Human Bio Midterm

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1
The smallest independently functioning unit of an organism is a(n) ________.
cell
2
A collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an ________.
organ
3
The body system responsible for processing food, absorbing nutrients, and expelling wastes is the ________.
digestive system
4
Name the six levels of organization in the human body.
1. chemical
2. cellular
3. tissue
4. organ
5. organ system
6. organism
5
The female ovaries and the male testes are a part of which body system? Can these organs be members of more than one organ system? Why or why not?
They are part of both the reproductive system and the endocrine system. They are part of the reproductive system because they are involved in the act of reproduction, and part of the endocrine system because they secrete hormones.
6
Metabolism can be defined as the ________.
Sum of all chemical reactions in an organism
7
Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is an important molecule because it ________.
provides energy gfor use by body cells
8
Cancer cells can be characterized as generic cells that perform no specialized body function. Thus cancer cells lack ________.
differentiation
9
Explain why the smell of smoke when you are sitting at a campfire does not trigger alarm, but the snmell of smoke in your residence hall does.
When you are sitting at a campfire, your sense of smell adapts to the smell of smoke. Only if that smell were to suddenly and dramatically intensify would you be likely to notice and respond. In contrast, the smell of even a trace of smoke would be new and highly unusual in your residence hall, and would be perceived as danger.
10
Identify three different ways that growth can occur in the human body.
Growth can occur by increasing the number of existing cells, increasing the size of existing cells, or increasing the amount of non-cellular material around cells.
11
In the example below, the scientific method is used to solve an everyday problem. Which part in the example below is the hypothesis? Which is the prediction? Based on the results of the experiment, is the hypothesis supported? If it is not supported, propose some alternative hypotheses.
a. My toaster doesn't toast my bread.
b. Why doesn't my toaster work?
c. There is something wrong with the electrical outlet.
d. If something is wrong with the outlet, my coffeemaker also won't work when plugged into it.
e. I plug my coffeemaker into the outlet.
f. My coffeemaker works.
Hypothesis: c. There is something wrong with the electrical outlet.
Prediction: d. If something is wrong with the outlet, my coffeemaker also won't work when plugged into it.
The hypothesis IS NOT supported.
Alternative hypotheses: There is something wrong with the toaster. The cord of the toaster is broken. The toaster was not turned on.
12
A suggested and testable explanation for an event is called a ________.
Hypothesis
13
Which of the following statements correctly describes a double-blind experiment?
Neither the test subjects or the researchers in direct contact with them know who is in the experimental group and who is in the control group.
14
A research group is testing a new disease vaccine on mice. which group (experimental or control) should receive the placebo? Explain the rationale for your response.
The control group should receive the placebo, or injection without the active components of the vaccine. The response in the control group will provide a baseline of comparison for interpreting the results of the experimental group.
15
How many neutrons do (K) potassium-39 and potassium-40 have, respectively?
K-39 has 20 neutrons. K-40 has 21 neutrons.
16
Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. Which of the following statements is true of a neutral magnesium atom?
12 protons, 12 electrons, 12 neutrons
17
Which type of bond represents a weak chemical bond?
hydrogen bond
18
An isotope of sodium (Na) has a mass number of 22. How many neutrons does it have?
11
19
Why are hydrogen bonds necessary for cells?
Hydrogen bonds form weak associations between different molecules. They provide the structure and shape necessary for proteins and DNA within cells so that they function properly. Hydrogen bonds also give water its unique properties, which are necessary for life.
20
Which of the following statements is FALSE?
water is the most abundant atom in Earth's atmosphere
21
Using a pH meter, you find the pH of an unknown solution to be 8.0. How would you describe this solution?
Weakly basic
22
The pH of lemon juice is about 2.0, whereas tomato juice’s pH is about 4. Therefore, the concentration of hydrogen ions in the tomato juice is ________ times ________ than the lemon juice.
100; less
Explain why water is an excellent solvent.
23
An example of a monosaccharide is ________.
Fructose, Glucose, Galactose
24
Cellulose and starch are examples of ________.
Polysaccharides
25
Phospholipids are important components of ________.
The plasma membrane of cells
26
The monomers that make up proteins are called _________.
Amino acids
27
Explain at least three functions that lipids serve in plants and/or animals.
28
Explain what happens if even one amino acid is substituted for another in a polypeptide chain. Provide a specific example.
29
Which of these do all prokaryotes and eukaryotes share?
plasma membrane
30
A typical prokaryotic cell __________________ compared to a eukaryotic cell.
is smaller in size by a factor of 100
31
What are organelles and which type of cells (prokaryotic or eukaryotic) contains them?
32
Why does the cis face of the Golgi not face the plasma membrane?
33
Which of the following is found both in eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
ribosome
34
Which of the following is not a component of the endomembrane system?
Mitochondrion
In the context of cell biology, what do we mean by form follows function? What are at least two examples of this concept?
