ABM MQF LOP

1. The word _____ is used to define operating procedures, techniques, etc. which can result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed.
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING

2. The word _____ is used to define operating procedures, techniques, etc. which can result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed.
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING

3. The word _____ is used to define an operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.
A. NOTE
B. HAZARD
C. CAUTION
D. WARNING

4. The word(s) used to express that the requirements are binding and mandatory is/are:
A. SHALL or WILL
B. SHOULD or COULD
C. MAY
D. MIGHT

5. If a circuit protective device (circuit breaker, Electronic Load Control Unit (ELCU), or power contactor) trips and the cause is not known, how many times may it be reset?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. As many times as necessary

6. In addition to the flight deck intercom, classified information will not be discussed on _____.
A. Nets 1, 2, 3
B. Selective intercom
C. Mission and airplane maintenance nets
D. Both b and c

7. Safety straps will be fastened across door opening if door is _____ .
A. Closed
B. Open
C. Open and no stairs are in place
D. Closed and no stairs are in place

8. When opening entry or galley doors after emergency landing or ditching, _________ and check for possible entry of fire, smoke or water.

A. Open door fully
B. Stop when door handle is in the vertical position
C. Stop when door handle is in the horizontal position
D. look through the window

9. When opening entry or galley doors during an emergency landing or ditching, if fire, smoke or water enters the airplane at the top or bottom of the door, _____ .

A. return handle to locked position and use another exit if possible
B. rotate handle to full open position and exit quickly
C. return to your seat and wait for firefighters
D. wait 2 minutes, if it stops, exit quickly

10. Areas around the entry and galley doors will be kept clear of obstructions during _____ .

A. takeoff
B. landing
C. ground operations
D. all of the above

11. Unless crew duties prohibit, seat belt and shoulder harness will be fastened, seat back in full upright position, and _____ locked for maximum crash protection.

A. inertia reel
B. adjustment handles
C. console table tops
D. MA-1 portable oxygen bottles

12. Do not operate crew rest area ___________ if fuel vapor is present.

A. Reading light switches
B. Flush toilet
C. Apply power to galley equipment
D. All of the above

13. Bunks will not be occupied during _____, or be used for cargo tie-down at any time.

A. takeoff
B. landing
C. inflight refueling
D. all of the above

14. The hot cup ___________ if operated dry.

A. will automatically shutdown
B. heating element can explode
C. will melt
D. none of the above

15. If unable to determine whether a bottle is depleted to 10psi or less for over two hours, or if the time of depletion cannot be determined, what procedure will be performed?

A. Portable Oxygen Bottle Preflight Procedure
B. Portable Oxygen Bottle Purging Procedure
C. Portable Oxygen Bottle Charging Procedure
D. There is no procedure, contact ground maintenance

16. Prior to servicing portable oxygen bottles, ensure oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen recharger outlet are free of oil and grease. If not, _________________.

A. combustion or contamination could result
B. oxygen bottle filler port and oxygen recharger outlet will not engage
C. pressure regulator will become clogged
D. pressure gauge will indicate an erroneous PSI

17. The altitude selector knob on the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle can be unintentionally moved from the desired position because _____ .

A. The bottles are located near the floor
B. A positive lock is not provided
C. It is on top of the bottle
D. All of the above

18. The fire fighter's smoke mask should not be used at cabin altitudes above _____ feet.

A. 23000
B. 30000
C. 35000
D. 43000

19. The escape slide is unusable unless retaining bar passes through slide harness and through the loop on the _____.

A. Inflation handle
B. Floor fitting
C. Retaining hook assembly
D. Both a and c

20. Attempting to inflate escape slides inside the airplane could cause _____ .

A. Injury to crewmembers
B. Damage to slides
C. A misunderstanding among crewmembers
D. Both a and b

21. The escape slide hooks must be connected to the floor fitting _____ , remaining there until the airplane _____ .
A. When entry door is closed and stand is removed; is parked and engines are off
B. Before engine start; is parked and FE has cleared slide hooks disconnect
C. Prior to take off; engines are shut down and the parking brake is set
D. Before engine start; disembarking stands are in place.

