ECS 153A

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1
Why is a precise statement of security requirements critical?
Security is always relative to a policy. Without a precise policy, there is no standard to evaluate the system against.
2
What happens without a precise policy in security?
You cannot determine whether the system is behaving correctly, detect violations, or verify that mechanisms enforce the intended rules.
3
What are the consequences of vague policies in security?
They lead to implementation ambiguity, where different developers may interpret requirements differently, creating gaps.
4
What is the key phrase regarding system security?
A system is 'secure' iff it cannot transition from an authorized state to an unauthorized state.
5
What are the four classes of threats?
Disclosure, Deception, Disruption, Usurpation.
6
What does Disclosure violate?
Confidentiality.
7
What does Deception violate?
Integrity (of belief or decisions).
8
What does Disruption violate?
Availability and Integrity of operation.
9
What does Usurpation violate?
Integrity of control.
10
What is the importance of distinguishing prevention, detection, and recovery?
Each plays a critical role in security; relying solely on prevention is a single point of failure.
11
What is Prevention in security?
Stopping attacks before they cause harm, e.g., firewalls blocking unauthorized connections.
12
What is Detection in security?
Identifying that an attack has occurred or is in progress, e.g., IDS alerts on anomalous traffic.
13
What is Recovery in security?
Restoring the system to a correct, secure state after an incident, e.g., restoring from a clean backup.
14
Why is detection necessary even if prevention succeeds?
No prevention mechanism is perfect; detection provides the fallback that triggers recovery.
15
What are secure, precise, and broad mechanisms?
Secure cannot be bypassed, precise enforces exactly the policy, and broad is more restrictive than the policy.
16
What is a secure mechanism?
A mechanism that cannot be bypassed regardless of usage, e.g., Hardware Security Module (HSM).
17
What is a precise mechanism?
A mechanism that enforces exactly the policy with no authorized access denied and no unauthorized access permitted.
18
What is a broad mechanism?
A mechanism that is more restrictive than the policy, blocking some authorized accesses, e.g., a firewall that blocks all outbound traffic.
19
What are the four phases of assurance?
Specification, Design, Implementation, Maintenance & Operation.
20
Why is a specification flaw the most dangerous?
Flaws propagate through all phases, and a flaw means the system is built to do the wrong thing.
21
What are the two categories of human issues in security?
Organizational problems and People problems.
22
What is an example of an organizational problem?
A manager disables mandatory access controls to meet a deployment deadline.
23
What is an example of a people problem?
An employee clicks a phishing email and enters credentials on a spoofed login page.
24
What is the difference between a principal and an identity?
Identity is the set of attributes that uniquely identify an entity; Principal is an entity whose identity can be authenticated.
25
Why can one person have multiple principals?
Different contexts require different identities, such as personal, service, and root accounts.
26
What are path names and why are they insecure file identifiers?
Path names can refer to different files over time and allow multiple paths to refer to the same or different files.
27
What is a more reliable alternative to path names?
File descriptors, which are OS-level integer handles returned by open().
28
What is a Distinguished Name (DN)?
A structured identifier in X.509 certificates using hierarchical attributes.
29
What is the role of a Certification Authority (CA)?
Issues and digitally signs certificates, holding the signing key.
30
What is the role of a Registration Authority (RA)?
Performs identity verification on behalf of the CA before forwarding the request for signing.
31
What allows the CA's signing key to remain secure?
The CA's signing key remains in a secure, offline system.
32
Why is the CA/RA split important?
It separates the high-risk signing operation from the high-volume verification process.
33
What are web cookies?
Small key-value data items stored by the browser and sent automatically with HTTP requests to the issuing domain.
34
What is one security risk associated with web cookies?
Session hijacking: If an attacker steals a session cookie, they can impersonate the user.
35
How can session hijacking be mitigated?
Using Secure and HttpOnly flags, and HTTPS.
36
What is another security risk associated with web cookies?
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF): A malicious site tricks the browser into sending a request to another site, including that site's cookies.
37
How can CSRF be mitigated?
Using CSRF tokens and the SameSite cookie attribute.
38
What is DNS cache poisoning?
An attacker injects false DNS records into a resolver's cache, redirecting traffic to a malicious server.
39
How does DNSSEC address DNS cache poisoning?
DNSSEC adds cryptographic signatures to DNS records, ensuring authenticity and integrity.
