Instrument Ground

Select the true statement regarding flight rules terminology.

Select the true statement regarding flight simulation.

You may log instrument time for all the flight time during which you operate the airplane under IFR.

A person acting as a safety pilot must meet which requirement?

What are the recency of experience requirements to act as PIC under IFR? (Within the preceding six months)

What are the recency of experience requirements to act as PIC under IFR? (Within the preceding two months in simulator)

Under what (4) conditions may you use an FFS, FTD, or ATD to meet recency of experience requirements to act as PIC under IFR?

It is January 1st. Under which of these circumstances must you complete an instrument proficiency check to be current to act as PIC under IFR? During the last 12 calendar months you performed:

Which are limitations when acting as pilot in command under the BasicMed rule?

Explain the difference between the cone and rod cells of the retina.

What techniques can be used to see objects better at night?

List at least three actions you can take to preserve and improve your night vision.

What is the term for the visual illusion of movement that occurs when you stare at a fixed light against a dark background for more than a few seconds?

Which is true regarding landing illusions?

Name the three primary sensory sources that provide you with an awareness of your body's position in space.

Explain why your vestibular system does not sense any motion during a prolonged constant-rate turn.

Name at least two ways to help prevent or alleviate motion sickness.

Hypoxic Hypoxia

inadequate supply of oxygen

Hypemic Hypoxia

the inability of the blood to carry oxygen

Stagnant Hypoxia

Insufficient blood circulation of oxygen

Histotoxic Hypoxia

Hypoxia caused by alcohol, drugs, or poisons

What are the supplemental oxygen requirements?

Select the true statement regarding high-altitude training.

Select the true statement regarding ear and sinus block during flight.

How would you treat a passenger who is suffering from hyperventilation?

In addition to pressure effects and motion sickness, name at least three factors that can impair your fitness for flight.

Select the true statement regarding alcohol.

OSUN

ANDS

What flight instruments are required for flight under IFR?

Name the gyroscopic flight instruments.

Which flight instrument gives you an instantaneous display of both pitch and bank information ?

True/False. The gyroscopic instruments are the only flight instruments that provide
bank information.

Why is the turn coordinator a good backup for the attitude and heading indicators in most small airplanes?

What is the approximate bank angle required to maintain a standard-rate turn at 90 knots?

How do you calculate required bank angle for a standard-rate turn?

How long does it take to make a 360 degree standard-rate turn?

Assume the pilot is applying rudder pressure in the direction of the turn. Which turn coordinator shows too much rudder pressure being used for the amount of bank?

9. Assume the pilot is applying rudder pressure in the direction of the turn. Which turn coordinator shows too little rudder pressure being used for the amount of bank?

What condition leads to unreliable operation of the heading indicator and attitude indicator?

What should you use to correct for magnetic deviation?

During a compass turn, what heading should you use for roll-out if making a right turn to a heading of 360° degrees at a latitude of 45°N? Assume you are using a 16° bank angle.

$V_{LO}$

$V_{A}$

$V_{S1}$

indicated altitude

The altitude you read from the altimeter

pressure altitude

Altitude displayed on the altimeter when it is set to 29.92 or above 18,000ft

density altitude

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature

true altitude

Actual height of an object above mean sea level

How does colder-than-standard temperature affect the relationship between indicated altitude and true altitude?

What does the airpseed indicator show if the ram air is clogged?

What happens to the airspeed indicator when the ram air and drain hole become plugged

What is the acronym to remember common in-flight illusions?

ICEFLAGS

Narrow runway illusion + approach

Wide runway

Upsloping runway

Down sloping runway

What are the names of the three semicircular canals in the vestibular system?

To fly IFR in uncontrolled airspace, which of the following is NOT required?

If you have a current medical certificate but suddenly develop a condition like heart palpitations, what is your legal obligation?

.Describe the function of the AHRS.

Select the true statement regarding the digital attitude indicator.

What information is provided by the trend vector on the HSI?

If the AHRS detects a problem with the integrity of the sensor information, what occurs?

Select the true statement about the ADC.

What is true about the indications on the altimeter?

Describe how the electronic flight display system compensates for a screen failure of the PFD.

An enhanced flight vision system (EFVS) can be displayed on a PFD.

Describe at least three functions of a typical MFD.

