1What are the structural units that constitute living organisms?
Cells
2What separates the cytoplasm and cellular components from the extracellular environment?
Plasma membrane
3What is a semipermeable, flexible barrier that protects the cell and regulates substance exchange?
Plasma membrane
4What is the fluid lipid bilayer composed of phospholipids and cholesterol?
Plasma membrane
5What are the hydrophilic parts of phospholipids that face outward?
Hydrophilic heads
6What are the hydrophobic parts of phospholipids that face inward?
Hydrophobic tails
7What are unique surface antigens that identify blood cells at various stages?
CD markers
8What laboratory tool uses CD markers to aid in diagnosis?
Flow cytometry
9What membrane proteins span the entire lipid bilayer?
Transmembrane proteins
10What membrane proteins are located only on the cytoplasmic side?
Cytoskeletal proteins
11What membrane proteins function as channels, transporters, receptors, and adhesion molecules?
Transmembrane proteins
12What membrane proteins provide structural integrity and vertical support to the membrane?
Cytoskeletal proteins
13What can genetic mutations in membrane proteins cause, resulting in shortened RBC lifespan and hemolytic anemia?
Compromised membrane stability
14What disorder is associated with membrane stability defects?
Hereditary spherocytosis
15What protective outer layer is formed by carbohydrate chains on the cell surface?
Glycocalyx
16What functions in cell-to-cell recognition and adhesion and provides a negative surface charge?
Glycocalyx
17What are the three major types of transport across the plasma membrane?
Passive transport, active transport, and vesicular transport
18What type of transport moves substances along concentration gradients without using energy?
Passive transport
19What type of passive transport moves small nonpolar molecules such as O₂ and CO₂?
Simple diffusion
20What type of passive transport uses transmembrane channels or carriers?
Facilitated diffusion
21What channels are specifically used for transporting water?
Aquaporins
22What is the movement of water from low to high solute concentration across a membrane?
Osmosis
23What test demonstrates osmotic behavior in RBCs?
Osmotic fragility test
24What type of transport moves molecules against their concentration gradients using energy?
Active transport
25What type of active transport uses ATP hydrolysis to drive pumps?
Primary active transport
26What pump maintains high K⁺ and low Na⁺ inside RBCs?
Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase
27What type of active transport uses the energy from one molecule moving down its gradient to move another molecule against its gradient?
Secondary active transport
28What type of secondary active transport moves both molecules in the same direction?
Symport
29What type of secondary active transport moves molecules in opposite directions?
Antiport
30What type of transport uses membrane-bound vesicles to move macromolecules?
Vesicular transport
31What process expels substances from the cell through vesicle fusion with the plasma membrane?
Exocytosis
32What process engulfs substances into the cell by forming vesicles from the plasma membrane?
Endocytosis
33What process involves nonspecific uptake of extracellular fluid in small vesicles?
Pinocytosis
34What process is known as “cell drinking”?
Pinocytosis
35What process involves engulfing large particles using pseudopods and forming a phagosome?
Phagocytosis
36What process is known as “cell eating”?
Phagocytosis
37What cells perform phagocytosis?
Neutrophils and macrophages
38What process involves highly specific uptake of ligands bound to membrane receptors?
Receptor-mediated endocytosis
39What structures form during receptor-mediated endocytosis and become endosomes?
Clathrin-coated pits
40What protein-bound substance is taken up through transferrin receptor 1?
Transferrin-bound iron
41What is essential for survival, coordination, and regulation of cellular processes?
Cell communication
42What type of communication occurs through gap junctions?
Direct contact signaling
43What type of signaling occurs through direct cell-to-cell contact?
Contact-dependent or juxtacrine signaling
44What type of signaling occurs when a cell targets itself?
Autocrine signaling
45What type of signaling affects nearby cells?
Paracrine signaling
46What type of signaling uses hormones traveling through the bloodstream to distant cells?
Endocrine signaling
47What substances can act as ligands, including hormones, neurotransmitters, peptides, and small molecules?
Ligands
48What proteins receive signals from ligands?
Receptors
49Where can receptors be located?
Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, or nucleus
50What type of ligands can cross the plasma membrane and bind intracellular receptors?
Hydrophobic ligands
51What type of ligands require transmembrane receptors to initiate signaling?
Hydrophilic ligands
52What begins a signal transduction pathway when it binds to a specific receptor?
Ligand or first messenger
53What molecules are produced by effector enzymes during signal transduction?
Second messengers
54What are examples of second messengers?
cAMP, IP₃, DAG, Ca²⁺, and cGMP
55What receptors open ion channels when a ligand binds?
Ion channel-linked receptors
56What receptors have seven transmembrane domains and associate with G-proteins?
G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs)
57What are the three subunits of G-proteins?