40
What is the difference between privacy and confidentiality?
Confidentiality protects data from unauthorized access, while privacy ensures data is used appropriately.
41
Give an example of confidentiality without privacy.
A hospital encrypts patient records but sells de-identified records without consent.
42
Give an example of privacy without confidentiality.
A company promises to use data appropriately but stores it in an unencrypted database.
43
What is Least Privilege?
Every programser should have only the minimum privileges necessary to complete their task.
44
Give an example of a violation of Least Privilege.
The Linux root account has unrestricted access, which can lead to total system control if compromised.
45
What are Fail-Safe Defaults?
Access is denied unless explicitly permitted; the default posture is 'deny.'
46
What is the difference between Fail-Safe Defaults and default-allow?
Default-allow permits access unless explicitly denied, while Fail-Safe Defaults deny access by default.
47
Why is Fail-Safe Defaults more secure?
Misconfiguration causes restriction, not exposure.
48
What does Open Design mean?
Security must not depend on the secrecy of the design or algorithm.
49
What is Kerckhoffs's Principle?
A cryptographic system should be secure even if everything about it is public knowledge except the key.
50
What does Complete Mediation require?
Every access to every object must be checked against the current policy on every access attempt.
51
Give a file descriptor violation scenario.
Alice reads a file after her permission is revoked because the OS does not re-check permissions on each read.
52
What is Psychological Acceptability?
Security mechanisms should not make the system harder to use than if the protections were absent.
53
Give an example where strict security backfires.
Requiring complex password changes every 30 days leads users to create predictable passwords.
54
Which S&S principle aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'?
Fail-Safe Defaults.
55
What is Privacy as the default setting (PbD Principle 2)?
Maximum privacy protection should be built in as the default; users should not have to take action to protect themselves.
56
What is the closest S&S principle to PbD?
Fail-Safe Defaults.
57
What is the core logic shared by PbD and Fail-Safe Defaults?
The default posture should be maximally protective.
58
What aligns with 'Privacy embedded into design'?
Economy of Mechanism (simplicity enables privacy).
59
What aligns with 'End-to-end security'?
Complete Mediation (protect data at every stage).
60
What aligns with 'Visibility and transparency'?
Open Design.
61
What is a key difference between S&S principles and PbD principles?
S&S principles focus on system correctness and access control, while PbD principles extend this to data governance, user control, and lifecycle management.
62
Why does connecting S&S principles to PbD matter?
It demonstrates integrated understanding that protection should be the default, not an option.
63
Describe the ACM structure.
A matrix A[S, O] where S = subjects (active entities), O = objects (passive resources), and A[s, o] = the set of rights subject s holds over object o.
64
What are the six primitive operations of ACM?
1. enter(r, s, o) -- add right. 2. delete(r, s, o) -- remove right. 3. create subject(s) -- add new row. 4. create object(o) -- add new column. 5. destroy subject(s) -- remove row. 6. destroy object(o) -- remove column.
65
What is the copy flag?
If subject s has right r* (r with copy flag) on object o, s can exercise r AND can grant r (without the copy flag) to other subjects.
66
How does the copy flag interact with attenuation of privilege?
You can only grant rights you currently hold; if Alice has only {r} (no copy flag), she cannot grant {r} to Bob.
67
What does the principle of Attenuation of Privilege prevent?
It prevents privilege escalation; a less-privileged user cannot bootstrap their way to more rights than they were given.
68
What is the HRU result?
For access control systems with generic rights and general commands, the safety problem is UNDECIDABLE.
69
What distinguishes decidable from undecidable safety?
Decidable case: Mono-operational commands; Undecidable case: Multi-operation commands with generic rights.
70
Can Bob grant read to Carol on File1?
NO. Bob cannot grant read to Carol because he has {r} on File1 without the copy flag.
71
What are the practical implications of HRU undecidability for real systems?
There is no general algorithm to formally verify that an arbitrary access control policy prevents all rights leakage.
72
What does DAC stand for?
Discretionary Access Control.
73
What does MAC stand for?
Mandatory Access Control.
74
What weakness of DAC does MAC address?
Transitivity/propagation; MAC prevents unauthorized redistribution of rights.
75
What is ORCON?
The information originator retains control over who can access their information, even after it has been shared.
76
What problem does ORCON solve?
It prevents recipients from re-sharing data without the originator's approval.