35
Which plasma membrane component can be either found on its surface or embedded in the membrane structure?
Protein
36
The tails of the phospholipids of the plasma membrane are composed of _____ and are _______.
fatty acid groups; hydrophobic
37
Why is it advantageous for the cell membrane to be fluid in nature?
38
A doctor injects a patient with what he thinks is isotonic saline solution. The patient dies, and autopsy reveals that many red blood cells have been destroyed. Do you think the solution the doctor injected was really isotonic?
39
Water moves via osmosis _________.
from an area with a low concentration of water to one of higher concentration
40
The principal force driving movement in diffusion is __________.
membrane surface area
Why does osmosis occur?
41
Active transport must function continuously because __________.
Diffusion is constantly moving the solutes in the other direction
Where does the cell get energy for active transport processes?
42
Which of the following does cytosine pair with?
Guanine
43
Prokaryotes contain a ________ chromosome, and eukaryotes contain ________ chromosomes.
double-stranded circular; double-stranded linear
44
DNA replicates by which of the following models?
Semiconservative
The sequence one strand of a DNA double helix is: *ATGGCTACAA Beginning at the * end, what is the complimentary sequence?
45
A promoter is ________.
a specific sequence of DNA nucleotides
46
Portions of eukaryotic mRNA sequence that are removed during RNA processing are ________.
Introns
47
The RNA components of ribosomes are synthesized in the ________.
Nucleolus
48
How long would the peptide be that is translated from this mRNA sequence: 5'- AUGGGCUACCGA-3'?
4
49
Transcribe and translate the following DNA sequence (nontemplate strand): 5'- ATGGCCGGTTATTAAGCA-3'
50
When bacteria are destroyed by leukocytes, pyrogens are released into the blood. Pyrogens reset the body's thermostat to a higher temperature, resulting in fever. How might pyrogens cause the body temperature to rise?
51
When faced with a sudden drop in environmental temperature, an endothermic animal will ________.
increase muscle activity to generate heat
52
What is the cause of a fever of 38.3 ◦C (101 ◦F)?
upward adjustment of the body temperature set point
53
Describe how the body's mechanisms maintain homeostasis.
54
Which of the following statements about the digestive system is false?
Food enters the large intestine before the small intestine.
55
Where does the majority of fat digestion take place?
small intestine
56
The bile from the liver is delivered to the ________.
small intestine
57
Which of the following statements is not true?
Essential nutrients can be synthesized by the body.
What is the role of the accessory organs in digestion?
58
Which of the following is not an example of an energy transformation?
None of the above
59
Which of the following is not true about enzymes?
They are consumed by the reactions they catalyze.
Does physical exercise to increase muscle mass involve anabolic and/or catabolic processes? Give evidence for your answer.
60
Energy is stored long-term in the bonds of _____ and used short-term to perform work from a(n) _____ molecule.
glucose; ATP
61
The energy currency used by cells is _____.
ATP
62
The glucose that enters the glycolysis pathway is split into two molecules of _________.
pyruvate
63
What do the electrons added to NAD+ do?
They go to another pathway for ATP production.
64
What provides the energy for ATP synthase?
the movement of hydrogen ions
We inhale oxygen when we breathe and exhale carbon dioxide. What is the oxygen used for and where does the carbon dioxide come from?
65
Which of the following fermentation methods can occur in animal skeletal muscles deprived of oxygen?
lactic acid fermentation
When muscle cells run out of oxygen, what happens to the potential for energy extraction from sugars and what pathways do the cell use?
Why would it be incorrect to refer to the formed elements as cells?
66
Which of the following statements about mature, circulating erythrocytes is true?
They have no nucleus.
67
A molecule of hemoglobin ________.
consists of four globin proteins, each bound to a molecule of heme
68
The production of healthy erythrocytes depends upon the availability of ________.
copper, zinc, and vitamin B12
69
Aging and damaged erythrocytes are removed from the circulation by ________.
Macrophages
A young woman has been experiencing unusually heavy menstrual bleeding for several years. She follows a strict vegan diet (no animal foods). She is at risk for what disorder, and why?
70
The process in which antibodies attach to antigens, causing the formation of masses of linked cells, is called ________.
Agglutination
71
People with ABO blood type O ________.
lack both antigens A and B on their erythrocytes
72
Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a risk during a subsequent pregnancy in which ________.
an Rh− mother is carrying a second Rh+ fetus
Following a motor vehicle accident, a patient is rushed to the emergency department with multiple traumatic injuries, causing severe bleeding. The patient's condition is critical, and there is no time for determining his blood type. What type of blood is transfused, and why?
In preparation for a scheduled surgery, a patient visits the hospital lab for a blood draw. The technician collects a blood sample and performs a test to determine its type. She places a sample of the patient's blood in two wells. To the first well she adds anti-A antibody. To the second she adds anti-B antibody. Both samples visibly agglutinate. Has the technician made an error, or is this a normal response? If normal, what blood type does this indicate?
