QUIZ 2

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1
What is a purpose of a probe?
A probe is a labeles, single-stranded DNA or RNA sequence used to detect complementary sequences through base pairing .
2
What are the main applications of probes?
-Detecting specific DNA/RNA sequences, diagnosing genetic disoders, studying gene expression, identifying pathogens, mapping genes.
3
What are two for probe labeling?
-Radioactive labeling (^32P, ^35S) - sensitive, but hazardous) and Non-radioactive labeling (biotin, digoxigenin, flurescent dyes - safer, stable, versatile)
4
How does biotin labeing work?
Biotin is attached to the probe; detection uses streptavidin or avidin conjugated to an enzyme or flurophore.
5
How does digoxigenin (DIG) labeling work?
DIG is incorporated into the probe, detection uses anti-DIG antibodies linked to an enzyme or fluorophore.
6
What are hybridization assays?
Techniques that detect specific DNA or RNA sequences by allowing labeled probes to bind to complementary nucleic acids.
7
What are common hybridization assay?
Southern blot → DNA
Northern blot → RNA
In situ hybridization (ISH) → nucleic acids in tissues/cells
Microarrays → many sequences at once
8
What is a standard hybridization assay?
Target nucleic acid is immobilized on a surface (e.g., blot membrane), and a labeled probe binds to it.
9
What is a reverse hybridization assay?
Probes are immobilized on a surface, and the target nucleic acid (often fluorescently labeled) binds to them.
10
What do you call the end of a probe with biotin attached?
A biotinylated end (can be 5′ or 3′ biotin-labeled).
11
How is probe specificity ensured in a hybridization assay?
By carefully controlling temperature, salt concentration, and probe design (length, GC content).
12
What’s the main advantage of non-radioactive labeling over radioactive labeling?
Safer, longer shelf-life, and allows multiple detection methods.
13
What’s the main disadvantage of non-radioactive labeling?
Often less sensitive than radioactive labeling.
14
Why are hybridization assays important in medicine and research?
They allow detection of mutations, infectious agents, and gene expression changes.
15
What is PCR?
PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a cell-free method for amplifying DNA, Allows parallel amplification of DNA sequences from multiple samples.
16
Why is PCR considered revolutionary in genetics?
Because of its simplicity, speed, and versatility, PCR allows a single person to rapidly amplify specific DNA regions (e.g., all exons of a gene from many patients), which was previously labor-intensive.
17
What are the basic requirements for PCR?
DNA template (complex DNA such as genomic DNA)
Two single-stranded oligonucleotide primers (20+ nucleotides, specific, complementary)
Heat-stable DNA polymerase (e.g., Taq)
dNTPs (nucleotides)
Buffer with Mg²⁺
Thermal cycler (for temperature changes)
18
What are the three main steps of a PCR cycle?
Denaturation (≈95°C): DNA strands separate.
Annealing (≈50–65°C): Primers bind to complementary target sites.
Extension/elongation (≈72°C): DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA strand from primers.
19
How do primers ensure specificity in PCR?
Primers are designed to perfectly base-pair with their target sequence (≈20 nucleotides long). Their binding strength depends on length, GC content, and base-pair complementarity.
20
Why are two primers used in PCR?
One primer binds each strand at opposite ends of the target sequence, flanking the DNA of interest. This ensures amplification occurs in both directions and yields a defined-length product.
21
What happens after multiple cycles of PCR?
Initially, products have variable ends, but after ~2 cycles, precise-length products appear (defined by primer sites). These accumulate exponentially, resulting in millions of copies of the target DNA.
22
What is an amplicon?
The DNA product generated by PCR, representing the amplified target sequence.
23
How can PCR be used to study RNA transcripts?
By first converting RNA into complementary DNA (cDNA) using reverse transcriptase. This is called RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription PCR).
24
What is the difference between routine PCR and quantitative PCR (qPCR)?
Routine PCR: Only detects presence/absence or sufficient product.
qPCR: Measures the amount of DNA produced, allowing relative or absolute quantification.
25
What is real-time PCR?
A specialized form of qPCR where amplification is monitored during the reaction using fluorescent reporter molecules. It allows quantification in real-time, not just at the endpoint.
26
Why is the exponential phase important in qPCR?
During the exponential phase (≈16–25 cycles), the amount of PCR product is directly proportional to the amount of starting DNA, making it ideal for quantification.
27
What are the advantages of PCR?
Extremely sensitive (can amplify from tiny or degraded samples, even single cells)
Fast and simple
Robust (works on preserved or formalin-fixed tissue)
Versatile (used in diagnostics, research, forensics, archaeology)
28
What are the disadvantages of PCR compared to cell-based DNA cloning?
Scaling up to very large DNA quantities is not practical.
PCR usually amplifies fragments <10 kb, while cloning can handle hundreds of kb to >1 Mb.
29
Why are heat-stable DNA polymerases used in PCR?