22. The slides __________when the door is opened, if the slide fitting has been attached to the floor.
A. deploy automatically
B. deploy automatically and inflate
C. create a vacuum
D. both b and c

23. The escape slides are installed on _____ .
A. each main entry door and the cargo doors
B. the galley door and the cargo doors
C. each main entry door and the galley door
D. the cargo doors, each main entry door, and the galley door

24. The life rafts can be released manually by ________.
A. Getting the water activated batteries wet
B. Pulling the associated circuit breaker
C. Switch at the engineer's panel
D. Pulling the manual release handle at the overwing exit hatch

25. The fire extinguishers are suitable for use _____ .
A. on smoking electrical equipment
B. on any class of fire
C. only on electrical fires
D. only on trash fires

26. Crewmembers using fire extinguishers will _____ .
A. Wait for the pilot's command
B. Wear their nomex flight jacket and gloves
C. Use smoke mask
D. Both a and b are correct

27. Which of the following statements is/are true concerning the onboard fire extinguisher?
A. Do not use the extinguisher on smoking electrical equipment unless flames are actually visible
B. The primary action is to smother the fire
C. The extinguisher agent is non-toxic, but it can form toxic byproducts when exposed to fire or high temperature
D. All the above

28. If a fire extinguisher leaks, _______, cover the nozzle with a cloth to catch any liquid discharge. Then press trigger to release pressurizing gas __________ of agent.
A. turn it upside down; with minimum release
B. turn it upside down; until extinguisher is empty
C. hold extinguisher in upright position; with minimum release
D. hold extinguisher in upright position; until extinguisher is empty

29. A checklist item that has a circled number indicates it requires coordination between
A. Firefighters
B. Mission crewmembers assigned on different mission nets
C. The E-3 and external agencies
D. Mission crewmembers and flight crewmembers

30. Personnel seated in crew rest seats________ will perform crew service unit oxygen regulator preflight procedure.
A. 31 through 38
B. 24, 33, 35, 36
C. 35, 36
D. 5, 14, 16, 33, 35, 36

31. To prevent damage to seat locking pins, do not release seat adjustment handles while seat is in ______.
A. the up position
B. a reclined position
C. motion
D. crash position

32. All personnel entering lower compartments in flight shall ____ .
A. wear oxygen
B. don flight gloves
C. wear ear protection
D. maintain communications with the flight deck

33. Because of excessive background noise, crewmembers in lower compartment should avoid using _____ .
A. net 1
B. HOT MIC
C. smoke masks
D. all of the above

34. The _____ may designate any crewmember to perform a procedure if the emergency requires.
A. MCC
B. Co-pilot
C. Pilot
D. Firefighter

35. The signal to prepare for CRASH LANDING or DITCHING is________.
A. alarm bell on five to ten seconds
B. announcement over the interphone system
C. announcement over the PA and illumination of CRASH LANDING signs
D. both a and c

36. When jumping into a slide,____________ .
A. jump far enough to clear the door sill
B. remove sharp objects from pockets
C. jump halfway down the slide
D. all of the above

37. If flaps are not at 40 or 50 degree position and landing gear is extended, use extreme care if evacuating by overwing exits. ____________________.
A. Over-wing hatches may have jagged edges
B. Jagged edges of flaps may cause injury
C. Injury could result when jumping from flap to ground
D. All of the above

38. To avoid injury do not exit through overwing hatches or aft doors until _____ .
A. cleared by the MCC
B. Flaps are at 60 degrees
C. galley is powered down
D. engines have been shut down

39. Primary exits during GROUND EVACUATION are the ____ .
A. entry and galley doors
B. pilot's windows and overwing hatches
C. cargo doors and overwing hatches
D. pilot's windows and cargo doors

40. GROUND EVACUATION is initiated _____ .
A. at the pilot's command over PA and interphone, if possible, and by continuous (5 to 10 second) sounding of the alarm bell
B. at ASO's announcement over the PA to evacuate the airplane
C. at MCC's command to evacuate the airplane
D. when any crewmember makes an announcement over the PA

41. If evacuating the aircraft after an aborted takeoff or heavyweight landing, depart directly forward or aft of the aircraft _____ .
A. to avoid engine exhaust
B. to avoid firefighting personnel
C. to avoid possible tire/wheel burst area if fuse plugs do not melt
D. because only main and cargo entry doors may be used for evacuation

