CE 476 Air Pollution Control Final

184 flashcardsby Sarah
Study these flashcardsFree · spaced repetition · iPhone, Android, Mac & web

All cards

1
what are commons?
a resource used by many but owned by none
2
what is an externality?
a factor not priced in the market; a consequence experienced by third parties not involved in a market transaction
3
what is market failure?
market fails to efficiently allocate resources (e.g. market is incapable of pricing an externality)
4
what are the key components of air pollution problems?
1. generation, prevention, and control of pollutants
2. transport, chemical transformation, and deposition
3. their effects
5
what are the two main classifications of emission sources?
anthropogenic (caused by humans) and non-anthropogenic
6
what are the five different types of anthropogenic emission sources?
stationary, mobile, transporation, fugitive emissions, and indoor air pollution
7
what are some examples of stationary sources?
power plants, boilers, incinerators, refineries, heaters, ovens, kilns, dryers
8
heat rate is the ratio of ______ to ______
thermal energy input, net electric output
9
lower heating value is enthalpy of reaction for combustion of guel when exhaust H2O is ___
a vapor
10
what are the two types of mobile sources?
on-road and non-road
11
what is the danger of temperature inversion?
there is no vertical mixing which traps the air pollutants lower in the earth
12
what are some examples of fugitive emissions?
leaks from pipes, valves, and seals, and dust from construction
13
what are some sources of indoor air pollution?
paints, cleaners, chemicals, stoves/ovens, heaters/fireplaces
14
what is a primary pollutant?
a pollutant that is directly emitted to the atmosphere (ex. sulfur dioxide)
15
what is a secondary pollutant?
a pollutant that is formed in the atmosphere (ex. ozone, sulfuric acid)
16
what is a precursor?
a reactant that leads to the formation of a secondary pollutant (ex. sulfure dioxide is a precursor to sulfuric acid)
17
what are criteria air pollutants & examples?
ambient concentrations are regulated under national ambient air quality standards (NAAQS), ex: sulfure dioxide, NOx, CO, PM, lead, VOCs, and ozone
18
what are hazardous air pollutants & examples?
air pollutants regulated under the national emission standards for hazardous air pollutants (NESHAPs), ex: benzene, asbestos, phosphoric acid, polymers and resins
19
what are examples of GHGs?
CO2, CH4, N2O, fluorinated gases
20
what are the health effects of SO2?
eye, nose, throat irritation, absorbs into upper respiratory system
21
what are the health effects of NOx?
adverse effects on respiratory system (asthma)
22
what are the health effects of CO?
CO binds with hemoglobin which restricts the transport of O2 to organs and can lead to death
23
what are the health effects of PM?
respiratory and cardiovascular disease, cancer, death, nervoous system effects
24
what are the health effects of VOCs?
many are known/suspected carcinogens
25
what are the four catergories of air pollution regulations?
command and control, air-quality standards, risk-based standards, market-based approaches
26
what is command and control in terms of air pollution regulations?
technology-based typically in the form of emission limites, design, equipment, work pratice, or fuel/feedstock composition (ex: new source performance standards - NSPS which applies to different industrial plants)
27
what emission processes are under vehicle emission standards?
exhaust emissions and evaporative emissions (fueling and running losses)
28
which types mobile sources have emission standards?
on-road, non-road, and aviation
29
what are the advantages of command and control?
easy to implement and enforce as it applies uniformly to all sources
30
what are the disadvantages of command and control?
not flexibile, not always cost effective, and doesn't consider interactions between pollutants
31
what are air quality standards in terms of air pollutant regulations?
health-based standards dictated by effects, not emission sources set to protect the vulnerable subpopulations (ex: NAAQS and criteria pollutants)
32
what is the difference between primary and secondary standards for air quality standards?
primary standards prevent adverse effects on human health and secondary standards focus on vegetation and property damage
33
how are permits issued for air quality standards?
new source review (NSR) - ensures that air quality is not significantly impacted from new/modified source
34
what permit is required for a new/modified stationary source in an attainment area?
prevention of significant deterioration (PSD)
35
what are the requirements for PSD permits?
