Final 04/30/26

85 flashcardsby Meghan
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1
What is the definition of a substance use disorder?
cluster of cognitive, behavioral, and physiological symptoms that show that a person continues using despite significant problems
2
What are the 4 main categories of symptoms for substance use disorder?
loss of control over substance use, impaired control, social impairment, and poor impact on health
3
How is tolerance defined in substance use?
when a person requires increasingly larger amounts of a substance to achieve desired effect
4
Why are people with psychological disorders at higher risk for substance abuse?
shared risk factors, self-medicating for another disorder, or the substance use itself causes a new disorder to develop
5
Which serious mental health outcome is associated with chronic alcohol use?
suicide
6
How do most drugs of abuse affect the brain's reward center?
floods circuits with dopamine, which is more intense and last longer than natural rewards
7
What is generational forgetting?
where a new generation starts using drugs that previously lost popularity and are unaware of the dangers associated
8
What is substance intoxication?
temporary, maladaptive experience involving behavioral or psychological changes caused by a substance in the body
9
What is substance withdrawal?
the physiological and psychological changes that happen when a person stops taking a substance
10
What is potentiation?
occurs when the combined effect of two or more substances is greater than the effect of a substance taken alone
11
What is Wenicke's disease?
reversible form of neurocognitive disorder from long-term alcohol use that leads to the inability to learn new information or remember recent events
12
What's the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?
retrograde is the inability to remember things that happened in the past while anterograde amnesia is the inability to remember or form new information
13
What biological evidence exists for the heritability of substance use disorder?
research has found genetic associations related to how the body metabolizes alcohol and how neural signals are transmitted in the brain
14
How does genetic vulnerability interact with the environment?
inherited risk can combine with family, community, and cultural stressors to trigger the development of an alcohol or substance use disorder
15
How does Naltrexone help people with alcohol disorders?
opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of the body's natural alcohol induced opioids
16
what is the function of Disulfiram (Antabuse)
inhibits ALDH enzyme causing a person to have a severe physical reaction to consuming alcohol
17
What is methadone and what is it used for?
synthetic opioid used to treat heroin addiction by producing a safer and more controlled reaction
18
What are examples of stimulants and their effect?
amphetamines, cocaine, methamphetamine, caffeine, and nicotine have an activating effecting on the nervous system
19
What are opioids and which drugs are included in this class?
pain-relievers; oxycodone, hydrocodone, morphine, codeine, and heroin
20
What defines the hallucinogen class of drugs?
cause abnormal perceptions like illusions or hallucinations; LSD, peyote, psilocybin, PCP, and MDMA (ecstasy)
21
What is the goal of the relapse prevention model?
encourages people to not view a temporary lase as total failure
22
Why is gambling disorder classified alongside substance use?
shows many of the same behaviors, including intense cravings, the need to increase the behavior for excitement, and negative social consequences
23
"what cognitive distortions are associated with the ""behaviorally conditioned"" subtype of gambling"
frequent exposure to gambling leads to distorted thinking and poor decision making regarding the odds of winning
24
What is Korsakoff's syndrome?
permanent neurocognitive disorder caused by long-term alcohol use characterized by severe memory deficits like anterograde or retrograde amnesia
25
What's the main difference in onset between delirium and Alzheimer's disease?
delirium appears abruptly and is temporary while Alzheimer's involves a progressive gradual decline over a long period of time
26
Why does the DSM-5 use the term neurocognitive disorder instead of dementia?
to show that these syndromes are caused by brain changes and to avoid the assumption that they only affect other adults
27
What is pseudodementia?
"a ""false"" neurocognitive disorder where cognitive symptoms like memory loss are actually caused by severe depression"
28
How can a clinician distinguish pseudodementia from early Alzheimer's?
people with pseudodentia are more aware of their memory failures whereas those with Alzheimer's often lack insight into their decline
29
what defines postconcussion syndrome (PCS)
constellation of physical, emotional, and cognitive symptoms that persist for weeks or years after a milk traumatic brain injury
30
how does the initial presentation of Pick's disease (frontotemporal NCD) differ from alzheimer's
in pick's disease personality alterations and social disinhibition occur before memory problems
31
What are common precipitating medical factors with delirium?
causes include substance intoxication/withdrawal, head injury, high fever, vitamin deficiency, and infections like UTIs
32
What is a multi-infarcts dementia?
cognitive loss caused by a series of small infarcts (minor strokes) where blood flow to the brain is interrupted by clogged or burst arteries
33
What genetic factor is specifically associated with the late-onset form of Alzheimer?
the APOE gene located on chromosome 19
34
What are the two key motor symptoms used to identify Parkinson's disease?
Akinesia (difficulty initiating movement) and bradykinesia (general slowing of motor activity)
35
What is the cause of neurocognitive disorder due to prion disease?
caused by atypical protein particles that infect brain tissues, leading to irregular protein accumulations
36
Which NCD is caused by hereditary conditions affecting subcortical structures?
