1Why is a precise statement of security requirements critical?
Security is always relative to a policy. Without a precise policy, there is no standard to evaluate the system against.
2What happens without a precise policy in security?
You cannot determine whether the system is behaving correctly, detect violations, or verify that mechanisms enforce the intended rules.
3What are the consequences of vague policies in security?
They lead to implementation ambiguity, where different developers may interpret requirements differently, creating gaps.
4What is the key phrase regarding system security?
A system is 'secure' iff it cannot transition from an authorized state to an unauthorized state.
5What are the four classes of threats?
Disclosure, Deception, Disruption, Usurpation.
6What does Disclosure violate?
Confidentiality.
7What does Deception violate?
Integrity (of belief or decisions).
8What does Disruption violate?
Availability and Integrity of operation.
9What does Usurpation violate?
Integrity of control.
10What is the importance of distinguishing prevention, detection, and recovery?
Each plays a critical role in security; relying solely on prevention is a single point of failure.
11What is Prevention in security?
Stopping attacks before they cause harm, e.g., firewalls blocking unauthorized connections.
12What is Detection in security?
Identifying that an attack has occurred or is in progress, e.g., IDS alerts on anomalous traffic.
13What is Recovery in security?
Restoring the system to a correct, secure state after an incident, e.g., restoring from a clean backup.
14Why is detection necessary even if prevention succeeds?
No prevention mechanism is perfect; detection provides the fallback that triggers recovery.
15What are secure, precise, and broad mechanisms?
Secure cannot be bypassed, precise enforces exactly the policy, and broad is more restrictive than the policy.
16What is a secure mechanism?
A mechanism that cannot be bypassed regardless of usage, e.g., Hardware Security Module (HSM).
17What is a precise mechanism?
A mechanism that enforces exactly the policy with no authorized access denied and no unauthorized access permitted.
18What is a broad mechanism?
A mechanism that is more restrictive than the policy, blocking some authorized accesses, e.g., a firewall that blocks all outbound traffic.
19What are the four phases of assurance?
Specification, Design, Implementation, Maintenance & Operation.
20Why is a specification flaw the most dangerous?
Flaws propagate through all phases, and a flaw means the system is built to do the wrong thing.
21What are the two categories of human issues in security?
Organizational problems and People problems.
22What is an example of an organizational problem?
A manager disables mandatory access controls to meet a deployment deadline.
23What is an example of a people problem?
An employee clicks a phishing email and enters credentials on a spoofed login page.
24What is the difference between a principal and an identity?
Identity is the set of attributes that uniquely identify an entity; Principal is an entity whose identity can be authenticated.
25Why can one person have multiple principals?
Different contexts require different identities, such as personal, service, and root accounts.
26What are path names and why are they insecure file identifiers?
Path names can refer to different files over time and allow multiple paths to refer to the same or different files.
27What is a more reliable alternative to path names?
File descriptors, which are OS-level integer handles returned by open().
28What is a Distinguished Name (DN)?
A structured identifier in X.509 certificates using hierarchical attributes.
29What is the role of a Certification Authority (CA)?
Issues and digitally signs certificates, holding the signing key.
30What is the role of a Registration Authority (RA)?
Performs identity verification on behalf of the CA before forwarding the request for signing.
31What allows the CA's signing key to remain secure?
The CA's signing key remains in a secure, offline system.
32Why is the CA/RA split important?
It separates the high-risk signing operation from the high-volume verification process.
33What are web cookies?
Small key-value data items stored by the browser and sent automatically with HTTP requests to the issuing domain.
34What is one security risk associated with web cookies?
Session hijacking: If an attacker steals a session cookie, they can impersonate the user.
35How can session hijacking be mitigated?
Using Secure and HttpOnly flags, and HTTPS.
36What is another security risk associated with web cookies?
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF): A malicious site tricks the browser into sending a request to another site, including that site's cookies.
37How can CSRF be mitigated?
Using CSRF tokens and the SameSite cookie attribute.
38What is DNS cache poisoning?
An attacker injects false DNS records into a resolver's cache, redirecting traffic to a malicious server.
39How does DNSSEC address DNS cache poisoning?
DNSSEC adds cryptographic signatures to DNS records, ensuring authenticity and integrity.