best available control technology (BACT), air quality analysis, additional impacts analysis, public involvement, and cannot violate NAAQS or PSD increment
36
what is a PSD increment?
max allowable increase in conc that is allowed to occur above a baseline conc for a pollutant
37
what are the requirements for nonattainment NSR permits?
lowest acheivable emission rate (LAER), offsets from other sources, opportunity for public involvement
38
what are the advantages of air quality standards?
protects public health and there is some flexibility with control options
39
what are the disadvantages of air quality standards?
complicated and lack of enforcement
40
what are risk-based standards in terms of air pollutant regulations?
US specific, in line with NESHAP, using maximum achievable control technology (MACT)
41
what are the two phases of risk-based standards?
1. technology-based: MACT
2. evaluate residual risl
42
what are the advantages of risk-based standards?
equity to exposed populations and address health effects
43
what are the disadvantages of risk-based standards?
uncertainty and inequity in exposure & risk based on race, socioeconomic status, ethnicity
44
what are market-based approaches in terms of air pollutant regulations?
impose an emission cap over a number of sources, create a market for permits and allow trading, enable least-cost system-wide emissions reduction (cap & trade)
45
what are the advantages of market-based approaches?
cost-effectiveness and flexible for emitters
46
what are the disadvantages of market-based approaches?
complexity and inequity to exposed populations
47
what is the role of emission factors?
relate quantity of pollutant emitted to the activity associated the the release of the pollutant
48
what is the EF equation?
EF = EI/AF where EI is emission inventory (mass of pollutant) and AF is activity factor (mass of source)
49
what is the EF controlled equation?
EF controlled = EF uncontrolled (1-n control)
50
what is precision?
repeatability of a measurement
51
what is accuracy?
proximity of the average of repeated measurements to the true value of the quantity
52
what is variability?
real differences in values of a quantity among members of a population (frequency distribution)
53
what is uncertainty?
lack of knowledge regarding the true value of a quantity (probability distribution)
54
what is representativeness?
if a EF can be used for multiple scenarios (ex: EF for a diesel truck as an estimate for a NG PP)
55
what are sources of variability?
differences in design and operation conditions, coal composition
56
what are sources of uncertainty?
random error and systematic error
57
what is the definition of a confidence interval for a mean?
an interval that encloses the true mean with confidence p
58
what are the strengths of EFs?
screening studies, lack of theoretical basis, and avg of many emission sources
59
what are the limitations of EFs?
based on data from a small pop of similar plants, not useful for single source emissions, representativeness, variability, uncertainty
60
does the fuel to air ratio vary for different fuels?
yes
61
what does the fuel to air ratio determine?
operational condition at given combustion
62
if equivalence ratio = 1,
operating @ stoiciometric conditions
63
if equivalence ratio < 1
less fuel, more air - fuel lean/excess air combustion
64
if equivalence ratio > 1
more fuel, less air - fuel rich/insufficient air combustion - incomplete combustion (produces CO, HCs)
65
what are the five types of energy?
kinetic (1/2mv^2), potential (mgh), work, heat, internal
66
which types of energy are path independent?
kinetic, potential, internal
67
which types of energy are path dependent?
work and heat
68
what are the three molecular energies that make up internal energy?
translation, rotation, vibration
69
what is an extensive state function & ex?
depends on the amount of material (internal energy (U) or enthalpy (H))
70
what is an intensive state function & ex?
does not depend on mass or size (specific internal energy (u) or specific enthalpy (h))
71
heat transfer is defined as positive from _____ to ____
surroundings, system
72
work is defined as positive from ___ to ____
system, surroundings
73
what is the energy balance for a closed system?
delta U + delta Ek + delta Ep = Q - W
74
what is the energy balance for a steady-flow system?
delta U = Q - W
75
what does enthalpy indicate?
total heat content of a system
76
H =
U + PV
77
delta H =
Q - Ws
78
enthalpy is ___ for pure elements
zero
79
what is sensible enthalpy?
change in enthalpy associated with a change in temperature (feel)
80
what is the enthalpy of formation?
