IDT Exam 2

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1
What is a virus?
A small infectious agent made of a nucleic acid core plus a protein coat. It can multiply only inside living host cells because it relies on host metabolic machinery.
2
What genetic material can a virus contain?
Either DNA or RNA, but not both. The genome may be single-stranded or double-stranded depending on the virus.
3
What is a capsid?
The protective protein coat around the viral genome. It is built from repeating protein units called capsomeres.
4
What is a nucleocapsid?
The viral nucleic acid genome plus its protective capsid.
5
What is a viral envelope?
A lipoprotein bilayer surrounding some viruses. Enveloped viruses often have surface spikes used for attachment or release.
6
What are the three major capsid shape categories?
Icosahedral/cubic, helical, and mixed/combined symmetry.
7
What features are used to classify viruses?
Genome type, virion morphology, envelope presence, replication strategy, and serologic relationships/serotypes.
8
What is the basic order of viral infection?
Attachment → entry → uncoating → transcription → translationeplication → assembly → release/maturation.
9
What happens during viral attachment?
A viral attachment protein, often a spike glycoprotein, binds a specific host-cell receptor.
10
What happens during uncoating?
The capsid is completely or partially removed so the viral genome becomes exposed inside the host cell.
11
Why is selective toxicity harder with antivirals than antibacterials?
Viruses use host-cell machinery, so fewer virus-specific targets exist. Good antivirals exploit viral enzymes or steps that differ from human processes.
12
Which hepatitis viruses commonly cause chronic hepatitis?
HBV, HCV, and HDV can cause chronic infection. HAV and HEV generally do not cause chronic hepatitis.
13
What is the major transmission route of HAV and HEV?
Fecal-oral transmission, often through contaminated food or water.
14
What are major transmission routes for HBV, HCV, and HDV?
Bloodody-fluid exposure, percutaneous or permucosal exposure, sexual transmission, contaminated needles, and for HBV, mother-to-child transmission at birth.
15
What type of genome does influenza have?
Influenza is a segmented, single-stranded RNA virus. Influenza A has 8 viral genes.
16
What are the three influenza types discussed?
Influenza A, B, and C.
17
What do hemagglutinin (HA) and neuraminidase (NA) do?
HA helps attachment and penetration. NA helps release of new influenza virions from host cells.
18
What is antigenic drift?
Minor mutations in HA and/or NA that occur frequently and gradually change influenza antigenicity.
19
What is antigenic shift?
A major change in influenza surface antigens due to genetic reassortment, producing a new subtype with little population immunity. It can cause pandemics.
20
Which influenza type is classically associated with antigenic shift?
Influenza A.
21
Which symptoms favor influenza over a common cold?
High fever, prominent headache, severe body aches, early extreme exhaustion, and cough/chest discomfort that can become severe.
22
What class are zanamivir, oseltamivir, and peramivir?
Neuraminidase inhibitors active against influenza A and B.
23
When are neuraminidase inhibitors most effective?
Within 24–48 hours after symptom onset.
24
What is oseltamivir’s important prodrug pearl?
Oseltamivir is an oral prodrug that is hydrolyzed in the liver to the active carboxylic acid.
25
What is peramivir’s route and clinical pearl?
Peramivir is given IV as a single dose and may be used for severe or hospitalized influenza patients.
26
What is zanamivir’s route?
Inhaled via a Diskhaler.
27
How do neuraminidase inhibitors help treat influenza?
They inhibit neuraminidase, reducing release of new virions from infected host cells.
28
What type of genome does HSV have?
HSV has a double-stranded DNA genome inside an icosahedral nucleocapsid, surrounded by tegument and an envelope with glycoprotein spikes.
29
Which HSV type is classically oral, and which is genital?
HSV-1 is classically oral herpes; HSV-2 is classically genital herpes.
30
Do antivirals cure herpes simplex infection?
No. They can shorten outbreaks and help prevent outbreaks while the medication is being taken, but they do not eradicate latent HSV.
31
What drugs are used for HSV and sometimes VZV?
Acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir, and penciclovir.
32
What is valacyclovir?
A valine ester prodrug of acyclovir with better GI absorption than acyclovir. It is converted to acyclovir in the intestinal wall or liver.
33
What enzyme activates acyclovir first?
Viral thymidine kinase converts acyclovir to acyclovir monophosphate.
34
Why is acyclovir selectively toxic to infected cells?
It is a poor substrate for human thymidine kinase but is activated by viral thymidine kinase, so activation is concentrated in virus-infected cells.
35
What is acyclovir’s mechanism of action?
