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1
You are landing at a Class D airport with the tower not in operation. Which of the following airspace rules apply
Class E surface rules apply, or a combination of Class E to 700 feet AGL and Class G to the surface rules apply.
2
For VFR operations, the vertical limit of victor airways extend from
1,200 feet AGL up to the bottom of the overlying or adjacent controlled airspace.
3
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
4
In the contiguous US, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all airspace above
10,000 feet MSL.
5
What transponder equipment is required for airplane operations within Class B airspace. A transponder
With 4096 code or Mode S, and Mode C capability.
6
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are convergin at a 90° angle, and the helicopter is located to the right of the airplane. Which aircraft has the right-of-way, and why
The helicopter, because it is to the right of the airplane.
7
Two aircraft of the same category are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing. The right of way belongs to the aircraft
At the lower altitude.
8
During a night operation, the pilot of aircraft #1 sees only the green light of aircraft #2. If the aircraft are convergin, which pilot has the right of way. The pilot of aircraft
#1; aircraft #1 is to the right of aircraft #2.
9
A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a multiengine airplane approaching from the left. Which pilot should give way
The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single-engine airplane is to its right.
10
An airplane is overtaking another airplane. Which airplane has the right-of-way
The airplane being overtaken has the right-of-way and should expect to be passed on the right.
11
An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft haws the right-of-way
Helicopter; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
12
What is the maximum indicated airspeed authorized in the airspace underlying Class B airspace
200 knots.
13
One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2,500 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should your speed be
200 knots.
14
What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight
1,500 feet AGL and 3 miles.
15
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace
The pilot must receive an ATC clearance before operating an aircraft in that area.
16
Which is true regarding pilot certification requirements for operations in Class B airspace
The PIC must hold at least a private pilot certificate.
17
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class B airspace
The aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
18
The minimum flight visibility for VFR flight increases to 5 statute miles beginning at an altitude of
10,000 feet MSL if above 1,200 feet AGL.
19
What is the minimum flight visibility and proximity to cloud requirements for VFR flight, at 6,500 feet MSL, in Class C, D, and E airspace
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above and 500 feet below.
20
When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required
Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.
21
At some airports located in Class D airspace where ground visibility is not reported, takeoffs, and landings under special VFR are
Authorized by ATC if the flight visibility is at least 1 SM.
22
To operate an airplaen under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is required
The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument flight.
23
VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained when flying
More than 3,000 feet AGL, based on magnetic course.
24
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administration, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is
2,000 feet above the highest obstacle ever designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.
25
What altimeter setting is required when operating an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL
29.92" Hg.
26
When approaching to land at an airport, without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the pilot should
Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated.
27
When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E airspace, a pilot must establish communications prior to
4NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
28
When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must establish communications prior to
4NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL.
29
You are operating out of a non-towered satellite airport within Class C airspace
Your aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
30
What are the requirements for communication when operating from a non-towered satelline airport in Class C airspace
Establish and maintain communications with the appropriate ATC facility as soon as practical after takeoff.
31
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace
Must conduct operations under instrument flight rules.
32
Which is true regarding flight operations in Class A airspace
Aircraft must be equipped with an ATC transponder and altitude reporting equipment.
33
When weather information indicates that abnormally high barometric pressure exists, or will be above _____ inches of mercury, flight operations will not be authorized contrary to the requirements published in NOTAMs
31.00
34
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and other aircraft.
35
Which is true concerning the blue and magenta colors used to depic airports on Sectional Aeronautical Charts
Airports with control towers underlying Class B, C, D, and E airspace are shown in blue.
36
(Figure 52, point 1) The floor of the Class E airspace above Georgetown airport (Q61) is at
3,823 feet MSL.
37
(Figure 52, point 7) The floor of Class E airspace over the town of Woodland is
Both 700 feet and 1,200 feet AGL.
38
(Figure 52, point 5) The floor of the Class E airspace over University Airport (EDU) is
700 feet AGL.
39
(Figure 52, point 8) The floor of the Class E airspace over the Auburn airport (AUN) is
2,239 feet MSL.