42. When using the _____ for emergency exit, ensure the strap is securely fastened and the strap is extended fully (green band on the strap is at the window sill).
A. escape slide
B. pilot's sliding windows
C. overwing escape hatch
D. restraint harness

43. If using the pilot's sliding windows for emergency evacuation, use care to avoid ____ when descending along the side of the airplane.
A. engine intakes
B. nose gear tires
C. probes and pitot heads
D. all of the above

44. Crewmember handling escape hatch in flight must wear a restraint harness. Secure harness by safety lanyard _____ .
A. To base of a mission crew seat
B. To the handle next to the hatch
C. Held by two other crewmembers
D. Both A and C are correct

45. How can a crewmember detect the presence of SF-6 gas in the AFT lower compartment?
A. By its odor
B. By its color
C. With an ohm meter
D. It cannot be detected by crewmembers

46. If SF-6 is inhaled _____ and provide _____ oxygen.
A. place crewmember with head lower than lungs; 100%
B. place crewmember with head lower than lungs; NORMAL
C. place crewmember with head higher than lungs; 100%
D. place crewmember with head higher than lungs; NORMAL

47. If a crewmember has inhaled SF-6 gas and is unconscious, assist breathing by setting oxygen regulator to _____ for 2 to 3 seconds, then _____ for 2 to 3 seconds, repeating until crewmember is conscious.
A. EMERGENCY; NORMAL
B. OFF; EMERGENCY
C. OFF; NORMAL
D. ON; OFF

48. Firefighter coordination will be conducted on maintenance net _________.
A. To clear net 1 for MCC
B. Because mission nets are for classified use only
C. Because flight deck does not have any mission nets assigned
D. To allow freedom of movement

49. If source of fire, smoke, or fumes is in _____ , immediate use of necessary emergency equipment is authorized.
A. Galley equipment
B. Crew trash bags
C. At lower compartment
D. Both A and B

50. All fires will be fought by a minimum of _____ firefighters, with _______ in close proximity ready to assist.
A. 1; second
B. 2; third
C. 3; fourth
D. 3; with bottle refill team member

51. The _________ will be primary firefighter.
A. CT
B. CDMT
C. ART
D. technician responsible for affected equipment

52. If inspection shows a fire, smoke or fumes source is in an identifiable system or unit, _____ .
A. use fire extinguisher
B. begin SMOKE EVACUATION procedures
C. notify pilot and wait for further instructions
D. remove all power from affected equipment immediately

53. During a ditching procedure, the order of preference for evacuation is _____________.
A. flight deck windows, overwing hatches, and main deck doors if above water level
B. overwing hatches, main deck doors if above water level, and flight deck windows
C. main deck doors if above water level, flight deck windows, and overwing hatches
D. overwing hatches, cargo doors, and flight deck windows

54. Report to the _____ for headcount, _______ of the aircraft after a GROUND EVACUATION.
A. Pilot; downwind
B. FE; upwind
C. MCC; downwind
D. ASO; upwind

55. At first sign of loss of cabin pressure (audible warning or LOSS OF PRESSURE signs illuminated) all crew members will _________.
A. don oxygen masks and set regulators to ON and 100%
B. sit quietly and wait for an announcement from the AC
C. don jacket and gloves
D. report damage to the MCC

56. When is oxygen required for personnel entering the AFT lower compartment?
A. When an SF-6 leak is suspected
B. To perform maintenance on a mission radar component pressurized with SF-6
C. When pressurization is in manual operation
D. All of the above

57. ______________ lower compartment in flight shall maintain intercom communication with flight crew or mission crew.
A. All personnel, while in the
B. At least one person per
C. All personnel, except the ART, while in the
D. none of the above, communications are not required except in emergencies

58. Do not remain in the AFT lower compartment for more than _____ per _____ while mission radar is transmitting.
A. 1 hour; mission
B. 15 minutes; mission
C. 15 minutes; hour
D. 1 hour; mission

59. If equipment has a switch, set switch to ______ prior to setting associated circuit protective device and applying power.
A. OFF
B. OPERATE
C. ON
D. TEST