Acyclovir triphosphate is incorporated into viral DNA during synthesis and terminates chain elongation, reducing viral DNA synthesis.
36
What is famciclovir?
A prodrug converted to penciclovir by esterase and aldehyde oxidase.
37
What is penciclovir’s active mechanism?
It is activated to a triphosphate form and inhibits viral DNA polymerase.
38
What drugs are used for CMV infections?
Ganciclovir IV and valganciclovir oral prodrug.
39
What is ganciclovir’s mechanism?
Ganciclovir triphosphate inhibits viral DNA polymerase. CMV-infected cells phosphorylate it efficiently using a virally encoded kinase.
40
What is a key CMV indication from the lecture?
CMV retinitis in immunocompromised patients.
41
What type of genome does HBV have?
A partially double-stranded and partially single-stranded DNA genome within an enveloped virion.
42
What is HBsAg?
Hepatitis B surface antigen, a glycoprotein envelope antigen produced in excess and found in blood during infection.
43
Name HBV treatment drugs from the lecture.
Entecavir, tenofovir disoproxil fumarate, tenofovir alafenamide, lamivudine, and adefovir.
44
What is entecavir?
A guanosine nucleoside analog that is phosphorylated to an active triphosphate form.
45
What serious warnings or side effects are associated with entecavir and tenofovir?
Post-treatment severe acute exacerbation of hepatitis B, lactic acidosis, and severe hepatomegaly with steatosis.
46
What is tenofovir disoproxil fumarate’s mechanism?
It is an acyclic phosphonate analog of AMP that inhibits reverse transcriptase and terminates viral DNA after incorporation.
47
Why was tenofovir alafenamide developed?
It delivers tenofovir more efficiently to the liver, allowing lower doses and improved bone and kidney safety compared with older tenofovir formulations.
48
What type of virus is HCV?
A positive-sense enveloped RNA flavivirus that can cause chronic hepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatic failure.
49
What are the major HCV direct-acting antiviral targets?
NS3/4A protease, NS5B polymerase, and NS5A phosphoprotein.
50
Match HCV drug to target: glecaprevir.
Glecaprevir is an NS3/4A protease inhibitor.
51
Match HCV drug to target: pibrentasvir.
Pibrentasvir is an NS5A phosphoprotein inhibitor.
52
Match HCV drug to target: ledipasvir.
Ledipasvir is an NS5A inhibitor.
53
Match HCV drug to target: sofosbuvir.
Sofosbuvir is a nucleotide analog NS5B polymerase inhibitor.
54
Match HCV drug to target: velpatasvir.
Velpatasvir is an NS5A inhibitor.
55
What are common HCV DAA side effects from the lecture?
Fatigue, headache, nausea, and possible hepatitis B reactivation.
56
How are HCV DAAs commonly used?
In oral combinations for about 8–24 weeks, with very high cure rates in modern regimens.
57
What type of virus is HIV?
A complex enveloped RNA virus with two copies of single-stranded RNA and viral proteins including reverse transcriptase, protease, and integrase.
58
What HIV envelope proteins are important for entry?
gp120 and gp41.
59
What is HIV p24?
The core or capsid antigen that forms the cone-shaped nucleocapsid.
60
What host receptor does HIV primarily recognize?
CD4 on T helper cells.
61
What co-receptors can HIV use for entry?
CCR5 and CXCR4.
62
What are the broad stages of HIV progression?
Primary infection, clinically asymptomatic stage, symptomatic HIV infection, and progression from HIV to AIDS.
63
Name major antiretroviral classes from the lecture.
NRTIs, NNRTIs, integrase inhibitors, protease inhibitors, fusion inhibitors, CCR5 antagonists, attachment inhibitors, post-attachment inhibitors, and capsid inhibitors.
64
What do NRTIs do?
They are nucleoside or nucleotide-like agents converted to triphosphates and incorporated by HIV reverse transcriptase into proviral DNA, causing chain termination.
65
Give examples of NRTIs.
Zidovudine, lamivudine, emtricitabine, abacavir, and tenofovir.
66
What is zidovudine’s major toxicity?
Bone marrow toxicity, including macrocytic anemia, neutropenia, and granulocytopenia; also lactic acidosis and hepatomegaly with steatosis.
67
What storage pearl is associated with zidovudine?
It is sensitive to heat and light because of its azide group, so it should be stored in a colored bottle at 15–25°C.
68
What major side effects are associated with lamivudine?
Peripheral neuropathy, lactic acidosis with severe hepatomegaly and steatosis, and post-treatment exacerbation of hepatitis B.
69
What is emtricitabine’s dosing pearl compared with lamivudine?