40What is the difference between privacy and confidentiality?
Confidentiality protects data from unauthorized access, while privacy ensures data is used appropriately.
41Give an example of confidentiality without privacy.
A hospital encrypts patient records but sells de-identified records without consent.
42Give an example of privacy without confidentiality.
A company promises to use data appropriately but stores it in an unencrypted database.
43What is Least Privilege?
Every programser should have only the minimum privileges necessary to complete their task.
44Give an example of a violation of Least Privilege.
The Linux root account has unrestricted access, which can lead to total system control if compromised.
45What are Fail-Safe Defaults?
Access is denied unless explicitly permitted; the default posture is 'deny.'
46What is the difference between Fail-Safe Defaults and default-allow?
Default-allow permits access unless explicitly denied, while Fail-Safe Defaults deny access by default.
47Why is Fail-Safe Defaults more secure?
Misconfiguration causes restriction, not exposure.
48What does Open Design mean?
Security must not depend on the secrecy of the design or algorithm.
49What is Kerckhoffs's Principle?
A cryptographic system should be secure even if everything about it is public knowledge except the key.
50What does Complete Mediation require?
Every access to every object must be checked against the current policy on every access attempt.
51Give a file descriptor violation scenario.
Alice reads a file after her permission is revoked because the OS does not re-check permissions on each read.
52What is Psychological Acceptability?
Security mechanisms should not make the system harder to use than if the protections were absent.
53Give an example where strict security backfires.
Requiring complex password changes every 30 days leads users to create predictable passwords.
54Which S&S principle aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'?
Fail-Safe Defaults.
55What is Privacy as the default setting (PbD Principle 2)?
Maximum privacy protection should be built in as the default; users should not have to take action to protect themselves.
56What is the closest S&S principle to PbD?
Fail-Safe Defaults.
57What is the core logic shared by PbD and Fail-Safe Defaults?
The default posture should be maximally protective.
58What aligns with 'Privacy embedded into design'?
Economy of Mechanism (simplicity enables privacy).
59What aligns with 'End-to-end security'?
Complete Mediation (protect data at every stage).
60What aligns with 'Visibility and transparency'?
Open Design.
61What is a key difference between S&S principles and PbD principles?
S&S principles focus on system correctness and access control, while PbD principles extend this to data governance, user control, and lifecycle management.
62Why does connecting S&S principles to PbD matter?
It demonstrates integrated understanding that protection should be the default, not an option.
63Describe the ACM structure.
A matrix A[S, O] where S = subjects (active entities), O = objects (passive resources), and A[s, o] = the set of rights subject s holds over object o.
64What are the six primitive operations of ACM?
1. enter(r, s, o) -- add right. 2. delete(r, s, o) -- remove right. 3. create subject(s) -- add new row. 4. create object(o) -- add new column. 5. destroy subject(s) -- remove row. 6. destroy object(o) -- remove column.
65What is the copy flag?
If subject s has right r* (r with copy flag) on object o, s can exercise r AND can grant r (without the copy flag) to other subjects.
66How does the copy flag interact with attenuation of privilege?
You can only grant rights you currently hold; if Alice has only {r} (no copy flag), she cannot grant {r} to Bob.
67What does the principle of Attenuation of Privilege prevent?
It prevents privilege escalation; a less-privileged user cannot bootstrap their way to more rights than they were given.
68What is the HRU result?
For access control systems with generic rights and general commands, the safety problem is UNDECIDABLE.
69What distinguishes decidable from undecidable safety?
Decidable case: Mono-operational commands; Undecidable case: Multi-operation commands with generic rights.
70Can Bob grant read to Carol on File1?
NO. Bob cannot grant read to Carol because he has {r} on File1 without the copy flag.
71What are the practical implications of HRU undecidability for real systems?
There is no general algorithm to formally verify that an arbitrary access control policy prevents all rights leakage.
72What does DAC stand for?
Discretionary Access Control.
73What does MAC stand for?
Mandatory Access Control.
74What weakness of DAC does MAC address?
Transitivity/propagation; MAC prevents unauthorized redistribution of rights.
75What is ORCON?
The information originator retains control over who can access their information, even after it has been shared.
76What problem does ORCON solve?