PCR requires repeated heating (denaturation at ~95°C). Heat-stable polymerases (from thermophiles in hot springs/vents) survive these cycles.
30
What are examples of high-fidelity DNA polymerases used in PCR?
Pfu (from Pyrococcus), Vent™, and Deep Vent™ polymerases. These have 3′→5′ exonuclease proofreading activity and lower error rates.
31
What are the different phases of PCR amplification?
ag phase: Few products, not detectable.
Exponential phase (cycles ~16–25): Product doubles each cycle, proportional to input DNA (used for quantitation).
Stationary/saturation phase: Reaction slows, efficiency decreases as primers and reagents are depleted.
32
Why does exponential growth slow down in PCR after ~25 cycles?
Reactants (primers, nucleotides) become limiting, and accumulated products compete for primer binding.
33
What are isothermal amplification methods?
Alternative approaches that amplify DNA at constant temperature (instead of cycling), used in some modern diagnostic assays.
34
What is a nucleic acid probe?
A short DNA or RNA sequence that is complementary to a target sequence and used to detect that target through hybridization.
35
Why must probes be labeled?
Because hybridization alone isn’t visible; a label/tag is required to detect or visualize the probe after binding.
36
What types of probe labels are commonly used?
Colorimetric, enzymatic, fluorescent, and chemiluminescent labels.
37
What is digoxigenin (DIG) and why is it used in probe labeling?
DIG is a plant-derived steroid used as a safe, non-radioactive label. It is detected using high-affinity anti-DIG antibodies linked to fluorescence, enzymes, or chemiluminescent reporters.
38
How do DIG-labeled probes get detected?
Through anti-DIG antibodies, which can be conjugated to:
Fluorescent dyes (glow under light)
Enzymes (cause color change)
Chemiluminescent molecules (emit light in chemical reactions)
39
What does "stringency" mean in nucleic acid hybridization?
Stringency is how strictly a probe binds only to perfectly complementary sequences. High stringency = very specific, low stringency = more tolerant of mismatches.
40
How do you increase stringency?
Raise the hybridization temperature → mismatched base pairs become unstable and dissociate.
41
How do you decrease stringency?
Lower the hybridization temperature → imperfectly matched sequences can still bind.
42
What is ramp speed in hybridization, and why does it matter?
Ramp speed is how quickly temperature changes (cooling/heating). Rapid cooling prevents DNA from finding perfect complements (partial mismatches form), while slow cooling allows correct complementary strands to reanneal.
43
What happens if you heat DNA to 95°C and then rapidly cool it on ice?
DNA strands fail to find perfect matches, leading to unstable partial pairings or single-stranded DNA.
44
What happens if you heat DNA to 95°C and then slowly cool it to room temperature?
Strands have time to find correct complementary partners, forming stable double-stranded DNA.
45
What is an oligonucleotide (oligo)?
A short nucleic acid sequence (<100 nucleotides) often used as primers or probes.
46
How is probe stringency related to PCR primer annealing?
The annealing temperature in PCR sets stringency:
Too low → primers may bind nonspecifically.
Too high → primers may fail to bind.
Optimal temperature = specific primer binding to the target sequence.
47
Why does higher temperature make binding more specific?
At high temperature, only perfectly complementary sequences have enough hydrogen bonds to remain paired; mismatches dissociate.
48
Why does colder temperature reduce specificity?
At low temperature, probes/primers can stick to partially complementary sequences since weak hydrogen bonding is enough to hold them together.
49
What does “DNA breathing” mean?
Temporary unwinding/separation of DNA bases, especially at the ends, even at room temperature.
50
How does increasing temperature affect DNA stability?
Higher temperature increases kinetic energy, destabilizes hydrogen bonds, and favors DNA staying single-stranded.
51
Why are telomeres important in relation to DNA breathing?
They stabilize DNA ends and protect single-stranded regions from degradation.
52
How does annealing temperature affect primer binding in PCR?
High temp → high stringency, only perfect matches bind.
Low temp → low stringency, mismatches can bind, risking non-specific products.
53
What is a standard hybridization assay?
Unlabeled sample DNA/RNA is immobilized; a labeled probe binds to complementary sequences.
54
What is a reverse hybridization assay?
Probes are immobilized; labeled sample DNA/RNA binds and produces the detectable signal.
55
What are microarrays an example of?
Reverse hybridization, where many probes are immobilized and the sample is fluorescently labeled.
56
What is the purpose of Southern blotting?
Detect specific DNA sequences in large genomes, confirm recombination events, and analyze DNA fragment sizes.
57
What is the first step of a Southern blot?
Digest genomic DNA with restriction enzymes.
58
What is the key difference between Southern and Northern blots?
Southern = DNA is immobilized, Northern = RNA is immobilized.
59
Why is Southern blot considered the gold standard for detecting recombination?
It can analyze large DNA fragments, provide copy number info from band intensity, and confirm correct genomic integration.
60
In Southern blotting, what does band intensity represent?
