Iris - The iris controls the amount of light entering the eye.
47 Which theory proposes three types of colour receptors?
A. Opponent-process theory
B. Frequency theory
C. Trichromatic theory
D. Place theory
C. Trichromatic theory - Trichromatic theory proposes red-, green-, and blue-sensitive cones.
48 What is the blind spot?
A. Area of greatest visual acuity
B. Area with no receptors
C. Location of cones
D. Edge of the retina
B. Area with no receptors - The blind spot lacks visual receptors.
49 What is figure-ground perception?
A. Judging distance
B. Detecting sound
C. Separating objects from backgrounds
D. Colour discrimination
C. Separating objects from backgrounds - Figure-ground perception separates objects from their backgrounds.
50 What is closure?
A. Ignoring stimuli
B. Filling in missing information
C. Detecting movement
D. Hearing adaptation
B. Filling in missing information - Closure involves mentally completing incomplete figures.
51 What is top-down processing?
A. Perception guided by prior knowledge
B. Sensory adaptation
C. Detecting stimuli only
D. Reflexive perception
A. Perception guided by prior knowledge - Top-down processing uses prior experience and expectations.
52 What determines the pitch of a sound?
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Brightness
D. Intensity
B. Frequency - Frequency determines pitch.
53 What unit measures sound intensity?
A. Hertz
B. Watt
C. Decibel
D. Volt
C. Decibel - Sound intensity is measured in decibels.
54 What structure in the inner ear converts vibrations into neural signals?
A. Retina
B. Cochlea
C. Iris
D. Cornea
B. Cochlea - The cochlea converts sound vibrations into neural signals.
55 What is olfaction?
A. Taste
B. Hearing
C. Smell
D. Balance
C. Smell - Olfaction is the sense of smell.
56 What is gustation?
A. Smell
B. Taste
C. Vision
D. Hearing
B. Taste - Gustation is the sense of taste.
57 What sense helps you know where your body parts are without looking?
A. Vestibular sense
B. Gustation
C. Kinesthesis
D. Olfaction
C. Kinesthesis - Kinesthesis provides awareness of body position and movement.
58 What conclusion does psychology draw about ESP?
A. Strong evidence supports it
B. Evidence remains scientifically unconvincing
C. It has been proven repeatedly
D. It replaces sensory perception
B. Evidence remains scientifically unconvincing - Scientific research has not provided convincing evidence for ESP.
59 Consciousness is best defined as:
A. Memory storage
B. Awareness of ourselves and our environment
C. A sleep disorder
D. A dreaming process
B. Awareness of ourselves and our environment - Consciousness refers to being aware of internal thoughts and external surroundings.