77
How does RBAC support least privilege?
Each role contains only the permissions needed for that specific function.
78
What is an example of a role in RBAC?
A 'payroll_reader' role can view but not modify payroll.
79
What is the principle of Least Privilege via RBAC?
Each role contains only the permissions needed for that specific function.
80
What can a 'payroll_reader' role do?
View but not modify payroll.
81
What can a 'payroll_editor' role do?
Modify but not approve payroll.
82
What is the principle of Separation of Duty via RBAC?
Mutually exclusive roles are defined, preventing a user from being assigned to both roles simultaneously.
83
Why is Separation of Duty important?
It ensures that the person who processes a transaction is not the same person who audits it.
84
In a bank RBAC system, what can the 'Teller' role do?
Initiate transfers up to \$1000.
85
What can the 'Manager' role do in a bank RBAC system?
Approve transfers over \$1000.
86
What is required for a \$50,000 transfer in a bank RBAC system?
Two separate individuals must be involved.
87
What is the Trusted Computing Base (TCB)?
The minimal set of hardware, firmware, and software components that must function correctly for the security policy to be enforced.
88
Why is a smaller TCB more secure?
Fewer components to verify, fewer potential failure points, and easier to formally verify.
89
What is an example of a system with a small TCB?
A hypervisor-based security system.
90
What does the high-level policy language express?
Policy in abstract, human-readable terms.
91
What is an example of a high-level policy language?
Ponder.
92
What does the low-level policy language express?
Policy in terms directly enforced by system mechanisms.
93
What is an example of a low-level policy language?
Tripwire.
94
What is the policy gap?
The translation from high-level intent to low-level enforcement introduces errors.
95
Why do confidentiality policy goals differ between military and commercial sectors?
Military focuses on preventing unauthorized disclosure, while commercial focuses on preventing fraud and ensuring integrity.
96
What model is used for military confidentiality?
Bell-LaPadula (BLP).
97
What model is used for commercial confidentiality?
Clark-Wilson.
98
What is the ss-property in BLP?
No Read Up: A subject can read an object only if the subject's label dominates the object's label.
99
What is the *-property in BLP?
No Write Down: A subject can write to an object only if the object's label dominates the subject's label.
100
What does the Basic Security Theorem state?
A system is secure if the initial state is secure and every state transition preserves security.
101
Why is the Basic Security Theorem significant?
It transforms the global problem of system security into two local, verifiable conditions.
102
What is Tranquility in security policies?
Security labels must not change in ways that circumvent the BLP rules during system operation.
103
What is Strong Tranquility?
Labels never change at all during operation.
104
What is Weak Tranquility?
Labels may change but never in a policy-violating direction.
105
What is the significance of minimizing the TCB?
It is the system-design equivalent of Economy of Mechanism.
106
What does the policy gap highlight in security?
It shows why security is hard even when policies seem clear.
107
What is the key distinction between military and commercial confidentiality models?
Military focuses on who sees what (confidentiality), while commercial focuses on who does what (integrity + accountability).
108
What does BLP NOT protect?
BLP does NOT protect integrity or availability.
109
How can the *-property be counterproductive for integrity?
The *-property ('No Write Down') prevents subjects from writing to lower-classification objects, which can lead to integrity issues.
110
What is the proof technique for BLP correctness?
The BST (Bell-LaPadula Security Theorem) reduces a global safety property to local checks.
111
What are Biba's two rules?
Simple Integrity Property: Subject s can READ object o iff I(s) dom I(o). Integrity Property: Subject s can WRITE to object o iff I(s) dom I(o).
112
Why does 'No Read Down' protect integrity?
It prevents high-integrity subjects from reading low-integrity data, which could corrupt their internal state.
113
What is the purpose of C4?
C4 requires all TPs to write to an append-only log to create an auditable trail.
114
What does E4 enforce and why is it critical?
E4 ensures that only the authorized certifier may modify the certification list, enforcing separation of duty.
115
How does Clark-Wilson handle user authentication?
Clark-Wilson requires the system to authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
116
What is the role of UDIs in Clark-Wilson?
UDIs are untrusted input that can violate integrity if not properly validated.
117
What is C5 in Clark-Wilson?
C5 states that any TP accepting a UDI must be certified to produce valid CDI transformations or reject invalid UDIs.
118
Compare Clark-Wilson and BLP.