60. Always verify diluter lever is set to _________ when setting SUPPLY lever to ___.
A. 100% OXYGEN; OFF
B. NORMAL; OFF
C. 100% OXYGEN; ON
D. NORMAL; ON

61. To properly use the Halon fire extinguisher, position it vertically about _______ feet from fire. Remove pull ring pin. Aim nozzle at _______ of fire. Squeeze trigger and sweep agent across the fire with a(n) __________ motion.
A. 8, base, side to side
B. 6, base, up and down
C. 8, top, top to bottom
D. 4, point, side to side

62. Halon 1211 byproducts become ___________ if exposed to ___________.
A. corrosive / moisture
B. corrosive / oxygen
C. toxic / oxygen
D. corrosive / high temperature

63. The MA-1 portable oxygen cylinder when charged to 300 psi, provides enough oxygen for about _____ of moderate activity at 25,000 feet.
A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 20 minutes
D. 45 minutes

64. To avoid possible injury to personnel on boarding stands, ensure _____ before ______.
A. door handle is in vertical position and check for entry of fire, smoke, or water / inflating escape slide
B. raft compartment door has separated from kit / allowing raft to approach the vortex generators
C. safety straps are fastened across door / inflating escape slide
D. escape slides are disconnected from the floor / opening personnel doors

65. Both the forward and aft lower deck cargo doors open the same way. To open from the inside, rotate handle one-eighth turn clockwise to unlock and then ______.
A. kick it hard to activate the panic release mechanism
B. pull it inward about six inches then slide it forward
C. push the aft edge outward and then pivot the door toward the front of the aircraft
D. push it out about six inches and then slide it aft

66. When using the MA-1 portable oxygen bottle, the regulator must be set to ______ at all times, unless another setting is needed to clear mask of smoke, or for pressure breathing.
A. the regulator altitude (30M or 42M) closest to the E-3 altitude
B. the regulator altitude (30M or 42M) which is closest but not less than actual E-3 altitude
C. NORM
D. EMER

67. If portable oxygen bottles are not properly secured, bottles ______.
A. can vibrate out of holder in flight, possibly causing injury to crew members
B. could be inaccessible during an actual emergency
C. will not have the quick release feature and acquisition delay might result during an actual emergency
D. may need to be purged

68. Continual use of an oxygen filler hose under adverse conditions can cause ____to form on the connector resulting in slow bottle filling and/or continuous oxygen leakage from that filler port after a bottle is removed.
A. oil
B. frost
C. dirt
D. grease

69. The Emergency Passenger Oxygen System may only provide breathable oxygen for as short as _______.
A. seven minutes
B. five minutes
C. eight minutes
D. three minutes

70. What two actions must be taken to completely separate an inflated escape slide from the E-3 when it is to be used as a raft after ditching?
A. Pull the deployment handle then pull the release mechanism before boarding
B. Manually separate the slide compartment then untie the lanyard after boarding
C. Activate the emergency release piston then press the door jettison switch before boarding
D. Pull ditching release strap then cut lanyard after boarding

71. When the raft is ______, the ______ should be clamped off to prevent complete loss of pressure if one tube is punctured.
A. inflating slowly due to a cold-soaked condition / equalization tube
B. not inflating / inflation cylinder inlet port
C. fully inflated / equalizer tube
D. completely separated from the E-3 / inflation cylinder relief valve

72. If possible, launch rafts over the ______ to avoid damage from flaps. Do not allow raft to contact the ______.
A. horizontal stabilizer / discharge probes
B. wing tips / outboard spoilers
C. outboard trailing edge of wing / ailerons
D. leading edge of wing / vortex generators

73. During ditching, the T.O. says you should inflate your LPU ______.
A. immediately after leaving the airplane
B. immediately before leaving the airplane
C. when notified over PA that ditching is imminent
D. after loading the 20-man raft

74. Ensure ______ before pulling the survival kit into the 20-man life raft.
A. the raft has fully inflated
B. the raft has separated from the E-3
C. there is room for all survivors
D. the raft compartment door has separated from the kit

75. _____ shall ensure the flight crew is aware that personnel are in lower compartments.
A. CSO
B. SD
C. ASO
D. MCC