It prevents recipients from re-sharing data without the originator's approval.
77How does RBAC support least privilege?
Each role contains only the permissions needed for that specific function.
78What is an example of a role in RBAC?
A 'payroll_reader' role can view but not modify payroll.
79What is the principle of Least Privilege via RBAC?
Each role contains only the permissions needed for that specific function.
80What can a 'payroll_reader' role do?
View but not modify payroll.
81What can a 'payroll_editor' role do?
Modify but not approve payroll.
82What is the principle of Separation of Duty via RBAC?
Mutually exclusive roles are defined, preventing a user from being assigned to both roles simultaneously.
83Why is Separation of Duty important?
It ensures that the person who processes a transaction is not the same person who audits it.
84In a bank RBAC system, what can the 'Teller' role do?
Initiate transfers up to \$1000.
85What can the 'Manager' role do in a bank RBAC system?
Approve transfers over \$1000.
86What is required for a \$50,000 transfer in a bank RBAC system?
Two separate individuals must be involved.
87What is the Trusted Computing Base (TCB)?
The minimal set of hardware, firmware, and software components that must function correctly for the security policy to be enforced.
88Why is a smaller TCB more secure?
Fewer components to verify, fewer potential failure points, and easier to formally verify.
89What is an example of a system with a small TCB?
A hypervisor-based security system.
90What does the high-level policy language express?
Policy in abstract, human-readable terms.
91What is an example of a high-level policy language?
Ponder.
92What does the low-level policy language express?
Policy in terms directly enforced by system mechanisms.
93What is an example of a low-level policy language?
Tripwire.
94What is the policy gap?
The translation from high-level intent to low-level enforcement introduces errors.
95Why do confidentiality policy goals differ between military and commercial sectors?
Military focuses on preventing unauthorized disclosure, while commercial focuses on preventing fraud and ensuring integrity.
96What model is used for military confidentiality?
Bell-LaPadula (BLP).
97What model is used for commercial confidentiality?
Clark-Wilson.
98What is the ss-property in BLP?
No Read Up: A subject can read an object only if the subject's label dominates the object's label.
99What is the *-property in BLP?
No Write Down: A subject can write to an object only if the object's label dominates the subject's label.
100What does the Basic Security Theorem state?
A system is secure if the initial state is secure and every state transition preserves security.
101Why is the Basic Security Theorem significant?
It transforms the global problem of system security into two local, verifiable conditions.
102What is Tranquility in security policies?
Security labels must not change in ways that circumvent the BLP rules during system operation.
103What is Strong Tranquility?
Labels never change at all during operation.
104What is Weak Tranquility?
Labels may change but never in a policy-violating direction.
105What is the significance of minimizing the TCB?
It is the system-design equivalent of Economy of Mechanism.
106What does the policy gap highlight in security?
It shows why security is hard even when policies seem clear.
107What is the key distinction between military and commercial confidentiality models?
Military focuses on who sees what (confidentiality), while commercial focuses on who does what (integrity + accountability).
108What does BLP NOT protect?
BLP does NOT protect integrity or availability.
109How can the *-property be counterproductive for integrity?
The *-property ('No Write Down') prevents subjects from writing to lower-classification objects, which can lead to integrity issues.
110What is the proof technique for BLP correctness?
The BST (Bell-LaPadula Security Theorem) reduces a global safety property to local checks.
111What are Biba's two rules?
Simple Integrity Property: Subject s can READ object o iff I(s) dom I(o). Integrity Property: Subject s can WRITE to object o iff I(s) dom I(o).
112Why does 'No Read Down' protect integrity?
It prevents high-integrity subjects from reading low-integrity data, which could corrupt their internal state.
113What is the purpose of C4?
C4 requires all TPs to write to an append-only log to create an auditable trail.
114What does E4 enforce and why is it critical?
E4 ensures that only the authorized certifier may modify the certification list, enforcing separation of duty.
115How does Clark-Wilson handle user authentication?
Clark-Wilson requires the system to authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
116What is the role of UDIs in Clark-Wilson?
UDIs are untrusted input that can violate integrity if not properly validated.
117What is C5 in Clark-Wilson?
C5 states that any TP accepting a UDI must be certified to produce valid CDI transformations or reject invalid UDIs.