BLP is focused on confidentiality and does not protect integrity, while Clark-Wilson is designed for commercial integrity.
119
Why are ciphers preferred over codes?
Ciphers offer flexibility, depend only on the key for security, and are easier to distribute securely.
120
What is the Kasiski method?
The Kasiski method is a technique for breaking ciphers by analyzing repeated sequences of letters.
121
What is the distinction between code and cipher?
Ciphers are more flexible and follow the Open Design principle: the algorithm is public, the key is secret.
122
Describe the Kasiski method.
It finds repeated sequences in ciphertext to determine key length by computing the GCD of distances between repetitions.
123
What is the index of coincidence used for?
It determines whether a cipher is monoalphabetic or polyalphabetic based on the frequency distribution of letters.
124
Why is OTP the only cipher with perfect secrecy?
It reveals zero information about the plaintext; for any ciphertext, every possible plaintext is equally likely.
125
What makes OTP impractical?
The key must be as long as the message, perfectly random, never reused, and secure key distribution is challenging.
126
Compare RSA and El Gamal.
RSA is based on factoring large composite numbers and provides both confidentiality and authentication. El Gamal is based on the discrete logarithm problem and primarily provides confidentiality.
127
What does a keyed hash function provide?
Integrity and authentication, as only the keyholder can produce or verify the MAC.
128
What does a keyless hash function provide?
Integrity only; anyone can compute the hash, but it does not provide authentication.
129
How do RSA digital signatures work?
They involve computing a hash of the message, signing it with the sender's private key, and allowing verification with the sender's public key.
130
What properties do RSA digital signatures provide?
Integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.
131
What does Needham-Schroeder require?
A trusted third party (KDC) for establishing trust without public key operations or a certificate authority.
132
Explain Diffie-Hellman.
It allows two parties to establish a shared secret over an insecure channel using public values.
133
Why is Diffie-Hellman vulnerable to MITM?
It provides no authentication, allowing an attacker to intercept and manipulate the key exchange.
134
How is the MITM vulnerability in Diffie-Hellman fixed?
By authenticating the DH exchange, typically using certificates.
135
What is a Merkle tree?
A binary tree where each leaf node is a hash of a data block, and the root hash summarizes all data.
136
How is a Merkle tree used in certificate transparency?
CAs log every issued certificate to a public Merkle tree log, allowing verification of certificate authenticity.
137
What are the four classes of cryptographic attacks?
1. Brute force - Defense: Strong passwords. 2. Man-in-the-middle - Defense: Authentication. 3. Replay - Defense: Nonces. 4. Denial of Service - Defense: Rate limiting.
138
What is a precomputation attack and its defense?
An attacker precomputes hash-to-plaintext mappings. Defense: Salting - add a random per-user salt before hashing.
139
What is a misordered blocks attack and its defense?
In block ciphers without integrity protection, reordering encrypted blocks changes plaintext in predictable ways. Defense: Use authenticated encryption modes (AES-GCM).
140
What is a statistical regularities attack and its defense?
ECB mode encrypts identical plaintext blocks to identical ciphertext blocks, revealing data patterns. Defense: Use cipher block chaining (CBC) or other modes that mix blocks.
141
What is a type flaw attack and its defense?
A message of type A is replayed as if it were type B in a protocol. Defense: Tag messages with their type.
142
What is the difference between truly random and cryptographically pseudorandom numbers?
Truly random is generated from physical entropy sources. CSPRNG is seeded with true randomness and expands it algorithmically.
143
Why does the quality of random number generation matter?
Cryptographic keys are only as secret as the random numbers used to generate them. Poor RNG can lead to compromised keys.
144
What is a famous example of poor RNG quality?
Debian's OpenSSL bug (2008) reduced the PRNG to only 32,767 possible seeds, compromising all keys generated for two years.
145
Why use public key for key exchange but not bulk encryption?
Public key cryptosystems are slow; symmetric ciphers are fast but require a shared key. Hybrid encryption uses public key to exchange a session key, then AES for data encryption.
146
What is the hybrid encryption approach?
Use the public key system to securely exchange a random symmetric session key, then use the session key with AES for data encryption.
147
What is link encryption?
Encrypted between each adjacent pair of nodes, decrypted and re-encrypted at each intermediate node.
148
What is end-to-end encryption?
Encrypted at source, decrypted only at destination; intermediate nodes never see plaintext.
