1Leaker
Airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifying information.
2Lean
Refers to a 45 degree maneuver in the direction voiced by tac C2 for 45 seconds followed by a 90 degree maneuver toward the previous route for 45 seconds to give escort time to kill the threat.
3Spin
3 minute 360 degree maneuver in place. Designed to place the aircraft in approximately the same location 3 minutes after the spin maneuver was issued
4Skate
Informative or directive call to execute launch and leave tactics at a pre-briefed range. Modifiers can include LONG and SHORT.
5Scram
Friendly asset is in immediate danger. Withdraw clear in the direction indicated for survival. No further mission support from the friendly asset is expected.
6Magnum
Launch of friendly anti-radiation missile
7Millertime
Completion of A to S ordinance delivery. generally used by the last striker in conjunction with a precoordinated egress plan.
8Hostile Intent
This is the threat of imminent use of force against the United States, United States forces, or other designated persons and property, or intended to impede the mission of United States forces.
9What ALR is the JFACC willing to accept substantial losses to achieve an objective but wants to ensure the additional assets can be brough into theater via time phased forced deployment data flow or allow a full 72 hour ATO to execute before the initial unit is rendered ineffective.
ALR Significant
10When loss rates must be managed to ensure the campaign is sustainable over several months, a JFACC will set what acceptable level of risk?
ALR Moderate
11What two key pieces of information are used to evaluate risk?
Probability of event occurring and Level of consequences
12Describe the rule of thirds for CAP management
1/3 on tank, 1/3 in transit. 1/3 in the lane
13What constitutes a Hostile Act
Attack or other use of force against US forces, or other designated persons or property. Also includes force used directly to preclude or impede the mission or duties of US forces including the recovery of US personnel or vital US government property.
14Weapons Free
Fire only at targets not identified as friendly IAW current ROE
15Weapons tight
Engage only targets positively identified as hostile IAW current ROE
16Weapons Hold
The most restrictive status. Units may only fire in self-defense or when ordered by proper higher authority.
17DEZ (Desired Engagement Zone)
Geographic area where fighters execute primary gameplan. Desired area of wreckage fall.
18HREZ (High Risk Engagement Zone)
Protect assets at all cost
19MEZ (Missel Engagement Zone)
(S to A) Where missiles expect to have impact
20What is the PAC 3 interceptor used for
Tactical Ballistic Missile
21What is the MEZ azimuth of a Patriot
120 Degree Fan
22This Army position is the single point of contact between Army land-based Air and Missile Defense (AMD) fire direction centers and the joint controlling authority to include the SLIC and SL.
ADAFCO
23When dealing with weapons control what is the difference between targeting Air breathing Targets and TBMs
TBMs will ALWAYS be targeted
24What is the PAC 2 interceptor used for
Targeting Air Breathing Targets
25What FRIENDLY Surface to Air Missile system is Long range, all weather, and mobile
MM-104 Patriot
26What document(s) describes specific actions that E-3 crew members are required to do during an E-3 Retrograde
AFTTP 3-1 AWACS, AFTTP 3-3 AWACS
27Who is the primary monitor for E-3 Self Defense procedures
SLIC
28The primary threat monitor coordinates with who to recommend phases of retrograde
AC
29List the five threat systems that should be considered when planning for E-3 and HVAA protection
AAA, SAMS, Naval, EA, AI// (Not Early Warning Radar)
30What kind of retrograde should occur when there is a high concentration of HVAA in a compressed area?
Integrated
31What is the ALR of the E-3/ HVAA
32E-3 is a ALR of...
ALR Low
33What type of target is armor, troops in the open, large military/industrial complexes, airfields, and rails
Area Target
34What percentage of weapons should fall within the defined CEP (circular error probable)
50%
35The paveway III family includes which bombs
GBU 24
GBU 27
GBU 28
36The AGM-65 maverick uses either ____ or ____ optics
IR (infrared)
EO (Electro Optical)
37The GBU-38 is a _____ lb JDAM
500
38Why is the CBU-87 known as the Combine Effects Munition (CEM)?
Incendiary and penetration and fragmentation
39List the five D's executed during a typical SEAD mission
Denial, Degradation, Deception, Disruption, Destruction
40What is the definition of Denial
Eliminates utility of an enemy's targeting system typically without destruction
41What is the definition of Disruption
Temporarily impairs specific target nodes of an enemy's system usually without physicals damage
42List the 4 USAF SEAD Aircraft that can Execute all aspects of the F2T2EA process
F-16CM, F-22, EC-130, MQ-9
43What type of SEAD missions suppresses or destroys "pop-up" surface-to-air threats?
RSEAD (Reactive SEAD)
44Explain the three categories of RSEAD
Immediate, Deliberate, and Alert
45What is the definition of Immediate RSEAD
RSEAD occurs when element of joint forces locates enemy AD assets and targets while it is in the process of conducting another mission. (Timeliest response to pop-up enemy AD assets)
46What is the definition of Deliberate RSEAD
Coordinated Response with assets diverted from other missions to suppress emerging enemy AD threats. (Allows for pre-planned response)
47What is the definition of Alert RSEAD
Responds to threats requiring dedicated RSEAD planning.
48What are the 4 Ts that should be considered when planning sweep operations
Task, Target, Threat, Tactic
49What drives the TASK in OCA sweep integration
Commanders Intent
ATO
ROE
SPINS
ACO
AOD
OPSTASKLINK
50Name the 3 commonly used escort methods
Close, Detached, and Self
51What type of escort ties the Sweep assets to protected the strike assets (within 20nm)
Close Escort
52Abort
a directive call to cease action attack event or mission and is directive for all flight members to immediately execute a departure from tactic in progress
53What type of escort creates a complex gameplan based on targets and weapon priorities
Self Escort
54What is the definition of JPRC
SAR facility jointly staffed to plan coordinate and execute joint CSAR Ops
55What is the definition of RESCORT
Protects rescue force and survivors from ground threats. Also assists in locating Isolated Personnel
56What are some of the actions an E-3 crew would need to accomplish to recover the downed personnel in an AOR
Appoint OSC, Coordinate CSAR nets/Com plan, Manage flow of aircraft to and from objective area, successfully recover IPs without further loss of friendly assets (ALL OF THE ABOVE)
57What UHF AM hardware connects C2 and CSAR assets
PTIU
58Who plans the E-3 retrograde plans
MPC
59What is the definition of Point Defense
Conducted for the protection of a limited area. Usually in defense of the vital elements of friendly forces and installations
60What is Lane Defense
DCA option provides established areas in which specific aircraft are tasked to patrol and defend
61What is Area Defense
Defense of a broad area using a combination of weapons systems
62Active
Referenced emitter is emitting at stated location or along stated bearing (ELINT)
63(don't have full question) Governing document used in theater provides the comprehensive air defense picture
AADP (Area Air Defense Plan)
64(T/F) Time and Space required to complete OCA missions depends on CSAR
False
65What is an example of a SDB (Small diameter bomb)
GBU-39