Select the true statement regarding autopilot operation.

What acronym helps you to remember the minimum required instruments and equipment for IFR flight?

GRABCARD

What is the Lead/lag equation?

What causes a slip?

What causes a skid?

Compass Variation

Compass Deviation

Calibrated airspeed

A standard rate turn is how many degrees per second?

What is responsible for most significant compass errors?

What four conditions must be met to fly in IMC within controlled airspace according to FAR 91.173?

What is the key difference regarding ATC clearance when flying in IMC in uncontrolled airspace versus controlled airspace?

What is the colloquial name for FAR 91.13, which prohibits operating an aircraft in a manner that endangers life or property?

For the purpose of instrument currency, if a pilot has not met the recency requirements in the last six calendar months, what is the next period of time called where they can regain currency with a safety pilot?

If a pilot's instrument currency has lapsed for more than 12 calendar months, what must they complete to act as PIC under IFR?

"To log an instrument approach in actual IMC, the pilot only needs to be in IMC until passing which point of the approach?"

"A safety pilot used for currency flights must be at least a private pilot with category and class ratings appropriate for the aircraft, but do they need to be instrument rated or current?"

"The _____ program at FAAsafety.gov is an effective way to maintain proficiency, and completing a phase can satisfy flight review requirements."

"What illusion occurs during a constant rate turn when a pilot moves their head too fast, creating a sensation of tumbling or turning on a different axis?

"A loss of altitude during a prolonged, constant-rate turn may be interpreted as a wings-level descent, leading to what dangerous illusion?

An abrupt correction from a bank can create the sensation of banking in the opposite direction. What is this illusion called?

The illusion of being in a nose-high attitude caused by rapid acceleration during straight-and-level flight is known as the _____ illusion.

"What is the term for the illusion caused by an abrupt change from a climb to straight-and-level flight, creating a feeling of tumbling backwards?"

"What type of hypoxia is caused by carbon monoxide poisoning, where the blood is unable to carry sufficient oxygen?"

"Oxygen deficiency due to poor circulation, such as from pulling excessive positive Gs, is known as what type of hypoxia?"

"The impairment of cells' ability to use oxygen, often caused by alcohol or drugs, results in which type of hypoxia?"

The 'D' in the DECIDE model for aeronautical decision-making stands for what?

In the DECIDE model, 'C' stands for 'Choose a desirable outcome.' What does the 'I' stand for?"

"What is the antidote for the hazardous attitude of Impulsivity (""Do it quickly"")?"

"The hazardous attitude of ""It won't happen to me"" is known as _____ and its antidote is ""It could happen to me."""

"What is the antidote for the hazardous attitude of Macho (""I can do it"")?"

"The hazardous attitude ""What's the use?"" is called Resignation. What is its antidote?"

What does PAVE stand for?

The 5P's checklist helps pilots assess risk throughout a flight. The 'Plan' P includes assessing what factors?

What illusion can cause a pilot to feel like they are moving when a nearby object, like an adjacent aircraft, begins to move?

"To avoid the autokinesis illusion at night, a pilot should..."

"A pilot is cleared to an altitude but the controller forgets about them, creating a conflict with another aircraft. This highlights the importance of not surrendering 100% of your authority to _____ for separation."

"When a pilot stares into a featureless sky, their eyes may relax and focus at a point only 50 feet in front of the aircraft. This phenomenon is known as...

"What is the penalty for falsifying information, such as not reporting a DUI, on an FAA medical application form?

"If you know of a medical condition that would make you unsafe to fly you are required by regulation to _____ yourself

What is the correct holding entry procedure when holding WEST of a VOR on the 270° radial with standard turns, approaching on a heading of 330°? (Ref: Fig 116)

What is the correct holding entry procedure when holding EAST of a VOR on the 090° radial with standard turns, approaching on a heading of 350°? (Ref: Fig 112)

What is the correct holding entry procedure when holding SOUTH of a VOR on the 180 radial with standard turns?

When holding on the 360° radial with standard (right) turns, what is the correct entry procedure?"

"Generally, controlled airspace in the continental U.S. begins at _____ feet AGL, and can be lowered to _____ feet AGL around airports."

Which of the following is an advantage of being on an IFR flight plan even in VMC?