76. When an emergency situation occurs in the airplane, the T.O. says to ______ then ______.
A. handle the emergency / make a PA announcement
B. notify the SD or MCC at once / handle the emergency
C. notify the flight crew at once / perform emergency procedures as directed
D. turn to the applicable section of the yellow pages / respond accordingly

77. If an escape slide fails to inflate, it can still be used for egress. The T.O. recommends accomplishing this by ______.
A. orally inflating the slide
B. having two crew members exit by climbing down the escape strap or by another exit, and holding the slide in the extended position
C. using the emergency escape strap (available at all main deck exits) to assist while descending the uninflated slide
D. using the nearest MA-1 portable oxygen bottle set to EMERGENCY to inflate the slide

78. If the 20-man life raft has been cold-soaked at temperatures below -20 degrees Celsius, it can take 20 to 30 minutes for the raft to inflate. If this occurs, what should you do?
A. Abandon the rafts because the sinking E-3 will pull an uninflated raft down with it
B. Place raft package in water to warm raft and inflation cylinder.
C. Pull the manual inflation strap located above the overwing hatch exit.
D. Clamp equalizer tube until one of the two chambers inflates completely.

79. When boarding the life raft, be sure no sharp objects such as rings, pencils, buckles, and similar objects contact the raft. Remain seated on the floor without sliding. In heavy seas, move more people to the __________of the raft.
A. upwind side
B. downwind side
C. center
D. outer ring

80. Do not heat canned food in the oven without first _____ the end of each container.
A. puncturing
B. removing
C. Either a or b
D. None of the above

1. To avoid possible injury to ground personnel, and to avoid possible jammed emergency
exit, nothing will be placed or stored _____.
A. next to the overwing escape hatches
B. in the forward or aft lower compartments
C. under the door seals of the entry and galley doors
D. near the pilots' sliding windows

2. If the seal is broken on the first aid kit, it must _____.
A. be removed from the airplane
B. inspected by medical personal
C. re-sealed
D. All of the above.

3. If you are in the lavatory and the FASTEN SEAT BELT sign illuminates, you will _____.
A. await aural warning signal confirmation of the emergency situation
B. remain in the lavatory until the sign is turned off
C. return to your seat
D. ensure the lavatory door is locked

4. The portable oxygen bottle purging procedure consists of: _____; recharging oxygen
bottle again; and securing the bottle.
A. recharging oxygen bottle (fill oxygen bottle to system pressure)
B. setting Altitude Selector Knob to EMER (allow pressure to drop to approximately 50 psi)
C. repeating recharge and purge of oxygen bottle for two cycles
D. All of the above.

5. Surveillance radar and identification systems should not radiate within _____ NM of
tanker airplane.
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 1 1/2
D. 2

6. At least _____ member(s) of the refill team will maintain communications on maintenance net.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. None of the above.

7. To increase situational awareness and promote radio communication deconfliction, AWACS monitor should monitor _____.
A. ATC frequency
B. UHF guard frequency
C. VHF guard frequency
D. maintenance net

8. It is the responsibility of _____ to store/secure personal and professional equipment carried on-board.
A. the ART
B. the FE
C. each crewmember
D. the technicians

9. If a fire is in crew trash bag, _____ can be used to extinguish the fire.
A. firefighter's gloves
B. water
C. portable oxygen bottle
D. None of the above.

10. The MCC will direct a(n) _____ to perform as a runner.
A. non-firefighter crewmember
B. AWO
C. AST
D. Either B or C.

11. General Aircrew, ABM, WD, ASOC, and JTAC's are responsible to know the capabilities and limitations of ______ for mission accomplishment.
A. communications and control facilities
B. coordination requirements
C. other weapons systems employed
D. all of the above

12. Aircrews will check-in with the controlling agency, such as AWACS, JSTARS, CRC, or Forward Air Controller Airborne (FAC(A)), ASOC, or JTAC, unless restricted for Operations Security or Communications Security, with all of the following except:
A. position
B. callsign and location
C. authentication as required
D. deviations or aborts affecting mission accomplishment