The relative abundance or copy number of DNA in the genome.
61
What is the difference in detection between standard vs. reverse hybridization?
Standard: probe is labeled.
Reverse: sample is labeled.
62
What is an advantage of hybridization over PCR?
Hybridization can detect large DNA fragments (e.g., 13 kb), which PCR cannot efficiently amplify.
63
What is a DNA microarray?
A chip (usually glass or silicate) with thousands of immobilized DNA probes used to study DNA, RNA, or cDNA hybridization.
64
What is immobilized on the microarray chip?
Pre-determined DNA oligonucleotides (probes), each spot containing many copies of the same sequence.
65
In microarrays, what is labeled—the probe or the sample?
The sample DNA/RNA/cDNA is fluorescently labeled, not the probe.
66
How is the microarray read?
By measuring fluorescence intensity at each probe spot; brighter spots = more hybridization.
67
Why can’t microarrays detect single fluorophores?
Because the signal is too weak; many hybridization events per spot are needed for detectable fluorescence.
68
What is the main challenge in microarray hybridization?
Ensuring stringency—all probes must function under the same buffer and temperature conditions.
69
What does fluorescence intensity on a microarray represent?
The relative abundance of the complementary sequence in the sample.
70
How can microarrays compare two different samples?
Label each sample with different fluorescent dyes (e.g., red & green) and hybridize both to the same array.
71
What does a yellow spot indicate in a two-color microarray experiment?
Equal expression in both samples (both red and green fluorophores present).
72
What does a black spot mean on a microarray?
No hybridization occurred → no expression in either sample.
73
Why is cDNA often used instead of RNA for microarrays?
cDNA is more stable than RNA, making hybridization more reliable.
74
What is SNP analysis in microarrays?
Detecting single nucleotide polymorphisms by testing for mismatches or by single nucleotide extension with labeled nucleotides.
75
How does single nucleotide extension SNP detection work?
DNA hybridizes to a probe, then DNA polymerase adds a fluorescently labeled nucleotide at the SNP site. The fluorescence color reveals the SNP identity.
76
What’s the difference between classic vs. modern microarray SNP detection?
Classic: Detect mismatches by hybridization signal strength.
Modern: Use single nucleotide extension with fluorescently labeled nucleotides.
77
What is the main advantage of microarrays compared to blotting methods?
They allow high-throughput, genome-wide analysis in a single experiment.
78
Why is mutation more likely in longer DNA or after many replication cycles?
The longer the DNA and the more cycles of replication, the greater the chance that DNA polymerase introduces errors. Mutations accumulate over repeated amplification.
79
Why does it matter if PCR introduces mutations during cloning for recombinant proteins?
Because the amplified gene will be expressed as a protein. Mutations could alter protein structure/function, so high-fidelity polymerases are used and the sequence must be verified afterward.
80
What are the essential components of a PCR reaction?
DNA template (dsDNA)
Primers (forward + reverse)
DNA polymerase (heat-stable, e.g., Taq)
dNTPs (building blocks)
Buffer, salts, Mg²⁺
Thermocycler (to rapidly change temperatures)
81
What are the three main steps of PCR?
Denaturation (~95°C): dsDNA separates into single strands
Annealing (~55–65°C): primers bind to complementary target sequence
Extension (~72°C): DNA polymerase extends primers, synthesizing new DNA
82
When does the target PCR product (bounded by forward + reverse primers) first appear?
After cycle 2, and it then grows exponentially with each cycle.
83
Why is Taq polymerase used in PCR?
It is heat-stable, surviving repeated cycles of near-boiling denaturation temperatures.
84
What limits PCR after ~30+ cycles?
Polymerase degradation, depletion of dNTPs or primers, and accumulation of inhibitors cause plateau phase (no further increase in product).
85
What is the difference between the lag phase, exponential phase, and plateau in PCR?
Lag phase: few detectable products yet
Exponential/log phase: product doubles each cycle
Plateau phase: reaction slows/stops due to resource limits
86
How can PCR products be detected simply?
By adding fluorescent dyes that bind dsDNA (e.g., SYBR Green). Fluorescence increases as more product forms.
87
Why is qPCR (quantitative PCR) more specific than dye-only PCR?
qPCR uses a probe with a fluorophore + quencher. The probe fluoresces only when degraded by DNA polymerase during extension, ensuring signal comes only from the correct target.
88
What is the principle of quantification in qPCR?
The cycle threshold (Ct value) — the cycle at which fluorescence crosses a set threshold — correlates with the starting amount of DNA template. Fewer cycles = more template initially present.
89
How can qPCR be used with RNA?
RNA is reverse transcribed into cDNA, then amplified and quantified by qPCR → used to measure gene expression.
90
Why do primers dominate binding in PCR compared to template DNA?
They are in vast excess and much smaller, allowing them to rapidly anneal before templates re-hybridize.
91
What allows qPCR to be multiplexed?
Different probes with different fluorophores can detect multiple targets in the same reaction tube.
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