It is similar to lamivudine but requires only once-daily dosing.
70
What is abacavir’s important safety issue?
Risk of hypersensitivity reactions; also lactic acidosis, severe hepatomegaly, blood disorders, and post-treatment HBV exacerbation.
71
What do HIV protease inhibitors prevent?
They block HIV protease, preventing cleavage of gag-pol polyproteins into mature structural proteins, so immature noninfectious virions are produced.
72
Give examples of HIV protease inhibitors.
Ritonavir, atazanavir, tipranavir, darunavir, and fosamprenavir.
73
Why is ritonavir often used in small doses with other protease inhibitors?
It is used mainly as a pharmacokinetic booster by inhibiting CYP3A4 and increasing plasma concentrations of the companion protease inhibitor.
74
What are key ritonavir interaction concerns from the lecture?
High drug-interaction potential, including large increases in fluticasone exposure and interaction with trazodone; kava may increase hepatotoxicity risk.
75
What is atazanavir’s major side effect?
Jaundice and hyperbilirubinemia.
76
What is tipranavir used for?
Treatment-experienced patients with viral replication and resistance to multiple protease inhibitors, often with ritonavir.
77
Why is darunavir useful in treatment-experienced patients?
It is highly effective and has a high genetic barrier to resistance; it is boosted with ritonavir or cobicistat.
78
What are major darunavir side effects?
Jaundice, severe rash including Stevens-Johnson syndrome, allergic reactions, and hyperglycemia.
79
What are common class issues for protease inhibitors?
High CYP3A4 interaction potential, dyslipidemia, jaundice, and hyperglycemia.
80
What drug classes are beta-lactams?
Penicillins, cephalosporins, monobactams, carbapenems, and beta-lactamase inhibitors all contain beta-lactam-related chemistry.
81
What is the overall mechanism of beta-lactams?
They inhibit bacterial cell-wall biosynthesis.
82
What is the specific target step of beta-lactams?
The transpeptidation or crosslinking step of peptidoglycan synthesis.
83
What are PBPs?
Penicillin-binding proteins, including transpeptidases that form peptidoglycan crosslinks.
84
What do beta-lactams mimic?
The D-Ala-D-Ala end of the peptidoglycan pentapeptide substrate.
85
How do beta-lactams inactivate PBPs?
The active-site serine of the PBP attacks the beta-lactam, forming a stable acyl-enzyme complex that hydrolyzes slowly.
86
Why are beta-lactams bactericidal?
They prevent peptidoglycan crosslinking, weakening the cell wall so bacteria can lyse under osmotic pressure.
87
What is peptidoglycan made of?
Alternating N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid strands with pentapeptide side chains.
88
Why does peptidoglycan give bacterial cells rigidity?
Crosslinks between pentapeptide side chains make the polymer rigid and insoluble.
89
What is the major mechanism of beta-lactam resistance discussed?
Acquisition of beta-lactamase enzymes that hydrolyze the beta-lactam ring.
90
Name the two broad beta-lactamase types.
Serine beta-lactamases and metallo-beta-lactamases.
91
Which beta-lactamase classes are serine beta-lactamases?
Classes A, C, and D.
92
Which beta-lactamase class is metallo-beta-lactamase?
Class B.
93
How do serine beta-lactamases differ from PBPs?
Both form acyl-enzyme intermediates, but beta-lactamases hydrolyze the intermediate rapidly, destroying the drug instead of staying inhibited.
94
Where are beta-lactamases located in Gram-positive bacteria?
They are secreted or located along the exterior cytoplasmic membrane, often in large amounts.
95
Where are beta-lactamases located in Gram-negative bacteria?
In the periplasmic space or bound to the exterior of the cytoplasmic membrane.
96
What role does beta-lactam ring strain play?
Ring strain helps beta-lactams react with PBPs, but also contributes to enzymatic deactivation and acid instability.
97
Why are many beta-lactams poorly orally available?
They can be unstable in acidic media, especially at pH less than 5, leading to degradation in the stomach.
98
What is the core nucleus of penicillins?
6-aminopenicillanic acid.
99
What penicillin structural features are required?
A free carboxyl on the thiazolidine ring and a substituted amide at position 6.
100
What does the R group control in penicillins?
Reactivity, solubility, beta-lactamase protection, spectrum of activity, oral bioavailability, and protein binding.
101
How can penicillins be made more acid-stable?
Adding an electron-withdrawing group near the side-chain carbonyl decreases acid hydrolysis and improves oral bioavailability.
102
How can penicillins be made more beta-lactamase resistant?