13. According to AFI 11-214, AWO/WD will accomplish all of the following upon aircraft check in EXCEPT:
A. Indicate negative/positive radar contact (if applicable)
B. Provide a brief to include location of friendly forces, civilians and no fire areas
C. If equipped with IFF/SIF, conduct an IFF/SIF check and advise aircrew of status "Sour" or "Sweet"
D. Obtain post mission requirements

14. When using altitude blocks for separation of aircraft, ensure deconfliction from friendly forces within ____ NM. Where visual deconfliction is not possible, utilize a minimum of ______ feet altitude separation or deconflict by geography, timing, onboard systems, or GCI/AWACS.
A. 15 / 1,000
B. 15 / 1,500
C. 10 / 1,000
D. 15 / 1,500

15. As conditions permit, AWOs/WDs will accomplish ______________during aircraft check-out.
A. Log aircraft "Fence Out" on AF Form 0-96
B. Request debrief comments, obtain final fuel, and pass RTB clearance
C. Provide recovery instructions including base status, copy and relay in-flight reports, assist in Minimum Risk (Safe Passage) procedures
D. Pass final shots, kills, and Mode IV results

16. During exercises, exercise directors can use which of the following for separation of aircraft:
A. Time and Space
B. Assigning specific geographical areas of flight
C. Altitude blocks to deconflict participating aircraft
D. All of the above

17. ______ is used to cease all tactical maneuvering and end the overall scenario when safety of flight is a factor and/or desired learning objectives (DLOs) either are met or are unattainable.
A. TERMINATE
B. BEADWINDOW
C. PITBULL
D. KNOCK-IT-OFF

18. ______ ceases all tactical maneuvering with the terminating aircraft or within a specific portion of a larger scenario.
A. TERMINATE
B. KNOCK-IT-OFF
C. PICTURE
D. BEADWINDOW

19. According to AFI 11-214, in a Communications Jamming environment, transmission required for safety will be prefaced with ______.
A. BREAK, BREAK
B. ALL PLAYERS, STANBY
C. SAFETY, SAFETY
D. CHATTERMARK

20. According to AFI 11-214, when conducting training missions in a designated airspace, avoiding lateral spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility; avoiding vertical spill-outs is a(n) ______ responsibility.
A. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / joint aircrew and ABM/WD
B. joint aircrew and ABM/WD / aircrew
C. pilot-aircrew / ABM/WD
D. ABM/WDs / ABM/WD

21. During air-to-air training missions, the ABM/WD will advise aircrew ______ .
A. bearing, range, heading and altitude (if available) of previously unreported
aircraft within 10 miles that are a potential hazard
B. when any aircraft approaches within 10 nm
C. when they approach airspace boundaries (3nm for fighters and 5nm for heavies) or as directed by the ATC agency
D. Both a and c

22. Aircraft may not transit or enter the altitude or altitude block of any adversary unless at least one of the following conditions applies:
A. All adversaries are beyond 10 nm (15nm for F-22/F-35)
B. Tally is established on all aircraft in the group of interest and no conflict with other groups within 10 nm exists.
C. Verbally confirms adversary's hard altitude and maintains required vertical separation
D. Any of the above are correct

23. TRUE or FALSE. Upon initial check-in, some or all of the check-in information may be omitted as required for Operations Security or Communications Security.
A. True
B. False

24. Prior to the "FIGHTS-ON" call, (or "vulnerability" start time), exercise directors, mission commanders, and ABM/WDs will notify, and receive acknowledgment from, all aircrews for any scenario changes affecting ______.
A. the "vul" time
B. RTO working frequency
C. ROE
D. safety of flight (e.g. airspace changes, weather in working area, block changes, altimeter setting, etc.)

25. IMC ONLY RULE. No later than _____NM (_____NM for F-22/F-35) GCI/AWACS (or the RTO as long as all players are tracking) will make a ______ call.
A. 5/10, heads up
B. 10/15, picture
C. 7/13, threat
D. 10/15, check blocks

26. The Passive Sensor Operator (PSO, or legacy Electronic Combat Officer) will _____.
A. monitor the accurate collection, display, and dissemination of Electronic Support (ES) data
B. estimate and/or predict the capabilities of hostile and friendly forces relative to the Electronic Order of Battle (EOB)
C. direct and/or coordinate the ES identification of all observed activity within designated areas with all Electronic Warfare (EW) assets.
D. All of the above