enthalpy of rxn for formation of a compound from elemental species
81
what are the two components of enthalpy?
sensible enthalpy and enthalpy of formation
82
what is heating value?
heat released from combustion process
83
what is the higher heating value?
heat of rxn when all warer is present as liquid
84
what are the components of chemical equilibrium?
static condition, absence of change, absence of any tendency for change, absence of any driving force for change, all forces for change in balance, achieved given sufficient time for rxns to occur
85
an entropy change of zero can be achieved only by a ______ process
reversible
86
every process proceeds in a direction such that total entropy change is _____
positive
87
what is entropy?
measure of disorder of system and it is an extensive state function
88
what is the definition of a reversible process?
the direction of a chemical rxn can be reversed at any point by an infinitesimal change in external conditions
89
what is the definition of gibbs free energy?
amt of useful work a system can perform at given T&P
90
gibbs free energy eqn
G = H - TS
91
when dG < 0, the rxn is
spontaneous
92
when dG > 0, the rxn is
non-spontaneous
93
when dG = 0, the rxn is
@ equilibrium and reversible
94
define chemical potential
chemical energy that can be producedeacted for a given chemical species
95
if Kp = 1
@ equilibrium aka same amt of reactants and products
96
if Kp << 1, equilibrium favors _____
reactants
97
if Kp >> 1, equilibrium favors _____
products
98
for an ideal gas, mole fraction and partial pressure are ____
the same
99
at a given T, what happens to Kp?
stays constant
100
delta hr < 0 when the rxn is _____
exothermic
101
delta hr > 0 when the rxn is _____
endothermic
102
reactions that are exothermic shift towards ___ when T is increased
reactants
103
reactions that are endothermic shift towards ___ when T is increased
products
104
why might equilibrium not be achieved?
residence time < time required to reach equilibrium
105
what is the role of collisions?
they are necessary conditions for rxns, but insufficient for rxn on its own
106
what are the three conditions for a rxn?
collision, sufficient energy to break bonds (activation energy), orientation and shape of molecules
107
what is an intermediate in chemical kinetics?
step in which kinetic energy of original molecules is just converted into potential energy to break chemical bonds
108
delta hr =
Ea,f - Ea,r
109
if delta hr > 0, the rxn is
endothermic
110
if delta hr < 0, the rxn is
exothermic
111
what is an elementary process?
simple event in which some kind of transformation occurs (ex: two molecules colliding and reacting)
112
what are the three types of elementary processes?
unimolecular (R=k[A]), bimolecular (R=k[A][B]), termolecular (R=k[A][B][C])
113
what is the induction period (ignition delay)?
time period during which slow initiation reactions result in build-up of radicals, prior to the onset of rapid radical chemistry
114
what is characterized by chain carrying rxns?
# of radicals produced = # of radicals consumed
115
chain branching does what in regards to radicals?
produce more radicals than consumed (@ beginning)
116
chain termination does what in regards to radicals?
consumes radicals, produces none (@ end)
117
what are the properties of a chain termination rxn?
exothermic, may require energy exchange w a third molecule, and relatively slow
118
what are the four strokes of a four-stroke internal combustion engine?
1. intake
2. compression
3. power
4. exhaust
119
what does compression stroke do?
raises temp and pressure
120
what is the power stroke?
ignition delay/induction period
121
___ formation is kinetically constrained, ___ formation is not kinetically constained
NOx, CO
122
___and ___ are frozen by rapid cooling
NOx, CO
123
___and ___ exceed exhaust gas equilibrium levels
NOx, CO
124
in a fuel-rich mode, ___ will reult from incomplete combustion
CO
125
what are the three sources of HC emission in mobile source emissions?
exhaust (unburned HCs), crankcase, and evaporative
126
how does a port fuel injection (PFI) engine work?
air and fuel are pre-mixed in the intake air manifold and introduced to cylinder via an intake valve
127
how does a gas direct injection (GDI) engine work?
fuel is directly injected into the cylinder
128
what are five ways to prevent and control mobile source emissions?