60 What is selective attention?
A. Sleeping deeply
B. Focusing on one stimulus while ignoring others
C. Dreaming during sleep
D. Losing awareness
B. Focusing on one stimulus while ignoring others - Selective attention helps us concentrate on important information.
61 Which stage of sleep is most associated with vivid dreaming?
A. Stage 1
B. Stage 2
C. REM Sleep
D. Stage 4
C. REM Sleep - Most vivid and memorable dreams occur during REM sleep.
62 What is the body's internal biological clock called?
A. Reflex arc
B. Circadian rhythm
C. Synapse
D. Homeostasis
B. Circadian rhythm - This biological clock regulates sleep and wake cycles.
63 Which sleep disorder involves repeated breathing interruptions?
A. Insomnia
B. Narcolepsy
C. Sleep Apnea
D. Night Terrors
C. Sleep Apnea - Sleep apnea involves repeated interruptions in breathing during sleep.
64 What is narcolepsy?
A. Fear of sleeping
B. Sudden and uncontrollable sleep attacks
C. Difficulty breathing during sleep
D. Walking while asleep
B. Sudden and uncontrollable sleep attacks - People with narcolepsy may fall asleep unexpectedly.
65 Why is sleep important?
A. It improves learning and memory
B. It supports physical health
C. It restores the body
D. All of the above
D. All of the above - Sleep supports memory, learning, health, and body restoration.
66 What is hypnosis?
A. A sleep stage
B. A state of heightened concentration and suggestibility
C. A dream theory
D. A sleep disorder
B. A state of heightened concentration and suggestibility - Hypnosis is used in some therapeutic settings and research.
67 What is mindfulness meditation?
A. Sleeping while awake
B. Focusing attention on the present moment
C. Dream interpretation
D. Hypnosis
B. Focusing attention on the present moment - Mindfulness meditation encourages awareness without judgment.
68 Which statement about sleep deprivation is true?
A. It improves concentration
B. It improves memory
C. It can negatively affect learning and performance
D. It has no effect on health
C. It can negatively affect learning and performance - Sleep deprivation reduces attention, memory, and cognitive functioning.
69 What is learning?
A. Temporary behaviour change
B. Permanent memory loss
C. A relatively permanent change in behaviour due to experience
D. A biological reflex
C. A relatively permanent change in behaviour due to experience - Learning involves lasting behavioural change resulting from experience.
70 Who developed classical conditioning?
A. Skinner
B. Bandura
C. Pavlov
D. Freud
C. Pavlov - Ivan Pavlov discovered classical conditioning through his dog experiments.
71 In Pavlov's experiment, food was the:
A. Conditioned stimulus
B. Conditioned response
C. Unconditioned stimulus
D. Neutral stimulus
C. Unconditioned stimulus - Food naturally causes salivation without prior learning.
72 What is the conditioned response in Pavlov's experiment?
A. Food
B. Bell
C. Salivation to the bell
D. Salivation to food
C. Salivation to the bell - After conditioning, the bell alone caused salivation.
73 What is extinction?
A. Learning a new behaviour
B. Strengthening a response
C. Weakening a conditioned response when reinforcement stops
D. Observational learning
C. Weakening a conditioned response when reinforcement stops - Extinction occurs when the conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented without the unconditioned stimulus.
74 Which consequence increases behaviour by adding something desirable?
A. Negative punishment
B. Positive punishment
C. Positive reinforcement
D. Extinction
C. Positive reinforcement - Adding a reward increases the likelihood of behaviour.
75 Which example best illustrates negative reinforcement?
A. Receiving detention
B. Getting a reward
C. Seatbelt alarm stops when seatbelt is buckled
D. Losing phone privileges
C. Seatbelt alarm stops when seatbelt is buckled - Removing an unpleasant stimulus increases behaviour.
76 Which consequence decreases behaviour by removing something desirable?
A. Positive reinforcement
B. Negative reinforcement
C. Positive punishment
D. Negative punishment
D. Negative punishment - A desired item or privilege is removed to reduce behaviour.
77 Who developed social learning theory?
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Bandura
D. Watson
C. Bandura - Albert Bandura developed social learning theory.
78 What did Bandura's Bobo Doll experiment demonstrate?
A. Memory improvement
B. Learning through observation and imitation
C. Sleep learning
D. Biological inheritance
B. Learning through observation and imitation - The Bobo Doll experiment showed that children imitate behaviours they observe.
