IQT 5

69 flashcardsby Stowe
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1
Avalanche
Informatory call indicating friendly forces require reinforcement in a specific location3
2
Awake
Land or surface emitter activity detected via communications intelligence. Opposite of ASLEEP. (COMINT)
3
Bucket
C2 is experiencing radar electronic deceptive jamming in a specified geographic area.
4
Gopher
A BOGEY that has not conformed to safe passage routing, airspeed, or altitude procedures. Will only be used when safe passage or minimum risk routing procedures are part of an ID matrix.
5
Leaker
Airborne threat has passed through a defensive layer. Call should include amplifying information.
6
Lean
Refers to a 45 degree maneuver in the direction voiced by tac C2 for 45 seconds followed by a 90 degree maneuver toward the previous route for 45 seconds to give escort time to kill the threat.
7
Spin
3 minute 360 degree maneuver in place. Designed to place the aircraft in approximately the same location 3 minutes after the spin maneuver was issued
8
Skate
Informative or directive call to execute launch and leave tactics at a pre-briefed range. Modifiers can include LONG and SHORT.
9
Scram
Friendly asset is in immediate danger. Withdraw clear in the direction indicated for survival. No further mission support from the friendly asset is expected.
10
Magnum
Launch of friendly anti-radiation missile
11
Millertime
Completion of A to S ordinance delivery. generally used by the last striker in conjunction with a precoordinated egress plan.
12
Hostile Intent
This is the threat of imminent use of force against the United States, United States forces, or other designated persons and property, or intended to impede the mission of United States forces.
13
What ALR is the JFACC willing to accept substantial losses to achieve an objective but wants to ensure the additional assets can be brough into theater via time phased forced deployment data flow or allow a full 72 hour ATO to execute before the initial unit is rendered ineffective.
ALR Significant
14
When loss rates must be managed to ensure the campaign is sustainable over several months, a JFACC will set what acceptable level of risk?
ALR Moderate
15
What two key pieces of information are used to evaluate risk?
Probability of event occurring and Level of consequences
16
Describe the rule of thirds for CAP management
1/3 on tank, 1/3 in transit. 1/3 in the lane
17
What constitutes a Hostile Act
Attack or other use of force against US forces, or other designated persons or property. Also includes force used directly to preclude or impede the mission or duties of US forces including the recovery of US personnel or vital US government property.
18
Weapons Free
Fire only at targets not identified as friendly IAW current ROE
19
Weapons tight
Engage only targets positively identified as hostile IAW current ROE
20
Weapons Hold
The most restrictive status. Units may only fire in self-defense or when ordered by proper higher authority.
21
DEZ (Desired Engagement Zone)
Geographic area where fighters execute primary gameplan. Desired area of wreckage fall.
22
HREZ (High Risk Engagement Zone)
Protect assets at all cost
23
MEZ (Missel Engagement Zone)
(S to A) Where missiles expect to have impact
24
What is the PAC 3 interceptor used for
Tactical Ballistic Missile
25
What is the MEZ azimuth of a Patriot
120 Degree Fan
26
This Army position is the single point of contact between Army land-based Air and Missile Defense (AMD) fire direction centers and the joint controlling authority to include the SLIC and SL.
ADAFCO
27
When dealing with weapons control what is the difference between targeting Air breathing Targets and TBMs
TBMs will ALWAYS be targeted
28
What is the PAC 2 interceptor used for
Targeting Air Breathing Targets
29
What FRIENDLY Surface to Air Missile system is Long range, all weather, and mobile
MM-104 Patriot
30
What document(s) describes specific actions that E-3 crew members are required to do during an E-3 Retrograde
AFTTP 3-1 AWACS, AFTTP 3-3 AWACS
31
Who is the primary monitor for E-3 Self Defense procedures
SLIC
32
The primary threat monitor coordinates with who to recommend phases of retrograde
AC
33
List the five threat systems that should be considered when planning for E-3 and HVAA protection
AAA, SAMS, Naval, EA, AI// (Not Early Warning Radar)
34
What kind of retrograde should occur when there is a high concentration of HVAA in a compressed area?