149
When would you use both link and end-to-end encryption?
A VPN (link encryption) combined with TLS (end-to-end) to hide traffic patterns and ensure content confidentiality.
150
What are the four authentication factors?
What you know, what you have, what you are, where you are.
151
What is mutual authentication?
Both parties authenticate each other, e.g., TLS with client certificates.
152
What are the four password attack types?
Exhaustive search, inspired guessing, random guessing, scavenging.
153
What does salting defend against?
Salting defends against precomputation (rainbow table) attacks.
154
Why are passphrases recommended?
They make the search space large and distribution uniform, making them harder to crack.
155
What is the difference between stateful and packet-filter firewalls?
Packet-filter examines each packet independently; stateful maintains a table of established connections.
156
Why is stateful firewall more secure?
It can distinguish unsolicited inbound packets from legitimate reply packets.
157
What security properties does TLS provide?
Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication.
158
What are the improvements of TLS 1.3 over SSL?
Fewer cipher suites, mandatory forward secrecy, faster handshake, encrypted handshake metadata.
159
Why is forward secrecy important in TLS 1.3?
It means past sessions cannot be decrypted even if the server's long-term key is later compromised.
160
What is Security?
Security means a system operates as intended, despite adversarial interference.
161
What does the CIA Triad stand for?
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability.
162
What is Disclosure in security threats?
Unauthorized access to information, violating Confidentiality.
163
What is Deception in security threats?
Acceptance of false data as true, violating Integrity.
164
What is Disruption in security threats?
Interruption or prevention of correct operation, violating Availability/Integrity.
165
What is Usurpation in security threats?
Unauthorized control of some part of the system, violating Integrity.
166
What are the goals of security?
Prevention, Detection, Recovery.
167
What is a Security Policy?
A statement of what is and is not allowed.
168
What is a Security Mechanism?
Technical or procedural means to enforce a policy.
169
What is the difference between Policy and Mechanism?
Policy = WHAT must be enforced; Mechanism = HOW it is enforced.
170
What is Assurance in security?
The confidence that a system meets its security requirements.
171
Why is a flaw at the specification phase dangerous?
A flawed spec means all subsequent work is misdirected.
172
What is Risk in security?
Risk = Threat × Vulnerability × Asset Value.
173
What does ALE stand for?
Annualized Loss Expectancy.
174
What is a Principal in security?
An entity whose identity can be authenticated.
175
What is Authentication?
The process of verifying a claimed identity.
176
What is Authorization?
Determining what an authenticated principal is permitted to do.
177
What is Accountability?
Linking actions to principals via audit logs.
178
What are Path Names?
Human-readable identifiers for files.
179
What are UIDs?
Numeric identifiers assigned by the OS.
180
What is a Certificate?
A digitally signed document binding a public key to an identity.
181
What is a Certification Authority (CA)?
A trusted third party that issues and signs certificates.
182
What is a Persona Certificate?
A certificate that binds a key to a pseudonym or role rather than a real legal identity.
183
What is Privacy?
The right to control information about oneself.
184
What is Anonymity?
Actions cannot be linked to any identity.
185
What is Pseudonymity?
Actions are linked to a consistent pseudonym but not a real identity.
186
What is Data Minimization?
Collect only the data strictly necessary for the stated purpose.
187
Why are path names considered insecure identifiers for files?
Path names can be manipulated or guessed, leading to unauthorized access.
188
What is a more reliable alternative at the OS level for file identifiers?
Using unique identifiers or handles that are not based on file paths.
189
What is a Distinguished Name (DN) in an X.509 certificate?
A DN is a unique identifier for an entity in a certificate, consisting of attributes like common name, organization, and country.
190
What is the role of a Registration Authority (RA) vs. a Certification Authority (CA)?
The RA verifies identities before certificates are issued, while the CA issues and manages the certificates.
191
Describe two security risks associated with web cookies.
1. Cross-site scripting (XSS) attacks can steal cookies. 2. Session hijacking can occur if cookies are not secured.
192
Explain DNS cache poisoning.
DNS cache poisoning is an attack that corrupts the DNS cache, causing users to be redirected to malicious sites.
193
What security mechanism (DNSSEC) is designed to address DNS cache poisoning?
DNSSEC adds a layer of security by enabling DNS responses to be verified for authenticity.