27. _____ will use proper International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) phrases, phonetic alphabet, and Radio/Telephone procedures outlined in ACP 121, US Sup 2.
A. CSOs only
B. All crewmembers
C. CTs only
D. WDs only

28. If a fighter has reported MUD, DEFENDING, or SINGER to a specified threat, no
_______ is required for it.
A. Combat Advisory Broadcast (CAB)
B. TACREP
C. SITREP
D. Imminent Threat Warning (ITW)

29. _____ is a request for information on a type (system) at stated location; implies a
request for ambiguity resolution.
A. TAG
B. WORKING
C. COLOR
D. ACTIVE

30. Ad hoc SITREPs should be requested and answered over VPN within __ minutes of request, and should include the last ___ minutes of activity (unless otherwise coordinated in MPC).
A. 2 / 5
B. 5 / 10
C. 10 / 15
D. 15 / 20

31. _____ is an RWR indication of a surface threat in search mode.
A. TOY
B. DIRT
C. FERRET
D. CANDYGRAM

32. _________ a request for the tactical ground picture in an area of interest.
A. LOWDOWN
B. COLOR
C. Combat Advisory Broadcast (CAB)
D. SITREP

33. Which is the highest priority in the LOWDOWN criteria?
A. Active/awake or previously active/awake strategic SAMS that were not part of the briefed EOB
B. Any active/awakeotating or previously active/awakeotating (within last hour) tactical SAMS
C. Correlated movers
D. Active/awake or previously active/awake Strategic SAMS that were briefed

34. Optimal PDS ___________ occurs when the AWACS orbit is oriented perpendicular to the threat axis.
A. Enemy Identification [EID]
B. dwell time
C. triangulation
D. Communication

35. When correlating a PDS report to a radar/IFF return, the LOB/Triangulated Site must be within __ or ___ (whichever is more restrictive) of the continuously updating radar/IFF return.
A. 3nm, 1°
B. 2nm, 4°
C. 1nm, 3°
D. 5nm, 10°

36. In order to call PDS Operational, the PSO will check the following:
A. Frequency range reception
B. Overload management
C. Triangulation
D. Both A and C

37. __________ immediately employ best-available anti-radiation missile against a specified threat at the specified bearing.
A. SNIPER
B. SLAPSHOT
C. DUFFER
D. CANDYGRAM

38. A ______ call ceases all tactical maneuvering and ends the overall scenario.
A. TERMINATE
B. KNOCK-IT-OFF
C. PITBULL
D. BEADWINDOW

39. ______ RWR indication of SAM launch.
A. MUD
B. CHATTERMARK
C. SNOOZE
D. SINGER

40. _____ indicates RWR ground threat displayed with no launch identification, or RWR indication of surface threat in track mode.
A. NAILS
B. HITS
C. MUD
D. SINGER

1. Send comments for change and suggested improvements to AFMAN 11-2E3V3 on an ____________.
A. AF Form 847
B. ACC Form 846
C. 552 ACW Form 152
D. 552 ACW Form 7

2. Crew rest for successive flight activity will begin when the last crewmember departs after completing related aircrew duties but not earlier than _________ after final landing from previous flight activity.
A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 8 hours
D. None of the above

3. Normally, use a show time of ________ hours prior to takeoff for sorties planned by aircrew and flown on the same day. If an MPC is used, the SQ/DO or MPC Chief will set the show time.
A. 4+00
B. 3+30
C. 3+00
D. 2+30

4. The technicians (CSO, CT, CDMT/ST, ART) and FE should arrive at the aircraft _______ prior to the scheduled takeoff time. All other crewmembers show at the aircraft no later than _______ prior to the scheduled takeoff time.
A. 2+30 hours / 2+15 hours
B. 1+00 hour / 1+00 hour
C. 1+30 hours / 1+30 hours
D. 1+30 hours / 1 hour

5. Flying crews may perform their own mission planning or units may utilize a Mission Planning Cell (MPC). The MPC will designate ________ individuals to perform mission planning and/or conduct briefings.
A. N-CMR
B. CMR
C. Qualified
D. Unqualified