118Compare Clark-Wilson and BLP.
BLP is focused on confidentiality and does not protect integrity, while Clark-Wilson is designed for commercial integrity.
119Why are ciphers preferred over codes?
Ciphers offer flexibility, depend only on the key for security, and are easier to distribute securely.
120What is the Kasiski method?
The Kasiski method is a technique for breaking ciphers by analyzing repeated sequences of letters.
121What is the distinction between code and cipher?
Ciphers are more flexible and follow the Open Design principle: the algorithm is public, the key is secret.
122Describe the Kasiski method.
It finds repeated sequences in ciphertext to determine key length by computing the GCD of distances between repetitions.
123What is the index of coincidence used for?
It determines whether a cipher is monoalphabetic or polyalphabetic based on the frequency distribution of letters.
124Why is OTP the only cipher with perfect secrecy?
It reveals zero information about the plaintext; for any ciphertext, every possible plaintext is equally likely.
125What makes OTP impractical?
The key must be as long as the message, perfectly random, never reused, and secure key distribution is challenging.
126Compare RSA and El Gamal.
RSA is based on factoring large composite numbers and provides both confidentiality and authentication. El Gamal is based on the discrete logarithm problem and primarily provides confidentiality.
127What does a keyed hash function provide?
Integrity and authentication, as only the keyholder can produce or verify the MAC.
128What does a keyless hash function provide?
Integrity only; anyone can compute the hash, but it does not provide authentication.
129How do RSA digital signatures work?
They involve computing a hash of the message, signing it with the sender's private key, and allowing verification with the sender's public key.
130What properties do RSA digital signatures provide?
Integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.
131What does Needham-Schroeder require?
A trusted third party (KDC) for establishing trust without public key operations or a certificate authority.
132Explain Diffie-Hellman.
It allows two parties to establish a shared secret over an insecure channel using public values.
133Why is Diffie-Hellman vulnerable to MITM?
It provides no authentication, allowing an attacker to intercept and manipulate the key exchange.
134How is the MITM vulnerability in Diffie-Hellman fixed?
By authenticating the DH exchange, typically using certificates.
135What is a Merkle tree?
A binary tree where each leaf node is a hash of a data block, and the root hash summarizes all data.
136How is a Merkle tree used in certificate transparency?
CAs log every issued certificate to a public Merkle tree log, allowing verification of certificate authenticity.
137What are the four classes of cryptographic attacks?
1. Brute force - Defense: Strong passwords. 2. Man-in-the-middle - Defense: Authentication. 3. Replay - Defense: Nonces. 4. Denial of Service - Defense: Rate limiting.
138What is a precomputation attack and its defense?
An attacker precomputes hash-to-plaintext mappings. Defense: Salting - add a random per-user salt before hashing.
139What is a misordered blocks attack and its defense?
In block ciphers without integrity protection, reordering encrypted blocks changes plaintext in predictable ways. Defense: Use authenticated encryption modes (AES-GCM).
140What is a statistical regularities attack and its defense?
ECB mode encrypts identical plaintext blocks to identical ciphertext blocks, revealing data patterns. Defense: Use cipher block chaining (CBC) or other modes that mix blocks.
141What is a type flaw attack and its defense?
A message of type A is replayed as if it were type B in a protocol. Defense: Tag messages with their type.
142What is the difference between truly random and cryptographically pseudorandom numbers?
Truly random is generated from physical entropy sources. CSPRNG is seeded with true randomness and expands it algorithmically.
143Why does the quality of random number generation matter?
Cryptographic keys are only as secret as the random numbers used to generate them. Poor RNG can lead to compromised keys.
144What is a famous example of poor RNG quality?
Debian's OpenSSL bug (2008) reduced the PRNG to only 32,767 possible seeds, compromising all keys generated for two years.
145Why use public key for key exchange but not bulk encryption?
Public key cryptosystems are slow; symmetric ciphers are fast but require a shared key. Hybrid encryption uses public key to exchange a session key, then AES for data encryption.
146What is the hybrid encryption approach?
Use the public key system to securely exchange a random symmetric session key, then use the session key with AES for data encryption.
147What is link encryption?
Encrypted between each adjacent pair of nodes, decrypted and re-encrypted at each intermediate node.