40
(Figure 53, point 1) This thin black shaded line is most likely
Military training route.
41
(Figure 54, point 1) What minimum altitude is required to avoid the Livermore airport (LVK) Class D airspace
2,901 feet MSL.
42
(Figure 52, point 9) The alert area depicted within the magenta lines is an area in which
There is a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, either of which is hazardous to aircraft.
43
(Figure 54, point 4) The thinner outer magenta circle depicted around San Francisco International airport is
An area within which an appropriate transponder must be used outside of the Class B airspace from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL.
44
When a dashed blue circle surrounds an airport on a sectional aeronautical chart, it will depic the boundary of Class D airspace.
45
(Figure 52, point 4) The highest obstruction within 10 NM of Lincoln Regional Airport (LHM) is how high above the ground
662 feet.
46
(Figure 52, point 6) Van Vleck airport is
A nonpublic use airport.
47
(Figure 52. Point 4) The terrain at the obstruction approximately 8 NM east southeast of the Lincoln airport is approximately how much higher than the airport elevation
827 feet.
48
(Figure 54, point) The class C airspace at metropolitan Oaklan International (OAK) which extends from the surface upward has a ceiling of
Both 2,100 feet and 3,000 feet MSL.
49
(Figure 53, point 3) You are on a day, VFR flight approach Madera (MAE) airport from the northwest 1t 1,100 feet MSL, and flight visibility is 1 SM. Before you reach the area of magenta shading on the chart, you observe sufficient ground references to navigate to the airport safely. What must you do when approaching the airport
You must descend below 700 feet AGL.
50
When taxiing during strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron potions should be used
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.
51
While taxiing a light, high-wing airplane during strong quartering tailwinds, the aileron control should be positioned
Opposite the direction from which the wind is blowing.
52
(Figure 51) When exiting a runway, you are clear of the active runway when the aircraft
Is part the solid-line side of figure G.
53
(Figure 51) The red sign D would most likely be found
At an intersection where a roadway may be mistaken as a taxiway.
54
(Figure 51) While clearing an active runway, you are most likely clear of the ILS critical area when you pass which sign
H.
55
(Figure 51) When taxiing up to an active runway, you are likely to be clear of the ILS critical area when short of which sign
H.
56
(Figure 51) Which symbol does not directly address runway incursion with other aircraft
D.
57
With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on takeoff, a pilot should use
Rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both convection and nosewheel type airplanes.
58
When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and for what primary reason
Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control.
59
A pilot's most immediate and vitral concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming airborn on takeoff is
Maintaining a safe airspeed.
60
Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions
A power-on approach and power-on landing.
61
A proper croswwing landing on a runway requires that, at the moment of touchdown, the
Direction of motion of the airplane and its longitudinal axis be parallel to the runway.
62
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft if during a night flight you observe a steady white light and a rotating red light ahead and at your altitude. The other aircraft is
Headed away from you.
63
Choose the correct statement regarding wake turbulence
The primary hazard is loss of control because of induced roll.
64
You will be departing behind a large aircraft. At what point on the runway should you plan to rotate
Prior to the large aircraft rotation point.
65
Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from left to right approximately 1 mile ahead and at your altitude
Make sure you are slightly above the path of the jet.
66
To avoid possible wake turbulence from a large aircraft that has just landed prior to your takeoff, at which point on the runway should you plan to become airborne
Past the point where the jet touched down.
67
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
68
With respect to vortex circulation, which is true
Vortex circulation generated by helicopters in forward flight trail behind in a manner similar to wingtip vorticles generated by airplanes.
69
Which is true with respect to vortex circulations
The vortex strength is greates when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow.
70
As hyperventialtion progresses, a pilot can experience
Symptoms of suffication and drowsines.
71
To scan properly for traffic, a pilot should
Use a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements that bring successive areas of the sky into the central visual field.
72
What is a common symptom of hyperventilation
Drowsiness.
73
Rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation would most likely result in
Carbon Dioxide leaving the body.