If you are on an IFR clearance and ATC instructs you to fly a heading that takes you into Class B airspace, are you in violation?"

What are the three main components of the vestibular system located in the inner ear?

The semicircular canals are filled with a fluid called endolymph and are primarily responsible for sensing what type of motion?

The otolithic organs contain small crystals and are responsible for detecting what types of motion?

Flicker vertigo can be caused by light flickering at a rate between _____ and _____ flashes per second.

"An upsloping runway can create the illusion of being too _____, potentially causing a pilot to fly a _____-than-normal approach.

"A downsloping runway can create the illusion of being too _____, potentially causing a pilot to fly a _____-than-normal approach.

"What is the recommended wait time before ascending to 8,000 feet MSL after a scuba dive that did not require a controlled ascent?

Aviation regulations concerning alcohol use state you may not fly within 8 hours of consuming alcohol or with a blood alcohol level of _____% or greater.

What is the physiological term for the condition where the body does not receive enough oxygen?

"When turning from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn in the _____ direction."

"When turning from a southerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will initially indicate a turn in the _____ direction, but at a _____ rate than is actually occurring.

A standard rate turn is how many degrees per second?

What is responsible for most significant compass errors?

Equivalent airspeed is

Absolute altitude is

Modern electronic flight devices use what type of devices for the attitude and heading reference systems?

In an electronic flight display, what provides the information needed to display pitot and static source information?

In the correct sequence, name the three fundamental skills of attitude instrument flying.

Describe the three common instrument cross-check errors.

Instrument cross-check error Fixation:*\

Instrument cross-check error Omission:*\

Instrument cross-check error Emphasis:*\

Describe the two methods of attitude instrument flying.

As a rule of thumb, how should you correct an altitude discrepancies of less than 100 feet?

What action(s) should you take to maintain altitude if you reduce power to decrease airspeed in a level turn?

If you are cruising at 120 knots and want to establish a climb at 85 knots, you should make your initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until you observe what indication?

What actions should you take to enter a constant-airspeed descent from level-cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed?

Select the true statement regarding rate and radius of turn.

If leveling off from a 700 ft/min descent, begin the level off at approximately 70 feet before you reach the desired altitude.

Refer to the instrument panel image. What system has failed and what action should you take to return the airplane to straight-and-level flight?

What instrument has malfunctioned and what is the flight attitude?

Assume that the aircraft is level at 4000 at feet and the airspeed is 120 indicated. If only the inlet of the pitot tube freezes, what will the airspeed indicate.

If the pitot tube and pitot drain hole freeze, how will the airspeed indicator react?

If the pitot tube and drain port and the static port all freeze, how will the airspeed indicator react?

If only the static port freezes at 4000, how will the airspeed indicator be affected. Pick 2 answers.

If the static port freezes at 4000 feet, how will the altimeter react?

If the static source freezes at 4000 feet and you use alternate air, how will the airspeed indicator react.

If the static port freezes and you use alternate air, how will the altimeter react.

What displacement from course is indicated by this instrument when used in con-
junction with a VOR?

Why is it impossible for a horizontal situation indicator to provide reverse sensing when tuned to a VOR?

True/False. Station passage is indicated when the TO/FROM indicator first starts fluctuating.

Assume that you are 15 nautical miles from the VOR. Using these HSI indications and a 6,000-foot nautical mile, how far off course are you in degrees and nautical miles?

Refer to the following figure to match each navigation indicator with the appropriate
airplane position.

A

Refer to the following figure to match each navigation indicator with the appropriate
airplane position.

B

Refer to the following figure to match each navigation indicator with the appropriate
airplane position.

C

Refer to the following figure to match each navigation indicator with the appropriate
airplane position.

D

What is the maximum distance at which you can expect a reliable signal from a high altitude VOR. At what altitudes does this maximum range occur?

True/False. The maximum allowable error on a VOR check using a VOT is 4°

What is the maximum allowable difference when checking two VORs against each other?

True/False. When tuning a VOR and hearing the correct 1,020 Hz Morse code identifier signal, you are assured that both the VOR and DME are properly tuned and usable for navigation.

What is required navigation performance (RNP)?

What does RNP stand for?

To comply with RNP standards, you must operate within what distance of the centerline of a route, path, or procedure?