Integrated
35
What is the ALR of the E-3/ HVAA
36
E-3 is a ALR of...
ALR Low
37
What type of target is armor, troops in the open, large military/industrial complexes, airfields, and rails
Area Target
38
What percentage of weapons should fall within the defined CEP (circular error probable)
50%
39
The paveway III family includes which bombs
GBU 24
GBU 27
GBU 28
40
The AGM-65 maverick uses either ____ or ____ optics
IR (infrared)
EO (Electro Optical)
41
The GBU-38 is a _____ lb JDAM
500
42
Why is the CBU-87 known as the Combine Effects Munition (CEM)?
Incendiary and penetration and fragmentation
43
List the five D's executed during a typical SEAD mission
Denial, Degradation, Deception, Disruption, Destruction
44
What is the definition of Denial
Eliminates utility of an enemy's targeting system typically without destruction
45
What is the definition of Disruption
Temporarily impairs specific target nodes of an enemy's system usually without physicals damage
46
List the 4 USAF SEAD Aircraft that can Execute all aspects of the F2T2EA process
F-16CM, F-22, EC-130, MQ-9
47
What type of SEAD missions suppresses or destroys "pop-up" surface-to-air threats?
RSEAD (Reactive SEAD)
48
Explain the three categories of RSEAD
Immediate, Deliberate, and Alert
49
What is the definition of Immediate RSEAD
RSEAD occurs when element of joint forces locates enemy AD assets and targets while it is in the process of conducting another mission. (Timeliest response to pop-up enemy AD assets)
50
What is the definition of Deliberate RSEAD
Coordinated Response with assets diverted from other missions to suppress emerging enemy AD threats. (Allows for pre-planned response)
51
What is the definition of Alert RSEAD
Responds to threats requiring dedicated RSEAD planning.
52
What are the 4 Ts that should be considered when planning sweep operations
Task, Target, Threat, Tactic
53
What drives the TASK in OCA sweep integration
Commanders Intent
ATO
ROE
SPINS
ACO
AOD
OPSTASKLINK
54
Name the 3 commonly used escort methods
Close, Detached, and Self
55
What type of escort ties the Sweep assets to protected the strike assets (within 20nm)
Close Escort
56
Abort
a directive call to cease action attack event or mission and is directive for all flight members to immediately execute a departure from tactic in progress
57
What type of escort creates a complex gameplan based on targets and weapon priorities
Self Escort
58
What is the definition of JPRC
SAR facility jointly staffed to plan coordinate and execute joint CSAR Ops
59
What is the definition of RESCORT
Protects rescue force and survivors from ground threats. Also assists in locating Isolated Personnel
60
What are some of the actions an E-3 crew would need to accomplish to recover the downed personnel in an AOR
Appoint OSC, Coordinate CSAR nets/Com plan, Manage flow of aircraft to and from objective area, successfully recover IPs without further loss of friendly assets (ALL OF THE ABOVE)
61
What UHF AM hardware connects C2 and CSAR assets
PTIU
62
Who plans the E-3 retrograde plans
MPC
63
What is the definition of Point Defense
Conducted for the protection of a limited area. Usually in defense of the vital elements of friendly forces and installations
64
What is Lane Defense
DCA option provides established areas in which specific aircraft are tasked to patrol and defend
65
What is Area Defense
Defense of a broad area using a combination of weapons systems
66
Active
Referenced emitter is emitting at stated location or along stated bearing (ELINT)
67
(don't have full question) Governing document used in theater provides the comprehensive air defense picture
AADP (Area Air Defense Plan)
68
(T/F) Time and Space required to complete OCA missions depends on CSAR
False
69
What is an example of a SDB (Small diameter bomb)
GBU-39
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