148What is end-to-end encryption?
Encrypted at source, decrypted only at destination; intermediate nodes never see plaintext.
149When would you use both link and end-to-end encryption?
A VPN (link encryption) combined with TLS (end-to-end) to hide traffic patterns and ensure content confidentiality.
150What are the four authentication factors?
What you know, what you have, what you are, where you are.
151What is mutual authentication?
Both parties authenticate each other, e.g., TLS with client certificates.
152What are the four password attack types?
Exhaustive search, inspired guessing, random guessing, scavenging.
153What does salting defend against?
Salting defends against precomputation (rainbow table) attacks.
154Why are passphrases recommended?
They make the search space large and distribution uniform, making them harder to crack.
155What is the difference between stateful and packet-filter firewalls?
Packet-filter examines each packet independently; stateful maintains a table of established connections.
156Why is stateful firewall more secure?
It can distinguish unsolicited inbound packets from legitimate reply packets.
157What security properties does TLS provide?
Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication.
158What are the improvements of TLS 1.3 over SSL?
Fewer cipher suites, mandatory forward secrecy, faster handshake, encrypted handshake metadata.
159Why is forward secrecy important in TLS 1.3?
It means past sessions cannot be decrypted even if the server's long-term key is later compromised.
160What is Security?
Security means a system operates as intended, despite adversarial interference.
161What does the CIA Triad stand for?
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.
162What is Disclosure in security threats?
Unauthorized access to information, violating Confidentiality.
163What is Deception in security threats?
Acceptance of false data as true, violating Integrity.
164What is Disruption in security threats?
Interruption or prevention of correct operation, violating Availability/Integrity.
165What is Usurpation in security threats?
Unauthorized control of some part of the system, violating Integrity.
166What are the goals of security?
Prevention, Detection, Recovery.
167What is a Security Policy?
A statement of what is and is not allowed.
168What is a Security Mechanism?
Technical or procedural means to enforce a policy.
169What is the difference between Policy and Mechanism?
Policy = WHAT must be enforced; Mechanism = HOW it is enforced.
170What is Assurance in security?
The confidence that a system meets its security requirements.
171Why is a flaw at the specification phase dangerous?
A flawed spec means all subsequent work is misdirected.
172What is Risk in security?
Risk = Threat × Vulnerability × Asset Value.
173What does ALE stand for?
Annualized Loss Expectancy.
174What is a Principal in security?
An entity whose identity can be authenticated.
175What is Authentication?
The process of verifying a claimed identity.
176What is Authorization?
Determining what an authenticated principal is permitted to do.
177What is Accountability?
Linking actions to principals via audit logs.
178What are Path Names?
Human-readable identifiers for files.
179What are UIDs?
Numeric identifiers assigned by the OS.
180What is a Certificate?
A digitally signed document binding a public key to an identity.
181What is a Certification Authority (CA)?
A trusted third party that issues and signs certificates.
182What is a Persona Certificate?
A certificate that binds a key to a pseudonym or role rather than a real legal identity.
183What is Privacy?
The right to control information about oneself.
184What is Anonymity?
Actions cannot be linked to any identity.
185What is Pseudonymity?
Actions are linked to a consistent pseudonym but not a real identity.
186What is Data Minimization?
Collect only the data strictly necessary for the stated purpose.
187Why are path names considered insecure identifiers for files?
Path names can be manipulated or guessed, leading to unauthorized access.
188What is a more reliable alternative at the OS level for file identifiers?
Using unique identifiers or handles that are not based on file paths.
189What is a Distinguished Name (DN) in an X.509 certificate?
A DN is a unique identifier for an entity in a certificate, consisting of attributes like common name, organization, and country.
190What is the role of a Registration Authority (RA) vs. a Certification Authority (CA)?
The RA verifies identities before certificates are issued, while the CA issues and manages the certificates.
191Describe two security risks associated with web cookies.
1. Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks can steal cookies. 2. Session hijacking can occur if cookies are not secured.
192Explain DNS cache poisoning.
DNS cache poisoning is an attack that corrupts the DNS cache, causing users to be redirected to malicious sites.
193What security mechanism (DNSSEC) is designed to address DNS cache poisoning?