194
Give an example where a system achieves confidentiality but violates privacy.
A system that encrypts user data but tracks and logs user behavior without consent.
195
Define the principle of Least Privilege.
The principle of Least Privilege states that users and programs should operate with the minimum privileges necessary.
196
Give one example of a system that violates the principle of Least Privilege.
A system where all users have administrative rights, allowing them to access sensitive data unnecessarily.
197
What is the principle of Fail-Safe Defaults?
Fail-Safe Defaults means that access is denied by default unless explicitly permitted.
198
How does Fail-Safe Defaults differ from a default-allow system?
A default-allow system grants access unless explicitly denied, which is less secure.
199
Explain why 'security through obscurity' violates the principle of Open Design.
It relies on keeping the design secret, which can be compromised, whereas Open Design promotes transparency.
200
Describe a scenario involving file descriptors where Complete Mediation is violated.
If a user accesses a file without checking permissions after the initial access, it violates Complete Mediation.
201
What is the Principle of Psychological Acceptability?
The Principle of Psychological Acceptability states that security measures should not hinder usability.
202
Give an example where overly strict security backfires.
A system that requires complex passwords leading users to write them down, increasing the risk of theft.
203
Which Saltzer & Schroeder principle most closely aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'?
The principle of Fail-Safe Defaults aligns with 'Privacy as the default setting'.
204
What is the access control matrix?
The access control matrix is a model that defines the access rights of subjects to objects.
205
Describe the structure of the access control matrix.
Rows represent subjects (users/processes), columns represent objects (files/devices), and cells contain access rights.
206
What are the six primitive operations in the access control matrix?
1. enter(r, s, o) 2. delete(r, s, o) 3. create subject(s) 4. create object(o) 5. destroy subject(s) 6. destroy object(o)
207
What is the copy flag in the access control matrix model?
The copy flag allows a subject to grant a right to other subjects.
208
How does the copy flag interact with the principle of attenuation of privilege?
It ensures that a subject can only grant rights it possesses, preventing privilege escalation.
209
State the HRU result.
For systems with generic rights and general commands, safety is undecidable.
210
What distinguishes a system for which safety is decidable from one for which it is not?
Decidable systems have mono-operational commands, while undecidable systems have multi-operation commands.
211
What is the practical implication of HRU undecidability for real security systems?
Real systems cannot formally verify safety and often use restricted models or rely on auditing.
212
Describe the 'own' right.
The 'own' right allows a subject to manage access rights for an object, enabling full administrative control.
213
What operations does the 'own' right enable?
It enables adding and deleting rights for any subject on that object.
214
How does the 'own' right differ from just having read+write access?
The 'own' right includes administrative capabilities, while read+write access does not.
215
What defines a security policy?
A security policy defines the set of authorized and unauthorized states.
216
When is a system considered secure?
A system is secure if it begins in an authorized state and cannot transition into an unauthorized state.
217
What is DAC (Discretionary Access Control)?
Owner controls access, rights can be delegated, flexible but weak.
218
What is MAC (Mandatory Access Control)?
System enforces access based on labels; users cannot override policy.
219
What is ORCON (Originator-Controlled Access Control)?
The original creator retains control over access, recipients cannot re-distribute without approval.
220
What is RBAC (Role-Based Access Control)?
Permissions are assigned to roles, users are assigned to roles, supports least privilege and separation of duty.
221
What is the role of trust in access control policies?
Trust is a key policy concept; a trusted component's failure can violate the security policy.
222
Why is a smaller TCB generally more secure?
The smaller the TCB, the easier it is to assure.
223
What are high-level policy languages?
They express policy intent in human-readable, relatively abstract terms.
224
What are low-level policy languages?
They express policy in terms of system-level rules directly enforceable by mechanisms.
225
What is the 'policy gap'?
The gap between high-level policy intent and low-level enforcement where many security failures occur.
226
What are the confidentiality policy goals for militaryovernment?
Prevent unauthorized disclosure of classified information.
227
What model is designed for militaryovernment confidentiality?
BLP model.
228
What are the confidentiality policy goals for commercial environments?
Prevent fraud and maintain integrity of commercial transactions.
229
What model is designed for commercial confidentiality?
Clark-Wilson model.
230
What is the ss-property in the Bell-LaPadula Model?
No Read Up: A subject can read an object if the subject label dominates the object label.