α, β, and γ subunits
58What receptors are single-pass transmembrane proteins that can activate tyrosine kinases or JAK2?
Enzyme-linked receptors
59What is an example of an enzyme-linked receptor found on stem cells?
FLT3
60What is an example of an enzyme-linked receptor found on erythroid precursors?
Erythropoietin receptor
61What specialized transmembrane receptors are involved in cell signaling and adhesion?
Cell adhesion molecules (CAMs)
62What are the types of cell adhesion molecules?
Integrins, selectins, mucins, immunoglobulin-type CAMs, and leucine-rich CAMs
63What CAM subtype is composed of α and β subunits?
Integrins
64What type of integrin signaling occurs when ligand binding causes cytoskeletal changes?
Outside-in signaling
65What type of integrin signaling occurs when intracellular activation changes extracellular binding ability?
Inside-out signaling
66What cells contain integrins important for adhesion, mobility, and survival?
Platelets and hematopoietic cells
67What ensures DNA is replicated once and equally distributed to two daughter cells?
Cell cycle
68What is the first main stage in which the cell grows and prepares for DNA synthesis?
G1 phase
69What is the stage in which DNA and centrosomes replicate and sister chromatids form?
S phase
70What is the stage that checks for DNA errors or incomplete replication?
G2 phase
71What is the stage in which the cell divides into two identical daughter cells?
M phase or mitosis
72What is the non-dividing resting phase of the cell cycle?
G0 phase
73What three phases make up interphase?
G1, S, and G2
74What mitotic phase involves chromosome condensation and spindle fiber formation?
Prophase
75What mitotic phase involves nuclear envelope disassembly and spindle attachment to chromatids?
Prometaphase
76What mitotic phase involves chromatids aligning at the spindle equator?
Metaphase
77What mitotic phase involves chromatids separating and moving to opposite poles?
Anaphase
78What mitotic phase involves nuclear membrane reformation and spindle disassembly?
Telophase
79What process divides the cytoplasm and forms two daughter cells?
Cytokinesis
80What checkpoint monitors nutrients and cell size during late G1?
Restriction point
81What checkpoint checks for DNA damage and may halt the cell cycle or induce apoptosis?
G1 checkpoint
82What checkpoint ensures complete and undamaged DNA replication?
S checkpoint
83What checkpoint verifies replication accuracy before mitosis?
G2 checkpoint
84What checkpoint ensures chromosomes are correctly attached and aligned?
Metaphase checkpoint
85What proteins activate cyclin-dependent kinases to regulate cell-cycle transitions?
Cyclins
86What enzymes are activated by cyclins to regulate cell-cycle transitions?
Cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs)
87What cyclin-CDK combination regulates the G1-to-S transition?
Cyclin D + CDK4/6 and Cyclin E + CDK2
88What cyclin-CDK combination functions during the S stage?
Cyclin A + CDK2
89What cyclin-CDK combination regulates the G2-to-M transition?
Cyclin B + CDK1
90What helps control cell-cycle stage progression by removing cyclins?
Cyclin degradation
91What tumor suppressor detects DNA damage and regulates CDKs?
TP53
92What type of cell death is caused by injury such as ischemia, trauma, toxins, or infections?
Necrosis
93What type of cell death involves cell swelling, membrane damage, and enzyme leakage?
Necrosis
94What type of cell death triggers an inflammatory response because cellular contents are released?
Necrosis
95What is programmed cell death initiated by internal or external signals?
Apoptosis
96What process removes unneeded, aging, or damaged cells and maintains cellular balance?
Apoptosis
97What type of cell death causes cell shrinkage and nuclear fragmentation while maintaining an intact membrane?
Apoptosis
98What process generally does not cause inflammation because cellular contents are packaged and removed by phagocytes?
Apoptosis
99What are the two major pathways of apoptosis?
Extrinsic and intrinsic pathways
100What apoptosis pathway is triggered by ligand-receptor binding such as Fas/FasL?
Extrinsic pathway
101What caspases are activated by the extrinsic pathway?
Caspase-8 or caspase-10
102What apoptosis pathway is triggered by internal cellular stress?
Intrinsic pathway
103What molecule is released during the intrinsic mitochondrial pathway?
Cytochrome c
104What structure forms during the intrinsic pathway after cytochrome c release?
Apoptosome
105What caspase is activated by the intrinsic pathway?
Caspase-9
106What caspases are the executioner caspases?
Caspases 3, 6, and 7
107What proteins promote apoptosis?
BAX and BAK
108What proteins inhibit apoptosis?
Bcl-2 and Bcl-XL
109What can an imbalance or mutation in apoptosis regulators lead to?
Cancer or hematologic disorders
110What hematologic disorder is given as an example of TP53 loss?
Leukemia