DNSSEC adds a layer of security by enabling DNS responses to be verified for authenticity.
194Give an example where a system achieves confidentiality but violates privacy.
A system that encrypts user data but tracks and logs user behavior without consent.
195Define the principle of Least Privilege.
The principle of Least Privilege states that users and programs should operate with the minimum privileges necessary.
196Give one example of a system that violates the principle of Least Privilege.
A system where all users have administrative rights, allowing them to access sensitive data unnecessarily.
197What is the principle of Fail-Safe Defaults?
Fail-Safe Defaults means that access is denied by default unless explicitly permitted.
198How does Fail-Safe Defaults differ from a default-allow system?
A default-allow system grants access unless explicitly denied, which is less secure.
199Explain why 'security through obscurity' violates the principle of Open Design.
It relies on keeping the design secret, which can be compromised, whereas Open Design promotes transparency.
200Describe a scenario involving file descriptors where Complete Mediation is violated.
If a user accesses a file without checking permissions after the initial access, it violates Complete Mediation.
201What is the Principle of Psychological Acceptability?
The Principle of Psychological Acceptability states that security measures should not hinder usability.
202Give an example where overly strict security backfires.
A system that requires complex passwords leading users to write them down, increasing the risk of theft.
203Which Saltzer & Schroeder principle most closely aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'?
The principle of Fail-Safe Defaults aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'.
204What is the access control matrix?
The access control matrix is a model that defines the access rights of subjects to objects.
205Describe the structure of the access control matrix.
Rows represent subjects (users/processes), columns represent objects (files/devices), and cells contain access rights.
206What are the six primitive operations in the access control matrix?
1. enter(r, s, o) 2. delete(r, s, o) 3. create subject(s) 4. create object(o) 5. destroy subject(s) 6. destroy object(o)
207What is the copy flag in the access control matrix model?
The copy flag allows a subject to grant a right to other subjects.
208How does the copy flag interact with the principle of attenuation of privilege?
It ensures that a subject can only grant rights it possesses, preventing privilege escalation.
209State the HRU result.
For systems with generic rights and general commands, safety is undecidable.
210What distinguishes a system for which safety is decidable from one for which it is not?
Decidable systems have mono-operational commands, while undecidable systems have multi-operation commands.
211What is the practical implication of HRU undecidability for real security systems?
Real systems cannot formally verify safety and often use restricted models or rely on auditing.
212Describe the 'own' right.
The 'own' right allows a subject to manage access rights for an object, enabling full administrative control.
213What operations does the 'own' right enable?
It enables adding and deleting rights for any subject on that object.
214How does the 'own' right differ from just having read+write access?
The 'own' right includes administrative capabilities, while read+write access does not.
215What defines a security policy?
A security policy defines the set of authorized and unauthorized states.
216When is a system considered secure?
A system is secure if it begins in an authorized state and cannot transition into an unauthorized state.
217What is DAC (Discretionary Access Control)?
Owner controls access, rights can be delegated, flexible but weak.
218What is MAC (Mandatory Access Control)?
System enforces access based on labels; users cannot override policy.
219What is ORCON (Originator-Controlled Access Control)?
The original creator retains control over access, recipients cannot re-distribute without approval.
220What is RBAC (Role-Based Access Control)?
Permissions are assigned to roles, users are assigned to roles, supports least privilege and separation of duty.
221What is the role of trust in access control policies?
Trust is a key policy concept; a trusted component's failure can violate the security policy.
222Why is a smaller TCB generally more secure?
The smaller the TCB, the easier it is to assure.
223What are high-level policy languages?
They express policy intent in human-readable, relatively abstract terms.
224What are low-level policy languages?
They express policy in terms of system-level rules directly enforceable by mechanisms.
225What is the 'policy gap'?
The gap between high-level policy intent and low-level enforcement where many security failures occur.
226What are the confidentiality policy goals for militaryovernment?
Prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
227What model is designed for militaryovernment confidentiality?
BLP model.
228What are the confidentiality policy goals for commercial environments?
Prevent fraud and maintain integrity of commercial transactions.
229What model is designed for commercial confidentiality?
Clark-Wilson model.
230What is the ss-property in the Bell-LaPadula Model?