231
What is the *-property in the Bell-LaPadula Model?
No Write Down: A subject can write to an object if the object label dominates the subject label.
232
What is the Basic Security Theorem in BLP?
A system is secure if every initial state is secure and every state transition preserves security.
233
What does dominance mean in BLP?
(L1; C1) dominates (L2; C2) iff L1 >= L2 AND C2 is a subset of C1.
234
Does (Secret; {A, B, C}) dominate (Top Secret; {A})?
No.
235
Does (Secret; {A, B}) dominate (Confidential; {A})?
Yes.
236
What is the Tranquility Principle?
It states that security labels should not change during system operation to prevent circumvention of security properties.
237
What is the significance of the Basic Security Theorem?
It allows us to conclude that a BLP-based system is secure if it meets its conditions.
238
What is the Simple Integrity Property in Biba's Model?
A subject can READ an object if the subject's integrity level dominates the object's integrity level.
239
What is the * Integrity Property in Biba's Model?
A subject can WRITE to an object if the subject's integrity level dominates the object's integrity level.
240
What does the Clark-Wilson Model focus on?
Well-formed transactions and separation of duty.
241
What is a Constrained Data Item (CDI)?
High-integrity data, such as account balances.
242
What is an Unconstrained Data Item (UDI)?
Untrusted input, such as user-entered data.
243
What is an Integrity Verification Procedure (IVP)?
It verifies that CDIs are in valid states.
244
What is a Transformation Procedure (TP)?
The only operation allowed to modify CDIs.
245
What are the Certification Rules in the Clark-Wilson Model?
Rules applied by authorized certifiers to ensure integrity.
246
What is the purpose of Enforcement Rules in the Clark-Wilson Model?
To enforce the system's integrity rules.
247
What must the system maintain according to E1 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules?
TP-CDI associations and ensure only those TPs manipulate those CDIs.
248
What does E2 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules require the system to maintain?
A list of (UserID, TP, CDIs) -- which user can run which TP on which CDIs.
249
What is required by E3 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules?
The system must authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
250
What does E4 of Clark-Wilson Enforcement Rules enforce?
Only certified agents may modify the (TP, CDI) certification list; certifiers cannot execute the TPs they certify.
251
What are Biba's two rules using I(s) dom I(o) notation?
(1) No Write Up: A subject at a lower integrity level cannot write to an object at a higher integrity level. (2) No Read Down: A subject at a higher integrity level cannot read an object at a lower integrity level.
252
Why does the 'No Read Down' rule protect integrity?
It prevents lower integrity subjects from accessing higher integrity information, which could lead to integrity violations.
253
List the five Certification Rules (C1-C5) of Clark-Wilson.
C1: Well-formed transactions, C2: Separation of duties, C3: Certification of TPs and CDIs, C4: Certification list modification, C5: Auditing.
254
What is the purpose of C4 specifically in Clark-Wilson?
C4 ensures that only certified agents can modify the certification list, maintaining system integrity.
255
What does E4 enforce in Clark-Wilson, and why is it critical for security?
E4 enforces that only certified agents can modify the certification list, which is critical to prevent unauthorized changes.
256
How does Clark-Wilson handle authentication of users?
The system must authenticate the identity of each user attempting to execute a TP.
257
What does the sample midterm tell us about user authentication in Clark-Wilson?
It emphasizes the importance of verifying user identities before allowing access to TPs.
258
Why is C5 important in Clark-Wilson?
C5 ensures that all transactions are audited to maintain accountability and integrity.
259
Give a real-world example of a UDI being transformed into a CDI.
An example is a user inputting data into a form that is then validated and stored as a controlled record.
260
Compare Clark-Wilson and BLP: what threat model is each designed for?
Clark-Wilson is designed for integrity, while BLP is designed for confidentiality.
261
What type of integrity violation does BLP fail to address that Clark-Wilson handles?
BLP does not address integrity violations related to unauthorized modifications of data.
262
What is the difference between codes and ciphers?
Codes replace semantic units (words/phrases) with code words, while ciphers transform charactersits algorithmically using a key.
263
Why do modern cryptosystems use ciphers rather than codes?
Ciphers provide stronger security and flexibility compared to codes, which are limited by their codebook.
264
Describe the Kasiski method for attacking a Vigenere cipher.
The Kasiski method involves finding repeated patterns in the ciphertext to determine the key length.