Adding bulky groups near the side-chain carbonyl blocks beta-lactamase access to the beta-lactam ring.
103
What is the trade-off of bulky beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin side chains?
They also reduce access to PBPs, so beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins are less potent than natural penicillins.
104
How do polar or charged R groups extend penicillin Gram-negative activity?
They help the drug pass through Gram-negative porin channels.
105
Name the four penicillin groups from the lecture.
Natural penicillins, aminopenicillins, beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins, and extended-spectrum or antipseudomonal penicillins.
106
What are the natural penicillins?
Penicillin G and Penicillin V.
107
What is Penicillin V’s advantage over Penicillin G?
Oral availability.
108
What is the main vulnerability of natural penicillins?
They are readily hydrolyzed by beta-lactamases and mainly cover susceptible Gram-positive organisms.
109
What are the aminopenicillins?
Ampicillin and amoxicillin.
110
What structural feature defines aminopenicillins?
An amine on the carbon adjacent to the amide carbonyl.
111
What spectrum feature do aminopenicillins add?
Expanded activity against many Gram-negative organisms compared with natural penicillins.
112
Are aminopenicillins beta-lactamase stable?
No. They are easily cleaved by beta-lactamases.
113
Which aminopenicillin is better orally absorbed?
Amoxicillin is about twice as well absorbed as ampicillin and usually causes less GI upset.
114
Why is amoxicillin often combined with clavulanate?
Clavulanate inhibits many beta-lactamases, extending amoxicillin’s useful spectrum.
115
What are beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins used for conceptually?
They avoid destruction by many staphylococcal beta-lactamases, but they do not inhibit the enzyme.
116
Give examples of beta-lactamase-resistant penicillins.
Methicillin, nafcillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin, and dicloxacillin.
117
Which beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin is no longer used in the U.S.?
Methicillin.
118
Which beta-lactamase-resistant penicillin is noted as most active by mass-to-mass potency?
Nafcillin.
119
Which isoxazolyl penicillins are used orally?
Cloxacillin and dicloxacillin.
120
What are extended-spectrum penicillins also called?
Antipseudomonal penicillins.
121
Give examples of extended-spectrum penicillins.
Carbenicillin, ticarcillin, and piperacillin.
122
What is piperacillin commonly combined with?
Tazobactam, forming piperacillin/tazobactam.
123
What is the major common adverse reaction to penicillins?
Hypersensitivity, ranging from rash to anaphylaxis.
124
Why can penicillins trigger hypersensitivity?
Penicillin or degradation products can covalently modify host proteins, forming antigenic complexes.
125
What penicillin can polymerize to form a potent antigen?
Ampicillin.
126
What is the core nucleus of cephalosporins?
7-aminocephalosporanic acid.
127
What cephalosporin structural feature must be free?
A free carboxyl at C-4, although it can be derivatized as an ester prodrug.
128
In cephalosporins, what does R1 affect?
Spectrum of activity and acid stability.
129
In cephalosporins, what does R2 affect?
Reactivity and acid stability.
130
How can cephalosporins become more beta-lactamase resistant?
Aromatic alkoximino groups on the side chain and replacing H-7 with OCH3 to form a cephamycin skeleton.
131
Which alkoximino configuration better blocks beta-lactamase attack?
The syn alkoximino isomer.
132
How are cephalosporins grouped?
By generations, based on time of discovery and spectrum of activity.
133
Describe first-generation cephalosporin spectrum.
Good Gram-positive activity except MRSA and MRSE; relatively modest Gram-negative activity.
134
Give examples of first-generation cephalosporins.
Cefazolin, cephalexin, and cefadroxil.
135
What is cefazolin commonly used for?
Parenteral prophylaxis before surgery.
136
What is cephalexin useful for?
Oral first-generation cephalosporin; good for UTIs; mostly excreted unchanged in urine.
137
Describe second-generation cephalosporin spectrum.
Usually covers first-generation susceptible organisms plus most strains of Haemophilus influenzae; more Gram-negative activity than first generation.
138
Give examples of second-generation cephalosporins.
Cefprozil, cefuroxime, and cefoxitin.
139
What is cefoxitin?
A cephamycin grouped with second-generation cephalosporins; has anaerobe and Gram-negative bacilli activity and good beta-lactamase resistance from C-7 OCH3.
140
What is cefuroxime’s key SAR and PK pearl?
It has a syn oxime ether for beta-lactamase resistance; the axetil ester prodrug improves oral absorption.
141
Describe third-generation cephalosporin spectrum.
Less Gram-positive activity than first generation but broader Gram-negative activity; some agents cover Pseudomonas.