No Read Up: A subject can read an object if the subject label dominates the object label.
231What is the *-property in the Bell-LaPadula Model?
No Write Down: A subject can write to an object if the object label dominates the subject label.
232What is the Basic Security Theorem in BLP?
A system is secure if every initial state is secure and every state transition preserves security.
233What does dominance mean in BLP?
(L1; C1) dominates (L2; C2) iff L1 >= L2 AND C2 is a subset of C1.
234Does (Secret; {A, B, C}) dominate (Top Secret; {A})?
No.
235Does (Secret; {A, B}) dominate (Confidential; {A})?
Yes.
236What is the Tranquility Principle?
It states that security labels should not change during system operation to prevent circumvention of security properties.
237What is the significance of the Basic Security Theorem?
It allows us to conclude that a BLP-based system is secure if it meets its conditions.
238What is the Simple Integrity Property in Biba's Model?
A subject can READ an object if the subject's integrity level dominates the object's integrity level.
239What is the * Integrity Property in Biba's Model?
A subject can WRITE to an object if the subject's integrity level dominates the object's integrity level.
240What does the Clark-Wilson Model focus on?
Well-formed transactions and separation of duty.
241What is a Constrained Data Item (CDI)?
High-integrity data, such as account balances.
242What is an Unconstrained Data Item (UDI)?
Untrusted input, such as user-entered data.
243What is an Integrity Verification Procedure (IVP)?
It verifies that CDIs are in valid states.
244What is a Transformation Procedure (TP)?
The only operation allowed to modify CDIs.
245What are the Certification Rules in the Clark-Wilson Model?
Rules applied by authorized certifiers to ensure integrity.
246What is the purpose of Enforcement Rules in the Clark-Wilson Model?
To enforce the system's integrity rules.
247What must the system maintain according to E1 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules?
TP-CDI associations and ensure only those TPs manipulate those CDIs.
248What does E2 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules require the system to maintain?
A list of (UserID, TP, CDIs) -- which user can run which TP on which CDIs.
249What is required by E3 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules?
The system must authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
250What does E4 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules enforce?
Only certified agents may modify the (TP, CDI) certification list; certifiers cannot execute the TPs they certify.
251What are Biba's two rules using I(s) dom I(o) notation?
(1) No Write Up: A subject at a lower integrity level cannot write to an object at a higher integrity level. (2) No Read Down: A subject at a higher integrity level cannot read an object at a lower integrity level.
252Why does the 'No Read Down' rule protect integrity?
It prevents lower integrity subjects from accessing higher integrity information, which could lead to integrity violations.
253List the five Certification Rules (C1-C5) of Clark-Wilson.
C1: Well-formed transactions, C2: Separation of duties, C3: Certification of TPs and CDIs, C4: Certification list modification, C5: Auditing.
254What is the purpose of C4 specifically in Clark-Wilson?
C4 ensures that only certified agents can modify the certification list, maintaining system integrity.
255What does E4 enforce in Clark-Wilson, and why is it critical for security?
E4 enforces that only certified agents can modify the certification list, which is critical to prevent unauthorized changes.
256How does Clark-Wilson handle authentication of users?
The system must authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
257What does the sample midterm tell us about user authentication in Clark-Wilson?
It emphasizes the importance of verifying user identities before allowing access to TPs.
258Why is C5 important in Clark-Wilson?
C5 ensures that all transactions are audited to maintain accountability and integrity.
259Give a real-world example of a UDI being transformed into a CDI.
An example is a user inputting data into a form that is then validated and stored as a controlled record.
260Compare Clark-Wilson and BLP: what threat model is each designed for?
Clark-Wilson is designed for integrity, while BLP is designed for confidentiality.
261What type of integrity violation does BLP fail to address that Clark-Wilson handles?
BLP does not address integrity violations related to unauthorized modifications of data.
262What is the difference between codes and ciphers?
Codes replace semantic units (words/phrases) with code words, while ciphers transform charactersits algorithmically using a key.
263Why do modern cryptosystems use ciphers rather than codes?
Ciphers provide stronger security and flexibility compared to codes, which are limited by their codebook.
264Describe the Kasiski method for attacking a Vigenere cipher.