79 Which three processes make up memory?
A. Attention, learning, perception
B. Encoding, storage, retrieval
C. Sensation, perception, learning
D. Thinking, reasoning, problem-solving
B. Encoding, storage, retrieval - These are the three major memory processes.
80 What is encoding?
A. Accessing information
B. Maintaining information
C. Transforming information into memory
D. Forgetting information
C. Transforming information into memory - Encoding prepares information for storage.
81 Which type of memory briefly stores visual information?
A. Echoic memory
B. Episodic memory
C. Semantic memory
D. Iconic memory
D. Iconic memory - Iconic memory briefly stores visual information.
82 What is the capacity-limited memory system that temporarily holds information?
A. Long-term memory
B. Working memory
C. Sensory memory
D. Explicit memory
B. Working memory - Working memory temporarily stores and processes information.
83 What is chunking?
A. Forgetting information
B. Grouping information into meaningful units
C. Repeating information
D. Creating schemas
B. Grouping information into meaningful units - Chunking improves memory capacity.
84 Which type of long-term memory stores personal experiences?
A. Semantic memory
B. Procedural memory
C. Episodic memory
D. Implicit memory
C. Episodic memory - Episodic memory stores personal experiences and events.
85 Knowing how to ride a bicycle is an example of:
A. Semantic memory
B. Procedural memory
C. Episodic memory
D. Prospective memory
B. Procedural memory - Procedural memory involves learned skills and actions.
86 What is prospective memory?
A. Remembering facts
B. Remembering past experiences
C. Remembering to perform future actions
D. Remembering procedures
C. Remembering to perform future actions - Prospective memory helps us remember future intentions.
87 Which type of interference occurs when old information disrupts learning new information?
A. Retroactive interference
B. Proactive interference
C. Retrieval failure
D. Encoding failure
B. Proactive interference - Older memories interfere with learning new information.
88 Which brain structure is most important for forming new long-term memories?
A. Amygdala
B. Cerebellum
C. Hippocampus
D. Thalamus
C. Hippocampus - The hippocampus is critical for forming new long-term memories.
89 What is an algorithm?
A. A mental shortcut
B. A sudden insight
C. A step-by-step procedure that guarantees a solution
D. A language rule
C. A step-by-step procedure that guarantees a solution - Algorithms are systematic methods for solving problems.
90 Which problem-solving strategy uses mental shortcuts?
A. Algorithm
B. Heuristic
C. Syntax
D. Semantics
B. Heuristic - Heuristics are mental shortcuts that make problem solving faster.
91 What is insight?
A. Memorization
B. A sudden realization of a solution
C. Trial-and-error learning
D. Rehearsal
B. A sudden realization of a solution - Insight occurs when the solution suddenly becomes clear.
92 Functional fixedness refers to:
A. Remembering facts
B. Using heuristics
C. Inability to see new uses for familiar objects
D. Language acquisition
C. Inability to see new uses for familiar objects - Functional fixedness can interfere with creative problem solving.
93 Which heuristic involves judging probability based on examples that come easily to mind?
A. Representativeness
B. Anchoring
C. Availability
D. Framing
C. Availability - The availability heuristic relies on easily remembered examples.
94 What does semantics refer to?
A. Grammar rules
B. Word meanings
C. Memory processes
D. Intelligence testing
B. Word meanings - Semantics concerns the meanings of words and language.
95 According to Chomsky, what helps children acquire language?
A. Reinforcement
B. Insight
C. Language Acquisition Device (LAD)
D. Intelligence tests
C. Language Acquisition Device (LAD) - Chomsky proposed that humans have an inborn capacity for language learning.
96 Spearman's theory proposed:
A. Eight intelligences
B. Three intelligences
C. General intelligence (g factor)
D. Emotional intelligence
C. General intelligence (g factor) - Spearman believed a single general intelligence influences performance.
97 Which theory includes analytical, creative, and practical intelligence?
A. Gardner's theory
B. Spearman's theory
C. Sternberg's theory
D. Thurstone's theory
C. Sternberg's theory - Sternberg proposed analytical, creative, and practical intelligence.
98 What is emotional intelligence?
A. Ability to memorize information
B. Ability to understand and manage emotions
C. Ability to solve math problems
D. Ability to learn languages
B. Ability to understand and manage emotions - Emotional intelligence involves recognizing and regulating emotions in oneself and others.