74
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions
Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
75
To overcome the symptoms of hyperventilation, a pilot should
Slow the breathing rate.
76
Which is true regarding the presence of alcohol within the human body
Judgement and decision making abilities can be adversely affected by even small amounts of alcohol.
77
Hypoxia susceptibility due to inhalation of carbon monoxide increases as
Altitude increases.
78
To best overcome the effects of spatial disorientation, a pilot should
Rely on aircraft instrument indiccations.
79
Which is true regarding preheating an aircraft during cold weather operations
The cabin area as well as the engine should be preheated.
80
When departing from a runway that is covered with snow or slush, what could a pilot do to prevent damage to the landing gear due to the conditions
Do not retract the landing gear immediately to allow the landing gear to air-dry.
81
Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight
Situation awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.
82
Aeronautical Decision making (ADM) is a
Systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action for fiven set of circumstances.
83
The aeronautical Decision making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps include a pilot
Identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.
84
Examples of classical behavioral traps that experienced pilots may fall into are: trying to
Complete a flight as planned, please passengers, meet schedules, and demonstrate the "right stuff".
85
The basic drive for a pilot to demonstrate the right stuff can have an adverse effect on safety by
Generating tendencies that lead to practices that are dangerous, often illegal, amnd may lease to a mishap.
86
Most pilots have fallen prey to dangerous tendencies or behavior problems at some time. Some of these dangerous tendenceis aor behavior pattenrs which must be identified and elimited include
Peer pressure, get-there-itis, loss of positional or situational awareness, and operating without adequate fuel reserves.
87
An early part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) provess involves
Taking a self-assesment hazardous attitude inventory test.
88
Hazardous attitudes which contribute to poor pilot judgement can be effectively contracted by
Redirecting that hazardous attitude so that appropriate action can be taken.
89
What are some of the hazardous attitudes deal with in Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM)
Antiauthority (don't tell me), impulsivity (do something quickly without thinking), Macho (I can do it).
90
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she then should correct it by stating the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for MACHO
Taking chances is foolish.
91
What is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude in the ADM process
Recognition of hazardous thoughts.
92
What should a plot do when recognizing a thought as hazardous
Label that thought as hazardous, then correct that thought by stating the corresponding learned antidote.
93
To help manage cockpit stress, pilots must
Condition themselves to relax and think rationally when stress appears.
94
What does good cockpit stress management begin with
Good life stress management.
95
The passengers for a charter flight have arrived almost an hour late for a flight that requires a reservation. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates ANTIAUTHORITY reaction
Those reservation rules do not apply to this flight.
96
While conducing an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy and depart on his trip. He will just handle the system himself. Which of the following alternatives best illustrate the INVULNERABILITY reaction
What is the worst that could happen?
97
A pilot and passenger are anxious to get to their destination for a business presentation. Level IV thunderstorms are reported to be in a line across their intended route of flight. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the IMPULSIVITY reaction
They want to hurrt and get going, before things get worse.
98
While on an IFR flight, a pilot emerges from a cloud to find himself within 300 feet of a helicopter. Which of the followign alternatives best illustrate the MACHO reaction
He flies a little closer, just to show him.
99
When a pilot recognizes a hazardous thought, he or she should correct it by applying the corresponding antidote. Which of the following is the antidote for ANTIAUTHORITY/DONT TELL ME hazardous attitude
Follow the rules. They are usually right.
100
A pilot and friend are going to fly to an out of town football game. When the passengers arrive, the pilot determines that they will be over the maximum gross weight for takeoff with the existing fuel load. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the RESIGNATION reaction
Well, nobody told him about the extra weight.
101
Which of the following is the final step of the Decide Model for effective risk management and Aeronautical Decision Making
Evaluate.
102
Which of the following is the first step of the Decide model for effective risk management and ADM
Detect.
103
The decide model is compromised of a 6 step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching aeronautical decision making. These steps are
Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.
104
The taxiway ending marker
Indicates taxiway does not continue.
105
When exiting the runway, the runway exit sign indicates the
Direction to turn to exit the runway onto the named taxiway.