The Kasiski method involves finding repeated patterns in the ciphertext to determine the key length.
265What is the index of coincidence used for in the Kasiski method?
It is used to determine if a cipher is monoalphabetic or polyalphabetic.
266Why is the one-time pad the only cipher with perfect secrecy?
Because its key is as long as the message, used only once, and perfectly random.
267What makes the one-time pad impractical for real-world use?
The key distribution problem, as securely sharing long random keys is difficult.
268Compare RSA and El Gamal: what hard mathematical problem underlies each?
RSA is based on the difficulty of factoring large numbers, while El Gamal is based on the discrete logarithm problem.
269What security property does RSA primarily provide?
Confidentiality through public key encryption.
270What security property does El Gamal primarily provide?
Confidentiality, with a separate algorithm for authentication.
271What is the difference between a keyed and keyless cryptographic hash function?
Keyed hashes use a secret key for verification, while keyless hashes do not.
272What security property does a keyless cryptographic hash function provide?
Integrity checking.
273What security property does a keyed hash (HMAC) provide?
Both integrity and authentication.
274Describe how RSA digital signatures work.
Sign the message, encipher the hash, then verify by decrypting with the sender's public key.
275What three security properties do digital signatures provide that symmetric encryption alone cannot?
Integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.
276What is an interchange key in key distribution protocols?
A long-term key used only to encrypt and distribute session keys.
277What is a session key?
A short-lived key used for one communication session, providing forward secrecy.
278What is the purpose of using public key cryptosystems in key distribution?
To securely exchange session keys, which are then used for fast symmetric encryption.
279What is the Needham-Schroeder protocol?
A theoretical key distribution protocol that requires a trusted third party (KDC).
280What improvements does Kerberos make over Needham-Schroeder?
Adds timestamps to prevent replay attacks and introduces Ticket Granting Tickets (TGT) for single sign-on.
281What is the Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange?
A method that allows two parties to establish a shared secret over an insecure channel without a KDC.
282What is the basis of the Diffie-Hellman Protocol?
The discrete logarithm problem.
283Why is the Diffie-Hellman key exchange vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
It does not authenticate the parties involved, allowing an attacker to intercept and substitute values.
284How is the vulnerability of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange addressed in practice?
By authenticating the DH exchange using certificates, as in TLS.
285Describe four classes of cryptographic attacks.
1. Precomputation attack: Use rainbow tables; defense: salt hashes. 2. Misordered blocks: Reordering can alter plaintext; defense: integrity protection. 3. Statistical regularities: Cipher leaks patterns; defense: use secure modes. 4. Type flaw attack: Misinterpretation of messages; defense: strict protocol definitions.
286What is the difference between cryptographically random and cryptographically pseudorandom number generation?
Cryptographically random numbers are generated from true entropy sources, while pseudorandom numbers are generated from algorithms seeded with true random data.
287Why does key generation quality matter?
It is essential for ensuring the security of cryptographic systems.
288What does link encryption do?
Encrypts data at each network node along the path, hiding traffic patterns.
289What is a vulnerability of link encryption?
Plaintext is visible at each intermediate node.
290What is a vulnerability of end-to-end encryption?
Headers must remain cleartext for routing.
291What is the best practice for encryption?
Combine end-to-end encryption for content confidentiality with link encryption to hide traffic patterns.
292What is SSL?
A deprecated predecessor to TLS that should not be used.
293What is TLS?
The current standard for secure communication, providing confidentiality, integrity, and server authentication.
294What are the key phases of the TLS handshake?
1. Client Hello, 2. Server Hello + Certificate, 3. Key Exchange, 4. Finished, 5. Data phase.
295What is a packet filter?
A stateless firewall that examines each packet's headers independently.
296What is a stateful firewall?
A firewall that tracks connection state and allows inbound packets matching established outbound connections.
297What is a DMZ?
A network segment between the internet and internal network that hosts public-facing servers.
298What are the four factors of authentication?
1. What you know (password), 2. What you have (token), 3. What you are (biometric), 4. Where you are (geolocation).
299What are common problems with passwords?
Common passwords, password reuse, short passwords, and predictable patterns.
300What is a good password selection strategy?
Use random generation, pronounceable passwords, or passphrases to maximize search space size.