99 What is development?
A. Physical growth only
B. Changes that occur throughout the lifespan
C. Childhood changes only
D. Aging only
B. Changes that occur throughout the lifespan - Development includes physical, cognitive, social, and emotional changes.
100 What is maturation?
A. Learning through experience
B. Biological growth processes
C. Social development
D. Moral reasoning
B. Biological growth processes - Maturation refers to genetically programmed growth.
101 Which stage comes first in prenatal development?
A. Embryo
B. Fetus
C. Zygote
D. Infant
C. Zygote - The zygote is the first stage after conception.
102 What is a teratogen?
A. A developmental stage
B. A harmful influence on prenatal development
C. A genetic disorder
D. A parenting style
B. A harmful influence on prenatal development - Teratogens can negatively affect fetal growth.
103 What is attachment?
A. Physical growth
B. An emotional bond between caregiver and child
C. Cognitive development
D. Language development
B. An emotional bond between caregiver and child - Attachment is important for healthy social development.
104 According to Piaget, what is object permanence?
A. Understanding symbols
B. Understanding objects continue to exist when hidden
C. Abstract thinking
D. Moral reasoning
B. Understanding objects continue to exist when hidden - Object permanence develops during infancy.
105 What is assimilation?
A. Changing a schema
B. Using an existing schema to understand new information
C. Forgetting information
D. Forming attachments
B. Using an existing schema to understand new information - Assimilation fits new experiences into existing knowledge.
106 Which Piaget stage includes abstract thinking?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational
C. Concrete Operational
D. Formal Operational
D. Formal Operational - This stage involves abstract and hypothetical thinking.
107 What major event occurs during adolescence?
A. Object permanence
B. Puberty
C. Secure attachment
D. Conservation
B. Puberty - Puberty marks the beginning of sexual maturity.
108 What is moral development?
A. Physical growth
B. Development of ethical reasoning and judgment
C. Language development
D. Memory development
B. Development of ethical reasoning and judgment - Moral development involves understanding right and wrong.
109 What is motivation?
A. A type of emotion
B. A process that energizes, directs, and sustains behaviour
C. A memory process
D. A personality trait
B. A process that energizes, directs, and sustains behaviour - Motivation explains why people act in particular ways.
110 What is a drive?
A. An external reward
B. A learned behaviour
C. An aroused state resulting from a need
D. A type of emotion
C. An aroused state resulting from a need - Drives push individuals to satisfy biological or psychological needs.
111 Which theory suggests behaviour is motivated by inherited patterns?
A. Drive theory
B. Incentive theory
C. Instinct theory
D. Cognitive theory
C. Instinct theory - Instinct theory emphasizes inherited behavioural patterns.
112 Which eating disorder involves severe food restriction and distorted body image?
A. Bulimia nervosa
B. Binge-eating disorder
C. Obesity
D. Anorexia nervosa
D. Anorexia nervosa - Anorexia involves severe restriction of food and distorted body image.
113 Which eating disorder involves binge eating followed by purging?
A. Anorexia nervosa
B. Bulimia nervosa
C. Obesity
D. BED only
B. Bulimia nervosa - Bulimia includes binge eating followed by compensatory behaviours such as purging.
114 What is intrinsic motivation?
A. Motivation from rewards
B. Motivation from punishment
C. Motivation from internal satisfaction
D. Motivation from peer pressure
C. Motivation from internal satisfaction - Intrinsic motivation comes from enjoyment or personal fulfillment.
115 What is extrinsic motivation?
A. Motivation from internal enjoyment
B. Motivation from external rewards
C. Motivation from instincts
D. Motivation from emotions
B. Motivation from external rewards - Extrinsic motivation depends on incentives such as money, grades, or praise.
116 Which theory states that physiological arousal occurs before emotion?
A. Cannon-Bard Theory
B. Cognitive Appraisal Theory
C. James-Lange Theory
D. Positive Psychology
C. James-Lange Theory - This theory proposes that bodily reactions occur first and emotions follow.
117 What is emotional intelligence?
A. Ability to solve math problems
B. Ability to understand and manage emotions
C. Ability to memorize information
D. Ability to increase IQ
B. Ability to understand and manage emotions - Emotional intelligence involves recognizing and regulating emotions.
118 What does the facial-feedback hypothesis propose?
A. Emotions create facial expressions only
B. Facial expressions can influence emotions
C. Emotions are learned through observation
D. Facial expressions have no effect on feelings
B. Facial expressions can influence emotions - The facial-feedback hypothesis suggests expressions may affect how we feel.