106
The ILS critical area boundary sign identifies
The edge of the ILS critical area.
107
When turning onot a taxiway from another taxiway, the taxiway directional sign indicates the
designation and direction of the taxiways leading out of an intersection.
108
(Figure 8) You are taxiing and see a sign 2 on the left side of the intersection you are approaching. You see sign 1 in front of you across the intersection. Does taxiway A continue through the intersection
No.
109
A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting equipment is required for
1, Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas.
110
The taxiway location sign serves to
Identify taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
111
(Figure 64) You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a fill-length runway 8 departure. Which way should you turn when first taxiing on the runway for takeoff
Right.
112
Within aircraft movement areas, destination signs, identify the
Direction to take-off runways.
113
Light beacons producing red flashes indicate
Obstructions or areas considered hazardous to aerial navigation.
114
When planning for an emergency landing at night, one of the primary considerations include
Selecting a landing area close to public access if possible.
115
When operating at night, what is the first indication of flying into restricted visibility conditions
A gradual disappearance of lights on the ground.
116
For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the
Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes.
117
An idea of the magnitude of the load factor obtained while maneouvering ana irplane can be determined by considering the
Degree to which one is pressed down into the seat.
118
After experiencing a powerful plant failure at night, what action is a first priority
Maintain positive control.
119
(Figure 64) You see this sign when holding short of the runway. You receive clearance to back taxi on the runway for a fyll length runway 26 departure. Which way should you turn when first taxiing on the runway for takeoff
Left.
120
(Figure 900) This sign confirms your position on
Taxiway to runway 22.
121
(Figure 901) This sign can be found
Either side of the taxiway.
122
What is the purpose of a Runway threshold bar
Indicates the beginning of a runway with a displaced threshold.
123
(Figure 58) Where would you see this sign
10 and 11.
124
(Figure 64) You receive the clearance, "Cessna 123AB, fly runway heading, climb and maintain 3,000 feet, clared for takeoff runway 26", and you see this sign. Which way do you turn
To the right.
125
The term airport means an area of land or water that is
Used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.
126
(Figure 61) According to this sign, you are on taxiway
Alpha.
127
(Figure 56) The ground cont4roller instructs you to taxi to and hold short of runway 22. Upon reaching the holding are, which sign will you see
Neither.
128
Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in NMAC occurrences are uged to report each incident immedietely
By radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.
129
Information concerning the aircraft registration application the aircraft bill of sale can be obtained from
A FSDO.
130
A pilot flying in a fatigued state is a hazard because
Flying fatigued is flying impaired.
131
Statistics show that 75% of accidents occur due to
Improper human performance.
132
(Figure 53, point 4) The floor of the Class E airspace over Johnston Airport (M90) is
1200 feet AGL.
133
Humans are characteristically
Poor monitors of automation.
134
Some advantages of automation systems
May be offset by inherent limitations.
135
Your charter flight customers want to take a flight that will land at Reagan Internation (DCA). You
Must undergo special awareness training and receive a certificate of competition before making the flight.
136
Which phase of flight increases you chances of experiencing somatogravic illusion
Rapid acceleration on takeoff.
137
You are planning a VFR cross country flight that will take you within a 60 NM radius of the Washington DC VOR/DME facility. Prior to conduction the flight, you must
Complete special awareness training.
138
(Figure 53, point 4) You are on V230 heading southwest at 3,500 feet and you are 2NM north of Johnston Airport (M90). What is your minimum visibility and cloud clearance
3 miles visibility; 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.
139
The floor of the controlled airspace over Firebaugh Airport (F34) is
700 feet AGL.
140
You are planning a VFR cross country flight whose route will pass near to, but more than 60 NM radius from Washington DC VOR/DME facility. You know that
The flight may be conducted in accordance with current regulations.
141
(Figure 52, point 3) What is the height of the terrain at the obstruction located 1 NM northwest of Robbins
26 feet.
142
During preflight planning the evening before, you find a VFR waypoint on your sectional chart. How can you find the details about the waypoint
Refer to the Airport Facility Directory.