What is the wide area augmentation system (WAAS)?

Select the true statement regarding the requirements to use GPS equipment for IFR operations.

True/False. For domestic enroute and terminal IFR flights with a GPS receiver certified according to TSO-C129 or TSO-C196, the airplane must be equipped with alternate avionics necessary to receive the ground-based facilities appropriate for the route to the destination and to any required alternate.

Prior to using GPS for IFR operations, what actions must you take?

A full-scale deviation of the CDI of this HSI equals what cross-track error?

What does auto-sequencing mean?

True/False. To comply with AIM guidelines, you should plan any random routes to begin and end over arrival and departure transition fixes or navaids that are appropriate for the altitude that you will be flying. You should also define your route with a minimum of one waypoint for each air route traffic control center area that you pass through.

ATC asks you to report your position. Which of the following is correct?

What is true regarding your flight plan?

What is true regarding the navigation indications shown on this GPS display?

Which letter corresponds to the Side Stripe

Which letter corresponds to the Threshold Markings

Which letter corresponds to the Runway Centerline

Which letter corresponds to the Aiming point marking

Which letter corresponds to the Touchdown zone marking

True/false. Runway holding position signs are black with yellow inscriptions and yellow borders

Name the high intensity white strobe lights located laterally, one on each side of the runway threshold

VASI, on glide path

PAPI, slightly low

PAPI, on glide path

VASI, high

As you approach for landing, what color are the runway threshold lights? What color are they when departing the runway?

How many feet of runway remain when the centerline lights change from white to alternating red and white lights?

What is indicated when the airport beacon is illuminated during daylight hours?

There is no apparent relative motion when you see this pattern of lights from your airplane. What is the relationship of the other airplane to yours?

When should you turn on your aircraft's anti-collision lights?

Excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet ACL, ADS-B/Mode C transponder capability is required in all airspace (controlled or uncontrolled) of the contiguous states and the District of Columbia at and above what altitude?

What are the dimensions of Class A airspace?

That portion of the airspace within which ATC does not control air traffic

Airspace at and above 14,500 feet MSL over the 48 contiguous states, District of Columbia, and Alaska east of 1600 west longitude, but not including the airspace within 1,500 feet of the surface

An airspace segment that is normally 8 nautical miles wide and extends from 1,200 feet AGL (or in some cases higher) up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL

Airspace within which the requirements include an operating altitude-encoding transponder, an instrument-rated pilot, an IFR flight plan, and altimeters set to indicate pressure altitude.

Airspace within which equipment requirements include an operable VOR (for IFR operations), two-way radio capable of communicating with ATC, an ATC clearance, and a transponder with Mode C automatic altitude reporting

Airspace generally consisting of circular areas extending to 4,000 feet above the primary airport where the shelf area has a radius of 10 nautical miles, the core area has a radius of 5 nautical miles, and two-way radio communication is required

Airspace outside Class B or Class C airspace that normally extends from the surface up to 2,500 feet above the elevation of the airport and having charted, but possibly irregular, lateral dimensions at which a control tower is operating

What is the maximum indicated aircraft speed limit (in knots) below 2,500 feet when within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of a Class C airspace area?

True/False. Military training route flights are generally limited to operations under VFR

In December, what are the hours (in local time) when the airport is attended?

What type of approach lighting system and VGSI are installed on Runway 30?

How far is the threshold displaced on Runway 35?

What is the name of the approach/departure control facility that serves North Platte Regional Airport Lee Bird Field?

What is the frequency and identification for the ILS approach?

Select the information that you can obtain by referencing the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).

Explain the differences between NOTAM(D)s and FDC NOTAMs.

In what section of a Chart Supplement can you find information regarding runway incursion hot spots?

To accept a land and hold short clearance you must be at least a

If you stay on the glide path of a VASI, you are guaranteed obstruction clearance

How far down the runway do touchdown zone lights extend?

What is the minimum VFR separation from clouds in class C airspace?

When operating in Class C or D airspace, at or below 2500 from the surface and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport, what is the maximum operating speed?

What are two principles that are characteristic of all gyroscopes?

Reference a VOR, full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have

Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?

(Refer to Figure 240.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?

An ATC clearance is an authorization to proceed under specified conditions within what type of airspace?

If you deviate from a clearance due to an emergency, when must you notify ATC?