119 What is stress?
A. A personality trait
B. A physical and psychological response to demands
C. A mental disorder
D. A type of conflict
B. A physical and psychological response to demands - Stress occurs when individuals face challenges or demands that require adjustment.
120 Which of the following is an example of a daily hassle?
A. Marriage
B. Winning the lottery
C. Traffic congestion
D. Retirement
C. Traffic congestion - Daily hassles are small but frequent stressors that can accumulate over time.
121 What is an approach-approach conflict?
A. Choosing between two undesirable options
B. One option has both advantages and disadvantages
C. Choosing between two attractive options
D. Avoiding a stressful event
C. Choosing between two attractive options - An approach-approach conflict involves selecting between two desirable outcomes.
122 Who developed the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS)?
A. Freud
B. Selye
C. Bandura
D. Skinner
B. Selye - Hans Selye developed the General Adaptation Syndrome to explain stress responses.
123 What occurs during the alarm stage of GAS?
A. Exhaustion
B. Memory loss
C. Fight-or-flight response
D. Depression
C. Fight-or-flight response - The alarm stage prepares the body to react to perceived danger.
124 Which stage occurs when stress continues for a long period and resources are depleted?
A. Alarm
B. Resistance
C. Adaptation
D. Exhaustion
D. Exhaustion - The exhaustion stage occurs when prolonged stress depletes the body's resources.
125 What is PTSD?
A. A personality disorder
B. A long-term stress disorder following trauma
C. A learning disability
D. A mood disorder
B. A long-term stress disorder following trauma - PTSD can develop after experiencing or witnessing traumatic events.
126 What is psychological hardiness?
A. Fear of stress
B. Avoidance of challenges
C. Commitment, control, and challenge
D. Emotional instability
C. Commitment, control, and challenge - Hardy individuals view stressful situations as manageable and meaningful.
127 What is social support?
A. Financial wealth
B. Assistance and encouragement from others
C. Physical exercise
D. A type of medication
B. Assistance and encouragement from others - Social support can reduce stress and improve coping abilities.
128 What does health psychology study?
A. Intelligence testing
B. Memory disorders
C. Behaviour and psychological influences on health
D. Language development
C. Behaviour and psychological influences on health - Health psychology studies how thoughts, emotions, and behaviours affect physical health.
129 What is personality?
A. Intelligence level
B. A unique pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviours
C. Emotional intelligence
D. A learned behaviour only
B. A unique pattern of thoughts, feelings, and behaviours - Personality refers to the characteristics that make each person unique.
130 According to Freud, which part of personality operates on the pleasure principle?
A. Ego
B. Superego
C. Id
D. Conscious mind
C. Id - The id seeks immediate gratification and follows the pleasure principle.
131 Which part of personality operates according to reality?
A. Id
B. Ego
C. Superego
D. Unconscious
B. Ego - The ego operates according to reality and balances the id and superego.
132 What are defense mechanisms?
A. Learned habits
B. Unconscious methods used to reduce anxiety
C. Intelligence tests
D. Personality traits
B. Unconscious methods used to reduce anxiety - Defense mechanisms help individuals cope with psychological conflict.
133 Who proposed the concept of the collective unconscious?
A. Freud
B. Rogers
C. Jung
D. Maslow
C. Jung - Carl Jung proposed the concept of the collective unconscious.
134 Which personality theory focuses on stable characteristics?
A. Humanistic theory
B. Trait theory
C. Psychodynamic theory
D. Sociocultural theory
B. Trait theory - Trait theorists focus on stable characteristics that influence behaviour.
135 Which of the following is one of the Big Five traits?
A. Self-esteem
B. Projection
C. Agreeableness
D. Repression
C. Agreeableness - Agreeableness is one of the Big Five personality dimensions.
136 What is self-actualization?
A. Defending against anxiety
B. Reaching one's full potential
C. Developing personality traits
D. Learning social roles
B. Reaching one's full potential - Maslow described self-actualization as fulfilling one's capabilities.
137 What is unconditional positive regard?
A. Rewarding only good behaviour
B. Accepting people regardless of behaviour
C. Ignoring mistakes
D. Avoiding criticism
B. Accepting people regardless of behaviour - Rogers believed unconditional positive regard supports healthy development.