143
(Figure 52) You are planning on operating a flight in the vicinity of Van Vleck Airport (Area 6). You notice unforecasted thunderstorms to the west of the airport. How can you receive a weather update without leaving the aircraft
Contact Rancho Murieta radio on VHF 122.22 or call 800 992 7433.
144
How long does it take for the body to rid itself of 1 oz of alcohol after consumption
3 hours.
145
What are your responsibilities as a pilot when entering and/or traversing an Alert Area
An alert area is to inform non-participating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should exercise caution in alert areas.
146
Pilots should be cautious about flying too soon after drinking because considerable amounts of alcohol can remain in the body for over
16 hours.
147
Why is a fatigued pilot a hazard
A pilot or copilot may not realize they are too tired to fly until serious errors are made.
148
(Figure 53, point 1) You are planning to depart on a day VFR flight from Madera (MAE) airport. The floor of controlled airspace above the airport is
700 feet AGL.
149
To avoid landing at the wrong airport or on the wrong runway, a pilot should
Follow the instrument approach chart for the appropriate runway.
150
(Refer to figure 51, Illustration F) If you were stopped on the airport surface area and the sign in the figure was visible, where are you located
On runway 22.
151
200 knots indicated is the maximum airspeed in
The airspace underlying Class B airspace.
152
The No Entry sign identifies
Paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited.
153
(Figure 52, point 6) You depart from RIU (Rancho Murieta) VFR direct to SMF (Sacramento International). Your route of flight takes you directly though the MHR (Sacramento Mathers) Class D airspace. Is hearing your callsign read by SMF air controllers sufficient to enter the MHR airspace
No, you still need to get permission from MHR tower controllers.
154
(Figure 54, point 1) You are departing Livermore airport (LVK) VFR enroute to San Francisco (SFO). You must have
An ATC clearance.
155
(Figure 53, point 4) What is the required flight visibility if you are VFR northwest bound on V230-585 at 5,500 feet MSL passing north of the Johnston (M90) airport
3 SM.
156
Automated navigation systems can create
Both an increase and decrease in situational awareness.
157
(Figure 53, point 2) You are planning to preflight your aircraft at Fresno Chandler Executive (FCH) When a fog bank rolls in from the northwest. How can you receive a weather update without leaving the aircraft
Contact Rancho Murieta radio on VHF 122.2 or call 800 992 7433 from your cellphone.
158
While planning a cross country flight, you see a thing black shaded line (MTR) labeled VR1007. To what altitude does the MTR extend
All the route is below 1,500 feet.
159
(Figure 903) While taxiing for takeoff, the controller gives you instructions to hold short of the runway 15 approach area and you see this sign. Following this instruction will ensure protection for
Runway 15 appraoches or Runway 33 departures.
160
(Figure 54) Penetrating the airspace labeled R-2531 near area 3 is
Allowed, but may be extremely hazardous.
161
You are going to fly osme friends to a football game in another state. Your weight and balance calculations indicate you are over maximum gross takeoff weight. What are your alternatives
You can reduce fuel or baggage to bring weight within operation performance chart.
162
You are PIC of a flight that was supposed to have departed earlier in the day, but the passengers are late in arriving. Inclement weather is forecast for your toute of flight. What are your alternatives
Evaluate current and forecast weather conditions and determine fi the flight can be made safely.
163
(Figure 57) What is the significance of the dot between the 10 and 21
Follow the arrow to get to either RWY 10 or RWY 21.
164
(Figure 904) You are landing on RWY 03. During the groundroll, you notice this sign. You know you have
3,000 feet of runway remaining.
165
One signment of your flight path takes you within 4NM and 2,500 feet AGL of a primary airport in Class C airspace. Your maximum indicated airspeed should be
200 knots.
166
The sectional chart indicates that your flight will take you to an airport depicted within a blue segmented circle. What is the minimum required visibility to enter this airspace under VFR
You will need 3 statute miles visibility to enter Class D airspace.