142
Give examples of third-generation cephalosporins.
Cefdinir, ceftriaxone, and ceftazidime.
143
What is ceftriaxone’s major clinical pearl?
A widely used injectable cephalosporin with a very long half-life allowing once-daily dosing; used for pneumonia, meningitis, and gonorrhea.
144
Which third-generation cephalosporin has antipseudomonal activity?
Ceftazidime.
145
What renal pearl applies to ceftazidime?
Most is excreted unchanged by kidneys, and half-life is prolonged in renal impairment.
146
Describe fourth-generation cephalosporin spectrum.
Broad spectrum; Gram-positive activity similar to first generation, Gram-negative activity similar to third generation including Pseudomonas, and broad beta-lactamase resistance.
147
What is the major fourth-generation cephalosporin example?
Cefepime.
148
What makes cefepime useful for Gram-negative organisms?
A quaternary amine helps access Gram-negative bacteria, and it has broad beta-lactamase resistance.
149
What is cefepime often used for?
Nosocomial infections and bacterial meningitis due to good CSF access and high concentrations.
150
Describe fifth-generation cephalosporin spectrum.
Broad spectrum with Gram-positive activity similar to first generation, less Gram-negative activity than fourth generation against Pseudomonas, and MRSA activity.
151
What is the fifth-generation cephalosporin example from the lecture?
Ceftaroline fosamil, a prodrug of ceftaroline.
152
What infections is ceftaroline fosamil approved for in the lecture?
Community-acquired bacterial pneumonia and acute bacterial skin infections.
153
What is a monobactam?
A beta-lactam that is not fused to another ring.
154
What is the main monobactam example?
Aztreonam.
155
What is aztreonam’s spectrum?
Narrow spectrum against many aerobic Gram-negative bacteria, with no activity against anaerobes or Gram-positive organisms.
156
What is aztreonam lysine used for?
Inhaled therapy for Pseudomonas aeruginosa in cystic fibrosis patients.
157
What are the two strategies for dealing with beta-lactamases?
Avoidance: alter the antibiotic so it is not a substrate. Neutralization: give a beta-lactamase inhibitor with a beta-lactam antibiotic.
158
What is clavulanic acid?
A prototype Class I beta-lactamase inhibitor with weak antibacterial action that inhibits many beta-lactamases.
159
What combination contains clavulanate?
Amoxicillin/clavulanate.
160
What does clavulanate do for amoxicillin?
It extends amoxicillin’s life by inhibiting beta-lactamases so amoxicillin can reach PBPs.
161
What are sulbactam and tazobactam?
Synthetic Class I beta-lactamase inhibitors with weak antibiotic activity that potentiate beta-lactam antibiotics.
162
What combination contains sulbactam?
Ampicillin/sulbactam, parenteral.
163
What combination contains tazobactam?
Piperacillin/tazobactam, parenteral.
164
Which inhibitor is better for Pseudomonas beta-lactamases: sulbactam or tazobactam?
Tazobactam; sulbactam is not good against Pseudomonas beta-lactamases.
165
What are carbapenems used as?
Broad-spectrum beta-lactam antibiotics, not mainly as beta-lactamase inhibitors.
166
Give carbapenem examples from the lecture.
Imipenem, meropenem, and ertapenem.
167
What is imipenem’s key spectrum and resistance pearl?
Extremely broad spectrum; stable to most serine beta-lactamases and inhibits many Gram-negative beta-lactamases.
168
Why is imipenem coadministered with cilastatin?
Cilastatin inhibits renal dehydropeptidase-1, preventing imipenem breakdown and extending its half-life.
169
What is cilastatin?
A reversible competitive inhibitor of renal DHP-1; it is not an antibiotic.
170
What notable adverse effect is associated with imipenem?
Seizures in about 2% of patients in the lecture.
171
How does meropenem compare with imipenem?
Very broad spectrum, greater in vitro antipseudomonal activity, fewer seizure reports, and does not require cilastatin.
172
What beta-lactamases can meropenem fail against?
Metallo-beta-lactamases and carbapenemases.
173
Does meropenem cover MRSA?
No.
174
What is Vabomere?
Meropenem plus vaborbactam, a non-beta-lactam beta-lactamase inhibitor.
175
What is ertapenem’s major spectrum limitation?
It is not active against Pseudomonas aeruginosa or Acinetobacter species.
176
What is ertapenem’s dosing pearl?
Once-daily 1 g dosing due to long half-life and high protein binding.
177
When should ertapenem not be substituted for other carbapenems?
When the treatment target is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
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