1. modify vehicle operation
2. modify engine design
3. exhaust gas treatment
4. modify fuel
5. maintenance
129
when T is low ___ is a product of incomplete combustion
HC
130
what are the three ways to measure mobile source exhaust emissions?
dynamometer, site specific, portable emissions measurement system (PEMS)
131
what is vehicle specific power (VSP) an indicator of?
engine tractive power demand
132
what are some approaches to VOC prevention and control?
substitutioneformulation, work practices, modify processes, collection/capture, incineration, flaring, recovery through adsoption or condensation
133
what is the mechanism behind VOC incineration?
enclose concentration levels within which a compound will burn without continuous application of external heat
134
what is the reactions associated with VOC incineration?
VOC -> CO -> CO2
135
what are the three T's of combustion?
time, temp, turbulence (velocity)
136
carbon adsoprtion is a ____ process
separation
137
what is physical adsorption
weak bonding of gas molecules to a solid, exothermic: heat of vaporization
138
what is chemisorption?
actual chemical bonding, exothermic: heat of rxn
139
carbon adsorption is usually a ____ system
dual bed (one online - adsorption and one in regeneration - desorption)
140
carbon adsorption is sensitive to _____ _____ conditions
inlet stream
141
carbon adsorption may require
particle filtration and dehumidification
142
_____ are the exception to carbon adsorption
ketones
143
what are the three ways pollutants can be formed in combustion systems?
impurities in fuels, incomplete combustion, combustion process
144
list the coal classifications from highest hardness to lowest hardness, highest fixed C to lowest fixed C, lowest ot highest moisture, and highest to lowest heating value
lignite, subbituminous, bituminous, anthracite
145
For which of the following years was the Clean Air Act **not** passed or amended?
  • 1997
  • 1977
  • 1963
  • 1970
  • 1990
146
when are emissions standards used?
when it is practicel to achieve the same degree of control among all members of an emissions class
147
describe the emissions tax approach
improves the allocation of emissions control expenditures
148
describe the cost-benefit approach
informs decisions regarding how much should we spend to avoid damages
149
describe the air quality standards approach
protects human health from the adverse effects of exposure to ambient air pollution
150
Which of the following factors may need to be considered when quantifying a mass balance for combustion of a fuel, the amount of air needed for combustion, and the products of combustion (choose all that apply)?
  • Conversion of hydrogen in the fuel to H2O
  • Fate of trace elements in the fuel
  • Production of nitrogen oxides

  • Formation of products of incomplete combustion
  • Conversion of carbon in the fuel to CO2
151
Which of the following quantities are related to the fuel/air ratio (choose all that apply):
  • equivalence ratio
  • percent theoretical air
  • percent excess air
  • fuel heating value
  • stoichiometric ratio
152
The “extent” of a reaction is a non-dimension indicator of (choose all that apply):
  • The relative proportion of temperature change
  • How much of each reactant is consumed
  • How much enthalpy changes during a reaction
  • How much of each product is produced
  • The change in Gibbs Free Energy
153
For an endothermic reaction (for which the enthalpy of reaction is positive), what will happen to the equilibrium constant, Kp, as temperature increases?
Kp will increase
154
Insurance and safety regulations limit the maximum VOC concentration in the inlet stream below _____ of the lower explosive limit of the VOC.
25%
155
what are adsorption isotherms?
the mass of VOC adsorbed versus the VOC partial pressure at equilibrium
156
which of the following is not a characteristic/component of a natural gas fired combined cycle power plant?
  • brayton cycle
  • rankine cycle
  • heat recovery steam generator
  • 35% net efficiency
  • steam turbine
157
the adiabatic flame temp is ____ for stoichiometric versus excess air complete combustion, assuming all other conditions remain the same
higher
158
which of the following most accurately describes the condition of chemical equilibrium?
  • no heat loss
  • no potential energy
  • no enthalpy of rxn
  • no rxns taking place
  • no net change in gibbs free energy
159
which of the following gas specieis formation is favored by high temp?
  • H2O
  • CO2
  • CO
  • N2
  • O2
160
which of the following chemical rxn rate corresponds to a biomolecular elementary process?