167
(Figure 52, area 7) What is the length of the longest runway at Sacramento Internatioal (SMF) airport
8,600 feet.
168
(Figure 52, point 8) What is the minimum surface visibility for a VFR flight to takeoff from Auburn (AUN)
1 Statute mile.
169
Weather reports indicate that you will have a direct crosswind upon landing. You must
Keep your longitudinal axis aligned with the runway.
170
(Figure 52, point 4) The terrain elevation at the obstruction located approximately 3.5 NM south of the Lincoln Airport (LHM) is
11 feet lower than the airport elevation.
171
A placard inside your aircraft reads, "Use of the air conditioner may cause the compass to read incorrectly". The magnetic compass is
Showing the effects of magnetic deviation.
172
You think you are experiencing hyperventilation. Some symptoms may include
Muscle spasms and impaired vision.
173
(Figure 53) You are planning a VFR flight westbound departing from Fresno Chandler Executives (FCH) and your flight is passing through Lemoore MOA C and A. What action should you take
Exercise extreme caution.
174
(Figure 59) You are on taxiway A at spot 5. If you were to turn 90 degrees to the right, which taxiway would you be on
E.
175
(Figure 60) You have just landed and cleared the runway. Ground control gives you the following instructions. "Cessna 12AB, taxi to the ramp via taxiway A, right turn on taxiway E". You proceed down taxiway A and encounter only sign #1, no other taxiway signs or taxiways. What has occurred
You have passed Echo and are at the end of Alpha.
176
(Figure 64) You have received clearance to land on runway 18 and hold short of runway 26-8. After you land, you rollout past this sign. This indicates that
You did not comply with the clearance and have passed runway 26-8.
177
With a calm approach speed of 70 knots, what speed should be used when gusts are 15 knots, if not specified in the AFM/POH
77 knots.
178
You will be more susceptible to hypoxia if you
Conduct a flight after donating blood.
179
While flight planning using a sectional chart, you realize your route take you through a shaded blue area labeled P-40. What action must be taken
Remain clear of the area.
180
Under what conditions would a pilot make right turns in a traffic pattern at an airport in Class G airspace without an operating control tower
The airport has visual markings indicating that turns should be made to the right.
181
You are planning a VFR flight. If you are experiencing pilot fatigue, you will minimize the risk by
Rethinking your plans and perhaps postponing the flight.
182
You are on approach and you realize you are going to undershoot the runway. Suddenly raising the flaps will
Decrease lift and cause the aircraft to sink rapidly.
183
(Figure 58) You are ready to taxi from the west ramp. ATC gives the following instructions 'CESSNA 123BC, taxi to runway 06 via Alpha, Bravo, and hold short of runway 06.' Where would you stop your taxiing to comply with the clearance
Position 9.
184
You will be using an avionics package that you have never used before. The day of the flight, your weather brief forecasts a ceiling of 300 feet overcast and 1 SM visibility at your destination. What is the best action
The risks are too high, so you delay the flight and wait for conditions to improve.
185
Why would an aircraft be equipped with more than one power source for the turn coordinator, attitude indicator, and heading indicator
So that at latest one gyroscopic instrument continuous to operate in case of power failure.
186
You are south of the airfiel and ATC tells you to enter midfield for a left downwind for runway 24. What will the magnetic headin be (no wind) when you are established on the downwind
060°.
187
(Figure 61) You receive an ATC clearance, "Cessna 123AB, taxi to runway 17 via taxiway alpha, tango'
You are on taxiway A. You must take a 45 degree right turn for taxiway T.
188
Which is true when using a portable hand-held GPS for VFR flight
Position accuracy degrades without notification.
189
You are on approach to runway 17, and the winds are reported 270 at 15 gust 20. To the west of the runway there are some buildings. What should you take into consideration
A low level turbulence due to the buildings close to the runway.
190
You are flying in a day VFR and begin having mechanical problems with your aircraft. You should aviation, navigate, and then
Request assistance and declare an eemergency.