6. [Non-DMA] Minimum crew augmentation will consist of an additional _____________ who are qualified and current in duties that will be performed.
A. AC, Nav, and FE
B. CP, Nav, and FE
C. AC or CP
D. AC or FE

7. The 552 OG is the Combat Air Force (CAF) lead for developing and maintaining the Minimum Equipment List (MEL) for use by all AWACS units.
A. True
B. False

8. Required Communication. Communicate the following to the applicable command post or operations center, unless local directives or tactical deception requirements specify otherwise: ________
A. Maintenance discrepancies which will delay preflight or takeoff (AC).
B. Anytime equipment malfunction or incident occurs that will adversely affect mission accomplishment. (AC/MCC)
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above

9. Transition duty day is a period of ________ that starts and runs concurrently with the _________ flight duty periods and applies to all flight crewmembers. (AFMAN 11-2E3 V3)
A. 12 hours / minimum
B. 12 hours / maximum
C. 16 hours / maximum
D. 16 hours / minimum

10. The GP/CC can approve requests to extend transition duty day to _____ hours.
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18

11. Readiness Posture _____denotes an aircraft and crew capable of launching within 1 hour from notification. Crews designated for this alert duty should normally be housed in a designated alert facility.
A. One (RP-1)
B. Three (RP-3)
C. 15 (RP-15)
D. 18 (RP-18)

12. _______ hours of pre-alert crew rest is required prior to assuming RP-3 alert.
A. 3
B. 1
C. 12
D. 15

13. Maximum flight duty period for RP-1 and RP-3 crews is ________ hours (Not augmented).
A. 16
B. 18
C. 24
D. 12

14. If alert duty is performed away from normal quarters (e.g. alert facility or billeting) for a period of ____hours or more, compensation time off will be 1 day for every 4 days on alert duty, unless waived by the applicable group commander or designated representative.
A. 72
B. 96
C. 24
D. 48

15. Except for emergency checklist items, use of the PA by the mission crew is restricted to the _____.
A. CSO
B. MCC
C. MCC and SD
D. MCC and ASO

16. Debrief maintenance as soon as practical after engine shutdown. The AC, FE, ART, CDMT/ST, CT, and any crewmember making an entry in the ________________, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document, will attend. SLs and/or MCCs should attend if time permits.
A. AFTO Form 781A
B. AFTO Form 817
C. AF Form 213
D. AF Form 381A

17. The ______ is responsible for the security of classified mission documents and software. While deployed or during enroute stops, COMSEC and software can be stored on the aircraft when U.S. security personnel are used as the entry controller. COMSEC will be stored in the Command Post during stops at locations where no U.S. security personnel are available. The MCC/AC will designate crewmember(s) to provide security for software and COMSEC by remaining with the aircraft if a Command Post is unavailable.
A. CSO
B. MCC
C. AC
D. MCC or the AC if an MCC is not available

18. Personal Publications Requirements. Local units will issue each crewmember publications IAW__________, USAF Flight Manuals Program as supplemented.
A. AFI 11-215
B. AFI 33-215
C. T.O. 1E-3A-43-1-1
D. T. O. 00-20-1

19. The __________ is responsible for mission planning. The __________ is responsible for preparing the crew for and executing mission taskings.
A. Aircraft Commander (AC); Mission Crew Commander (MCC)
B. flight commander
C. SD and ASO
D. squadron DO

20. The _____, after coordination with the AC on equipment issues which affect aircraft systems, must approve continued operations of malfunctioning mission equipment that would affect the mission.
A. AC
B. FE
C. MCC
D. squadron commander

21. The AWACS monitor and MCC must:
A. maintain awareness of the E-3s position
B. maintain awareness of the E-3s altitude
C. have both radar and IFF to assume AWACS Monitor
D. Both A and B

22. AWACS monitor _________ monitor ATC frequency for increased SA and to prevent interference between flight crew and ATC.
A. must always
B. shall
C. should
D. will

23. If the E-3 can fulfill the ID matrix and has the ability to declare a contact hostile, __________________ on board the E-3 can complete the ID matrix. The MCC may restrict this and retain hostile declaration authority or delegate it as mission needs dictate.
A. any crew member
B. the Battle Director
C. a Mission Commander
D. any Air Battle Manager (AWO/SD/ASO/ECO/MCC)