  • R = k[A]
  • R = k[A]^2
  • R = k[A]^2[B]
  • R = k[A][B][C]
  • none of the above
161
which of the following is the overal rxn rate for a 2-step rxn?
2 NO -> N2O2 (fast step)
N2O2 + O2 -> 2NO2 (slow step)
  • k[N2O2]
  • k[NO]^2
  • k[NO2]^2
  • k[N2O2][O2]
  • k[NO2][N2O2][O2]
162
what is the outlet concentration of a hydrocarbon if it enters a combustor at 80 gmol/m^3 and is destroyed via a first-order rxn with a kinetic rate constant of 5 s^-1 and a residence time of 0.2s
29 gmol/m^3
163
which mode of operation is NOT included in the international civil aviation organization for aircraft emissions?
  • cruise
  • approach
  • climb out
  • idle
  • taxi
164
the source category that emits the largest share of CO emissions in the US based on data in 2024:
  • transportation
  • electric power plant
  • industrial plant
  • wildfires
  • solvent use, transport, and storage
165
which of the following pollutants is a precursor to ground-level ozone formation
  • NOx
  • CO2
  • PM
  • SO2
166
what is the key reason that motor vheicle fuels have low sulfur content?
to protect catalytic control devices from degradation or poisoning
167
which of the following pollutants has the largest global warming potential
  • CFC
  • CH4
  • CO2
  • CO
  • N2O
168
for which standard is it illegal for the us epa to take cost into consideration when settling the standards
  • BACT
  • MACT
  • NAAQS
  • NESHAP
  • NSPS
169
to get a permit for SO2 emissions from a new major stationary source in a NAAQS nonattainment area, which of the following is required
  • BACT
  • LAER
  • MACT
  • PSD
170
which of the following is a source of variability in an emission factor
  • biased sampling
  • random sampling error
  • sample size
  • systematic error from instrument
  • operating conditions
171
which of the following is the major energy source for US transportation based on data in 2023?
  • petroleum
  • coal
  • NG
  • biomass
172
a fuel has 60 weight percent of carbon and 15 percent ash. what is its equivalent molecular weight?
12 g / gmol C
173
the equivalence ratio for combustion of a fuel is 0.92. this is what type of combustion
fuel lean
174
the appropriate energy balance for a steady-flow system with no shaft work is
  • delta H = Q
  • delta H = Q-W
  • delta U = Q-W
175
SO2 is an example of which of the following type(s) of pollutant:
  • criteria
  • primary
  • inorganic
  • HAP
  • none of these
176
The source category that emits the largest share of anthropogenic NOx emissions in the U.S.,
based on data in 2024:
  • electric power plant
  • industrial plant
  • transportation
  • solvent use, storage, and transport
  • wildfires
177
A company wants to permit a new source in a NAAQS attainment area. Which of the following
requirement(s) is (are) required?
  • BACT
  • MACT
  • LAER
  • residual risk
178
The Toxic Release Inventory is an example of what type of program?
  • emission standard
  • air quality standard
  • risk based standard
  • market based approach
  • public right to know
179
Work, heat, kinetic energy, potential energy, and internal energy can all be quantified in what units
Joules (J)
180
Internal energy includes which of the following:
  • translation of molecules
  • vibration of molecules
  • rotation of molecules
  • (a), (b), and (c)
  • none of these choices
181
The heat released to create a compound at standard temperature and pressure from its constituent elements in their predominate form at standard temperature and pressure is:
  • enthalpy of reaction
  • enthalpy of formation
  • specific enthalpy
  • sensible enthalpy
182
Enthalpy includes which of the following
  • internal energy
  • work associated with fluid flow
  • potential energy
  • kinetic energy
  • heat transfer
  • shaft work
183
the specific enthalpy of N2 @ STP is
0 Jmol
184
Which of the following factors affect the chemical reaction rate of an elementary process?
  • Gibbs free energy
  • temperature
  • shape of molecules
  • size of molecules
  • orientation of molecules
  • activation energy
  • enthalpy
Study all 184 cards for free