265
What is the index of coincidence used for in the Kasiski method?
It is used to determine if a cipher is monoalphabetic or polyalphabetic.
266
Why is the one-time pad the only cipher with perfect secrecy?
Because its key is as long as the message, used only once, and perfectly random.
267
What makes the one-time pad impractical for real-world use?
The key distribution problem, as securely sharing long random keys is difficult.
268
Compare RSA and El Gamal: what hard mathematical problem underlies each?
RSA is based on the difficulty of factoring large numbers, while El Gamal is based on the discrete logarithm problem.
269
What security property does RSA primarily provide?
Confidentiality through public key encryption.
270
What security property does El Gamal primarily provide?
Confidentiality, with a separate algorithm for authentication.
271
What is the difference between a keyed and keyless cryptographic hash function?
Keyed hashes use a secret key for verification, while keyless hashes do not.
272
What security property does a keyless cryptographic hash function provide?
Integrity checking.
273
What security property does a keyed hash (HMAC) provide?
Both integrity and authentication.
274
Describe how RSA digital signatures work.
Sign the message, encipher the hash, then verify by decrypting with the sender's public key.
275
What three security properties do digital signatures provide that symmetric encryption alone cannot?
Integrity, authentication, and non-repudiation.
276
What is an interchange key in key distribution protocols?
A long-term key used only to encrypt and distribute session keys.
277
What is a session key?
A short-lived key used for one communication session, providing forward secrecy.
278
What is the purpose of using public key cryptosystems in key distribution?
To securely exchange session keys, which are then used for fast symmetric encryption.
279
What is the Needham-Schroeder protocol?
A theoretical key distribution protocol that requires a trusted third party (KDC).
280
What improvements does Kerberos make over Needham-Schroeder?
Adds timestamps to prevent replay attacks and introduces Ticket Granting Tickets (TGT) for single sign-on.
281
What is the Diffie-Hellman Key Exchange?
A method that allows two parties to establish a shared secret over an insecure channel without a KDC.
282
What is the basis of the Diffie-Hellman Protocol?
The discrete logarithm problem.
283
Why is the Diffie-Hellman key exchange vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?
It does not authenticate the parties involved, allowing an attacker to intercept and substitute values.
284
How is the vulnerability of the Diffie-Hellman key exchange addressed in practice?
By authenticating the DH exchange using certificates, as in TLS.
285
Describe four classes of cryptographic attacks.
1. Precomputation attack: Use rainbow tables; defense: salt hashes. 2. Misordered blocks: Reordering can alter plaintext; defense: integrity protection. 3. Statistical regularities: Cipher leaks patterns; defense: use secure modes. 4. Type flaw attack: Misinterpretation of messages; defense: strict protocol definitions.
286
What is the difference between cryptographically random and cryptographically pseudorandom number generation?
Cryptographically random numbers are generated from true entropy sources, while pseudorandom numbers are generated from algorithms seeded with true random data.
287
Why does key generation quality matter?
It is essential for ensuring the security of cryptographic systems.
288
What does link encryption do?
Encrypts data at each network node along the path, hiding traffic patterns.
289
What is a vulnerability of link encryption?
Plaintext is visible at each intermediate node.
290
What is a vulnerability of end-to-end encryption?
Headers must remain cleartext for routing.
291
What is the best practice for encryption?
Combine end-to-end encryption for content confidentiality with link encryption to hide traffic patterns.
292
What is SSL?
A deprecated predecessor to TLS that should not be used.
293
What is TLS?
The current standard for secure communication, providing confidentiality, integrity, and server authentication.
294
What are the key phases of the TLS handshake?
1. Client Hello, 2. Server Hello + Certificate, 3. Key Exchange, 4. Finished, 5. Data phase.
295
What is a packet filter?
A stateless firewall that examines each packet's headers independently.
296
What is a stateful firewall?
A firewall that tracks connection state and allows inbound packets matching established outbound connections.
297
What is a DMZ?
A network segment between the internet and internal network that hosts public-facing servers.
298
What are the four factors of authentication?
1. What you know (password), 2. What you have (token), 3. What you are (biometric), 4. Where you are (geolocation).
299
What are common problems with passwords?
Common passwords, password reuse, short passwords, and predictable patterns.
300
What is a good password selection strategy?
Use random generation, pronounceable passwords, or passphrases to maximize search space size.

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