191
(Figure 52, point 4) You are departing to the west from Lincoln Rgnl/Harder (LHM) and suddenly experience engine roughness. Can you land on Van Dyke airport
Yes, this is an emergency.
192
(Figure 52, point 2) You are over Fresno Chandler Executive (FCH) enroute to Chowchilla airport and your airborne radar is depicting unexpected weather ahead on your planned route. Who should you contact for an update on changing weather conditions
Flight service station on 122.2 or 122.55.
193
You are planning a flight at a pressure altitude of 6,000 feet and an OAT of 20°C. The density altitude will be
Higher than 6,000 feet.
194
(Figure 54, point 3) What is the significance of the NOTICE next to circle 3
All aircraft should stay above 800 feet AGL when flying over the magenta circle?
195
During crosswind takeoff, aileron controls can be manipulated to gain flight control by
Pressure into the wind.
196
You are taxiing for departure at night, there is an aircraft on the taxiway ahead of you but you can't see it. You see a white light in the middle of the taxiway, a red light on the right, and a green light on the left. What does this tell you about the aircraft ahead of you
It is taxiing towards you.
197
While in flight a helicopter and an airplane are converging at a 90° angle, and the airplane is located to the right of the helicopter. Which aircraft has the right of way and why
The airplane, because it is to the right of the helicopter.
198
Before starting the engine, you should
Turn on the anticollision lights.
199
If there is a malfunction with the air data computer on an electric flight display, which instrument is affected
Airspeed.
200
You noticed that you are too high during your approach and decide to execute a go-around. The first operational step is
Apply full power.
201
Under what conditions may a commercial pilot use BasicMed for compensation or hire
BasicMed may not be used for compensation or hire.
202
You are receiving flight following and are approaching a non-towered airport you know nothing about. You request a lower altitude from ATC in order to take a look. ATC advises that there are numerous targets below and to expect lower in 5 miles. You consider the advisory an annoyance and terminate flight following descending directly into the traffic pattern. This behavior
Exhibits a hazardous attitude.
203
You encounter a stressful situation during your flight. You notice your breathing becoming more rapid. This could lead to
Too much carbon dioxide leaving the blood.
204
You are on approach to an airport at night near an active military airfield. ATC states "N123AB, advise when you have the airport in sight". In the distance you see a rotating beacon with two quick white flashes and one green flash. This is
A military airfield.
205
One of the hazards of using a handheld GPS unit is that
Some hand-help units may not be equipped with RAIM alerting capabilities.
206
What is the main reason why a pilot should perform continuous self-evaluation before and during a flight. To
Monitor pilot fatigue.
207
A pilot can mitigate risk on the flight deck by
Pilot self-evaluation.
208
During flight below overcast clouds, you see lighting flashes ahead of your aircraft. You should
Alter your route to avoid traffic.
209
What techniques can a pilot practice to improve scanning ability
Practice using a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements.
210
While on final approach, you believe that you are experiencing low-level wind shear due to large power and pitch changes, which are making it difficult to maintain a stabilized approach. In this case, you should
Execute a go-around manerouver; a landing is not assured.
211
What is the purpose of the hold position markings on a holding bay
Holds aircraft on the holding bay when there is an operations need.
212
What consideration should a pilot take regarding the consumption of alcohol befoer a flight
Any level of alcohol in the blood affects your flying ability.
213
Under what conditions may a person execise the privileges of a commercial pilot certificate with BasicMed (14 CFR part 68)
BasicMed may not be used while exercising commercial pilot privileges.
214
Which commercial meneuvers increase your risk of a stall
Slow flight.
215
Hyperthermia occurs when the body
Loses heath faster than it produces heat.
216
Whatcan pilots expect when the inflight moving map GPS database is not current
Pilots may receive incorr3ect information when attempting to avoid airspace.
217
When conducting a go-around, what must a pilot be aware of
The airplane is trimmed for a power-off condition, and the airplane's nose will rise rapidly on application of takeoff thrust.
218
Your flight is being conducted at night. To mainain optimum night vision, you should
Make sure flightdeck lightning is on its lowest setting.
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