73
Which of the following is not important in preventing backflow of blood?
endocardium
74
Which valve separates the left atrium from the left ventricle?
Mitral
75
Which of the following lists the valves in the order through which the blood flows from the vena cava through the heart?
tricuspid, pulmonary semilunar, bicuspid, aortic semilunar
76
Which chamber initially receives blood from the systemic circuit?
right atrium
77
The myocardium would be the thickest in the ________.
left ventricle
Describe how the valves keep the blood moving in one direction.
Why is the pressure in the pulmonary circulation lower than in the systemic circulation?
78
Which of the following is unique to cardiac muscle cells?
Only cardiac muscle is capable of autorhythmicity
79
Which portion of the ECG corresponds to repolarization (i.e. relaxation) of the atria?
none of the above: atrial repolarization is masked by ventricular depolarization
How does the delay of the impulse at the atrioventricular node contribute to cardiac function?
80
Most blood enters the ventricle during ________.
atrial diastole
81
The first heart sound represents which portion of the cardiac cycle?
closing of the atrioventricular valves
82
Ventricular relaxation immediately follows ________.
ventricular repolarization
Describe one cardiac cycle, beginning with both atria and ventricles relaxed.
83
Closer to the heart, arteries would be expected to have a higher percentage of ________ to help deal with the increased pressure.
elastic bers
84
Which of the following best describes veins?
thin walled, large lumens, low pressure, have valves
Cocaine use causes vasoconstriction. Is this likely to increase or decrease blood pressure, and why?
What are the three changes that occur inside the airways during an asthma attack?
85
Which of the following anatomical structures is at the site of respiratory gas exchange?
alveoli
86
What is the function of the conchae in the nasal cavity?
increase surface area
87
Which of the following are structural features of the trachea?
C-shaped cartilage
If a person sustains an injury to the epiglottis, what would be the physiological result?
88
What are the units for measuring air pressure?
mm Hg
89
A decrease in volume leads to a(n) ________ pressure.
increase in
90
Contraction of the external intercostal muscles causes which of the following to occur?
The ribs and sternum move upward.
Outline the steps involved in quiet breathing.
What is respiratory rate and how is it controlled?
91
Gas moves from an area of ________ partial pressure to an area of ________ partial pressure.
high; low
92
Gas exchange that occurs at the level of the tissues is called ________.
Internal respiration
93
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 45 mm Hg in the blood and 40 mm Hg in the alveoli. What happens to the carbon dioxide?
It diffuses into the alveoli.
94
Oxyhemoglobin forms by a chemical reaction between which of the following?
hemoglobin and
95
In what form is the majority of carbon dioxide transported in the blood?
Bicarbonate ion
Describe the relationship between the partial pressure of oxygen and the binding of oxygen to hemoglobin.
Describe three ways in which carbon dioxide can be transported.
96
A diploid cell has ________ the number of chromosomes as a haploid cell.A smoker develops damage to several alveoli that then can no longer function. How does this affect gas exchange?
Why is oxygenated blood bright red, whereas deoxygenated blood tends to be more of a purple color?
Twice
97
An organism's traits are determined by the specific combination of inherited ________.
Genes
Compare and contrast a human somatic cell to a human gamete.
98
Chromosomes are duplicated during what portion of the cell cycle?
S phase
99
Separation of the sister chromatids is a characteristic of which stage of mitosis?
Anaphase
100
The individual chromosomes become visible with a light microscope during which stage of mitosis?
prophase
101
Meiosis produces ________ daughter cells.
four haploid
102
At which stage of meiosis are sister chromatids separated from each other?
anaphase II
103
The part of meiosis that is similar to mitosis is ________
meiosis II
104
If a muscle cell of a typical organism has 32 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will be in a gamete of that same organism?
16
Explain how the random alignment of homologous chromosomes during metaphase I contributes to variation in gametes produced by meiosis.
In what ways is meiosis II similar to and different from mitosis of a diploid cell?
105
Which of the following is a barrier against pathogens provided by the skin?
low pH
106
Although interferons have several effects, they are particularly useful against infections with which type of pathogen?
Viruses
107
Which innate immune system component uses MHC class I molecules directly in its defense strategy?
NK cells
Different MHC class I molecules between donor and recipient cells can lead to rejection of a transplanted organ or tissue. Suggest a reason for this.
If a series of genetic mutations prevented some, but not all, of the complement proteins from binding antibodies or pathogens, would the entire complement system be compromised?
108
The humoral immune response depends on which cells?
B and TH cells
109
Foreign particles circulating in the blood are filtered by the ____________.
Spleen
110
How do B and T cells differ with respect to antigens that they bind?
111
Why is the immune response after reinfection much faster than the adaptive immune response after the initial infection?
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