If ATC provides you with priority service because of an emergency, you may be required to submit a written report to the manager of that ATC facility within what time frame?

When are you required to see and avoid other aircraft?

True/False. To operate under IFR within controlled airspace, you must file an IFR flight plan and obtain an ATC clearance.

Regardless of weather conditions, you are required to file an IFR flight plan before you can legally fly within what class of airspace?

When will ATC issue a standard instrument departure (SID)?

True/False. When ATC issues a clearance with significant changes to your requested routing, you can expect an abbreviated clearance.

What is the significance of the following clearance: “…cruise 5,000”?

Before a contact approach is approved, the reported ground visibility must be at least what?

Select the true statement when cleared to fly VFR-on-top on an IFR flight.

When ATC issues a clearance void time in conjunction with a departure clearance, in what time frame must you depart?

You should read back all portions of an ATC clearance that contain what items?

DP

SID

ODP

DVA

What is the standard climb gradient established by TERPs?

How do you determine the necessary rate of climb to meet a required climb gradient for a departure when using Jeppesen charts? When using FAA charts?

List at least two differences between a SID and an ODP.

Select the true statement regarding vector and pilot navigation SIDs.

What is true regarding operations in a diverse vector area (DVA)?

What aircraft and ATC equipment is required to fly this SID?

When filing your flight plan, what code should you enter on the flight plan for the ILEXY 2 RNAV Departure with the ZENZI transition?

What is the MSA when departing KAUS?

What is the MORA in the area surrounding JAYJO?

If you depart Runway 17L, what heading should you fly during the initial climb?

Where does the basic portion of the ILEXY 2 RNAV Departure end?

With a groundspeed of 100 knots, what is the minimum climb gradient when taking off from Runway 35L?

What is runway visual range (RVR)?

List at least four items to include in a departure procedure briefing.

Unless a higher climb gradient is specified for the procedure, what is the standard climb gradient that your airplane must meet for IFR departure procedures?

What is a VCOA?

What is the recommended procedure if you do not wish to use a SID?

What is a true statement regarding flying this SID?

When taking off from Runway 29, what initial heading should you maintain and to what altitude?

What is the minimum altitude you should maintain at HONKR?

Which routing applies to the PACES transition?

True/False. If the controller states that you are “cleared” or “cleared via” the SID, you must comply with the lateral path of the SID and all published speed and altitude restrictions.

If you depart on a climb via clearance, which is true?

Where can you find textual ODPs published by the FAA?

True/False. You must be cleared by ATC to fly an ODP.

True/False. After the controller advises “radar contact,” you can assume that ATC provides terrain and obstruction clearance.

You have been vectored to an airway that is part of your ATC clearance, and departure control advises you to “resume own navigation.” What is meant by this term?

How do you convert ft/nm to climb rate?

When do you make a parallel entry?

When do you fly a teardrop entry?

When do you fly a direct entry?

Select the true statement regarding STARs.

You are planning to fly from Newcomerstown VOR/DME to Bellaire Air VOR/DME, then on course to WISKE, FEWGA, landing Runway 32. What computer code would you include in your flight plan?

At what point does the FEWGA FOUR ARRIVAL begin?

What frequency would you use to contact approach control?

Which is required to fly this STAR?

What altitude should you expect to be assigned at WISKE?

True /False. Your GPS equipment will not provide guidance for a turn to a course of 101° until you pass over GUINZ waypoint.

What direction are the turns of a nonstandard holding pattern?

If told to hold east of a VOR on the 090 degree radial, what will be the inbound heading to the fix once established in the hold?

Which of the following is an appropriate holding speed at 7000 msl?

Which of the following is a method for entering a holding pattern?

How long should the inbound leg be in minutes if you are holding below 14000 msl

True/False. Turns are made to the left in nonstandard holding patterns.

Above what altitude are the straight legs for a standard holding pattern one and a half minutes?

What is the speed limit in holding patterns below 6,000 feet MSL?

The first complete circuit of your standard holding pattern at 10,000 feet MSL takes a total of 3 minutes and 52 seconds. To achieve an inbound leg time of 1 minute on your next circuit, assuming there is no crosswind, approximately how many seconds should you fly outbound before turning?

Name the four segments of instrument approach procedures.