Huntington's disease
37
what two physical anomalies are found in the brain tissue of someone with alzheimer's
neurofibrillary tangles (made of tau protein) and amyloid plaques
38
which specific brain structures typically shrink in a person with alzheimer's
the cerebral cortex and the hippocampus
39
What happens to the brain's ventricles as Alzheimer's disease progresses?
they become severely enlarged
40
Which part of the brain is mainly affected by the neuronal degeneration of Parkinson's disease?
subcortical structures specifically the basal ganglia
41
Which brain regions are damaged in Pick's disease?
the frontal and temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex
42
What brain areas are deteriorated in Huntington's disease?
subcortical brain structures and parts of the frontal cortex that control motor movements
43
What is the primary and most common cause of substance induced persistening amnestic disorder?
chronic alcohol use
44
Besides alcohol, what other substances can cause substance-induced neurocognitive disorders?
medications, illicit drugs, industrial solvents, and heavy metals like lead or mercury
45
What is the primary concern regarding neurocognitive function in people with HIV?
before antiretroviral therapies, NCD was a common complication in the late stages
46
What is a personality disorder?
a rigid and maladaptive pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviates from a person's culture and can date back to adolescence
47
what are the three clusters of personality disorders and their general characteristics
Cluster A (odd and eccentric) cluster B (dramatic and emotional) and cluster C (anxious and fearful)
48
What is Cluster A?
odd and eccentric behaviors; paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders
49
What is Cluster B
dramatic and emotional behaviors; antisocial, borderline, histrionic, and narcissistic personality disorders
50
What is Cluster C?
anxious and fearful behaviors; avoidant, dependent, and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders
51
What's the defining feature of paranoid personality disorder?
an undue suspicion of others and being constantly on guard against potential harm or danger
52
What are the symptoms of schizoid personality disorder?
indifference to social or sexual relationships and a limited range of emotional experience and expression
53
How do people with schizotypal personality disorder typically behave or think?
they hold odd beliefs (like magical thinking) have unusual perceptions, and may have an eccentric appearance
54
What are the core symptoms of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)?
lack of regard for oral or legal standards, a lack of empathy or remorse, and a highly impulsive, risky lifestyle
55
What is the dark triad theory?
a combination of psychopathy, extreme self-centeredness, and the tendency to treat other people as objects to be used
56
What is the treatment for antisocial personality disorder?
because they are resistant to insight therapists take a pragmatic approach, helping them meet their needs through prosocial ways like cooperation
57
What characterizes borderline personality disorder (BPD)?
instability in mood, interpersonal relationships, and self-image, along with poor impulse control and chronic feelings of emptiness
58
What is splitting in BPD?
defense mechanism where a person perceives themselves or others as being all good or all bad
59
Which treatment has demonstrated the greatest effectiveness for BPD?
dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT), focusing on mindfulness and emotional regulation
60
What are the symptoms of histrionic personality disorder?
exaggerated, theatrical emotional reactions and an extreme pleasure in being the center of attention
61
What is the difference between grandiose and vulnerable narcissism?
grandiose narcissism is an inflated, self-aggrandizing sense of self, while vulnerable narcissism involves an internally weak sense of self that becomes despondent when criticized
62
What is the primary concern for someone with avoidant personality disorder?
fearful of disapproval, rejection, and being ashamed, leading them to stay away from almost all social encounters
63
How is avoidant personality disorder treated in a cognitive-behavioral framework?
through graduated exposure, where clients are presented with increasingly difficult social situations to confront
64
What are the key behaviors of dependent personality disorder?
being extremely passive and clingy, and being unable to make decisions or take independent action
65
How does obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD) differ from OCD?
people with OCPD don't experience actual obsessions or compulsions but have a rigid need for perfection and total control
66
What is a common cognitive-behavioral explanation for OCPD?
people have unrealistic expectations about being perfect and believe they are worthless if they make a mistake
67
What is the maturation hypothesis?
the theory that people with certain personality disorders mature out of their most intense symptoms as they get older
68
Which disorder is the maturation hypothesis mainly associated with?
antisocial personality disorder
69
What's the difference between general principles and ethical standards in the APA ethics code?
general principles are aspirational guides for ethical decision-making, while ethical standards are enforceable rules that psychologists must follow
70
What does the ethical standard of competence require of psychologists?
psychologists must only provide services, teach, or conduct research within the boundaries of their education, training, and supervised experience
71
What is emotional competence for a clinician?
the requirement that clinicians be free of any diagnosable psychological disorders that could interfere with their work
72
What is the primary purpose of informed consent in therapy?
ensure that clients understand the goals of treatment, their rights, risks involved, techniques used, and costs before they begin
73
What specific information must be included in a written informed consent statement?
it should outline treatment goals, risks, techniques, payment requirements, and the specific limits of confidentiality
74
What is privileged communication regarding confidentiality?
the legal rule that a clinician cannot be forced to reveal information about a client in court without the client's permission
75
What is the duty to warn (or protect)?
the clinician's legal and ethical responsibility to notify a potential victim if the client expresses a clear intent to harm them?
76
when is a multiple relationship considered unethical
it's unethical if it impairs the psychologist's objectivity and effectiveness or if it risks exploiting or harming the person involved
77
Which specific type of relationship is strictly forbidden in all ethical codes for mental health professionals?
sexual intimacy with current clients
78
Who establishes the professional guidelines that psychologists follow?
the American Psychological Association (APA) sets these guidelines
79
Do APA guidelines hold legal power over a psychologist's ability to practice?
while guidelines don't have legal power, state boards use strict codes based on them to issue and regulate professional licenses
80
What are the three standard requirements for a psychologist to obtain a license in most states?
must pass a standardized examination, complete a set of number supervised training hours, and receive recommendations from other licensed professionals
81
How do psychologists maintain their professional competence after receiving a license?
they are required to participate in a specific number of continuing education hours regularly
82
What is a guardian ad litem?
a person appointed by a court to represent the interest of a minor or a person unable to make their own decisions in legal matters
83
What is a major ethical challenge when treating adolescents who are under the age of consent?
clinicians must balance the adolescent's need for privacy with the legal and ethical requirement to involve parents in the treatment process
84
What is the state's authority to protect people who cannot protect themselves?
Parens patriae
85
What is the least restrictive alternative regarding treatment for special clinical populations?
the ethical requirement to provide treatment in a setting that places the fewest possible constraints on a client's personal freedom
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