138 Which personality assessment is considered an objective test?
A. Rorschach Inkblot Test
B. TAT
C. Dream Analysis
D. MMPI
D. MMPI - The MMPI is a widely used objective personality inventory.
139 What is social psychology?
A. The study of mental illness
B. The study of how people influence one another
C. The study of memory
D. The study of personality only
B. The study of how people influence one another - Social psychology examines how people think about and interact with others.
140 What is an attitude?
A. A biological instinct
B. A learned evaluation of people, objects, or ideas
C. A personality disorder
D. A memory process
B. A learned evaluation of people, objects, or ideas - Attitudes can be positive, negative, or neutral.
141 What is cognitive dissonance?
A. Agreement between attitudes and behaviour
B. Conflict between attitudes and behaviour
C. Social facilitation
D. Obedience to authority
B. Conflict between attitudes and behaviour - Cognitive dissonance creates psychological discomfort that people try to reduce.
142 What is prejudice?
A. Behaviour toward a group
B. A negative attitude toward a group
C. A personality trait
D. A social role
B. A negative attitude toward a group - Prejudice involves judgments and feelings about group members.
143 What is discrimination?
A. Negative thoughts only
B. Unequal treatment based on group membership
C. Positive attitudes
D. Social influence
B. Unequal treatment based on group membership - Discrimination involves behaviour rather than attitudes.
144 Which theory suggests that group memberships contribute to self-concept?
A. Attribution Theory
B. Social Identity Theory
C. Cognitive Dissonance Theory
D. Learning Theory
B. Social Identity Theory - People derive part of their self-concept from the groups they belong to.
145 What is the fundamental attribution error?
A. Overestimating situational factors
B. Underestimating group influence
C. Overestimating personal causes of behaviour
D. Ignoring attitudes
C. Overestimating personal causes of behaviour - People often ignore situational influences when explaining others' actions.
146 Which psychologist is famous for studying obedience to authority?
A. Asch
B. Milgram
C. Bandura
D. Rogers
B. Milgram - Stanley Milgram studied obedience through his famous shock experiments.
147 What is groupthink?
A. Independent thinking
B. Improved group performance
C. Prioritizing group harmony over critical evaluation
D. Helping behaviour
C. Prioritizing group harmony over critical evaluation - Groupthink can lead to poor decision-making.
148 What is the bystander effect?
A. Helping behaviour increases with more witnesses
B. Helping behaviour decreases when more people are present
C. Obedience to authority
D. Social facilitation
B. Helping behaviour decreases when more people are present - The bystander effect occurs partly because responsibility is spread among witnesses.
149 What is a psychological disorder?
A. A temporary emotion
B. A pattern causing significant distress or impairment
C. A personality trait
D. A learning style
B. A pattern causing significant distress or impairment - Psychological disorders interfere with daily functioning and well-being.
150 What is a hallucination?
A. A false belief
B. A memory problem
C. A sensory experience without external stimulation
D. An anxiety symptom
C. A sensory experience without external stimulation - Hallucinations involve seeing, hearing, or sensing things that are not actually present.
151 Which manual is commonly used to classify psychological disorders?
A. ICD-10
B. DSM-5
C. MMPI
D. TAT
B. DSM-5 - The DSM-5 is the primary diagnostic manual used by mental health professionals.
152 Which symptom is considered a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A. Social withdrawal
B. Reduced emotion
C. Hallucinations
D. Lack of motivation
C. Hallucinations - Positive symptoms add abnormal experiences to behaviour and perception.
153 What is the main characteristic of Major Depressive Disorder?
A. Hallucinations
B. Persistent sadness and loss of interest
C. Multiple personalities
D. Elevated mood
B. Persistent sadness and loss of interest - These are hallmark symptoms of Major Depressive Disorder.
154 Bipolar disorder involves periods of depression and:
A. Anxiety
B. Obsessions
C. Mania
D. Hallucinations
C. Mania - Bipolar disorder includes episodes of depression and elevated mood (mania).
155 What is a phobia?
A. Mild worry
B. Excessive and irrational fear
C. Personality disorder
D. Delusion
B. Excessive and irrational fear - Phobias involve fear that is out of proportion to actual danger.
156 OCD is characterized by:
A. Delusions and hallucinations
B. Obsessions and compulsions
C. Memory loss and confusion
D. Mania and depression
B. Obsessions and compulsions - OCD consists of intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviours.
157 What is dissociative amnesia?
A. Excessive worry
B. Memory loss for important personal information
C. Hearing voices
D. Fear of illness
B. Memory loss for important personal information - Dissociative amnesia often occurs following severe stress or trauma.
158 Which personality disorder is associated with unstable relationships and fear of abandonment?
A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder
D. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
C. Borderline Personality Disorder - Borderline personality disorder is marked by unstable emotions, relationships, and fear of abandonment.
159 What is psychotherapy?
A. Treatment using medication only
B. Treatment using psychological techniques
C. Brain surgery
D. Physical rehabilitation
B. Treatment using psychological techniques - Psychotherapy uses psychological methods to help individuals overcome emotional and behavioural difficulties.
160 Which therapy is most associated with Sigmund Freud?
A. Cognitive therapy
B. Behaviour therapy
C. Psychodynamic therapy
D. Humanistic therapy
C. Psychodynamic therapy - Psychodynamic therapy originated from Freud's psychoanalytic theory.
161 What is free association?
A. Exposure to feared situations
B. Discussing dreams only
C. Saying whatever comes to mind
D. Challenging irrational thoughts
C. Saying whatever comes to mind - Free association is used to uncover unconscious thoughts and conflicts.
162 Carl Rogers developed:
A. Gestalt therapy
B. Client-centred therapy
C. REBT
D. Behaviour therapy
B. Client-centred therapy - Carl Rogers developed client-centred therapy as part of the humanistic approach.
163 What are the three key elements of client-centred therapy?
A. Punishment, reward, exposure
B. Insight, interpretation, dreams
C. Empathy, genuineness, unconditional positive regard
D. Medication, therapy, surgery
C. Empathy, genuineness, unconditional positive regard - These conditions create a supportive environment for personal growth.
164 Which behavioural technique gradually exposes clients to feared situations?
A. Flooding
B. Systematic desensitization
C. Token economy
D. REBT
B. Systematic desensitization - This method gradually exposes clients to feared situations while promoting relaxation.
165 What is flooding?
A. Immediate exposure to a feared stimulus
B. Gradual exposure to fear
C. Rewarding behaviour
D. Group counselling
A. Immediate exposure to a feared stimulus - Flooding confronts fears directly and intensely.
166 What does CBT focus on?
A. Dreams and unconscious conflict
B. Medication management
C. Changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviours
D. Family relationships only
C. Changing maladaptive thoughts and behaviours - CBT combines cognitive and behavioural techniques to improve functioning.
167 Which therapy was developed by Albert Ellis?
A. Gestalt Therapy
B. REBT
C. Client-Centred Therapy
D. Psychodynamic Therapy
B. REBT - Albert Ellis developed Rational Emotive Behaviour Therapy to challenge irrational beliefs.
168 What is ECT primarily used for?
A. Learning disabilities
B. Personality testing
C. Severe depression and some other serious disorders
D. Intelligence enhancement
C. Severe depression and some other serious disorders - ECT is often used when other treatments have not been effective.