1What is the correct order of the stages of bone healing after a fracture?
- B. Inflammatory → Soft Callus → Hard Callus → Remodeling
- A. Inflammatory → Hard Callus → Soft Callus → Remodeling
- C. Remodeling → Soft Callus → Hard Callus → Inflammatory
- Remodeling → Hard Callus → Soft Callus → Inflammatory
2Which type of connective tissue includes the superficial sheath of body tissue under the skin, muscle, and nerve sheaths, and the framework of internal organs?
- C. Loose irregular connective tissue
- D. Loose regular connective tissue
- B. Dense irregular connective tissue
- A. Dense regular connective tissue
3The cuboid bone is located just posterior to the:
- D. Tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal
- B. Head of the first metatarsal
- A. Base of the first metatarsal
- C. Medial cuneiform bone
4The metacarpophalangeal joints are classified as what type of joint?
- D. Saddle
- A. Plane
- B. Hinge
- C. Condyloid
5Which muscle would move the abducted (90 degrees) arm anteriorly?
- B. Clavicular head of the pectoralis major
- A. Sternocostal head of the pectoralis major
- D. Pectoralis minor
- C. Inferior fibers of the serratus anterior
6Which one of the following structures does NOT pass through the foramen magnum of the occipital bone?
- B. Meninges
- C. Cranial nerve XII
- D. Vertebral artery
- A. Spinal cord
77.Contraction of which muscle produces extension of the head?
- B. Longus capitis
- D. Sternocleidomastoid
- A. Spinalis cervicis
- C. Longus colli
8The nucleus pulposus is thickest in which region of the spine?
- A. Lumbar spine
- D. Cervical spine
- C. Superior half of the thoracic spine
- B. Inferior half of the thoracic spine
99.The speed of muscle contraction is a function of which of the following factors?
- A. Resting length of the muscle fiber
- B. Cross-sectional diameter of the muscle
- C. Creatine phosphate of the muscle
- D. Glycolytic capacity of the muscle
10Which of the following describes the proper normal anatomy of the proximal carpal row, from lateral to medial?
- D. Scaphoid, hamate, lunate, capitate
- A. Capitate, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
- C. Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
- B. Lunate, trapezium, capitate, hamate
11A therapist is testing key muscles on a patient who recently suffered a spinal cord injury. The current test assesses the strength of the long toe extensors. Which nerve segment primarily innervates this key muscle group?
1212.What is the closed-packed position of the shoulder?
- B. External rotation and abduction
- C.Internal rotation and adduction
- D. External rotation and adduction
- A. Internal rotation and abduction
13A patient with a diagnosis of a rotator cuff tear has just begun active range of motion. The therapist is strengthening the rotator cuff muscles to increase joint stability and oppose the superior shear of the deltoid. Which of the rotator cuff muscles participate least in opposing the superior sheer force of the deltoid?
- C. Teres minor
- A. Infraspinatus
- B. Subscapularis
- D. Supraspinatus
14What portion of the adult knee meniscus is vascularized?
- A. The outer edges are vascularized
- B. The inner edges are vascularized
- D. The entire meniscus is avascular
- C. The entire meniscus is vascular
1515.At what age does a human have the greatest amount of fluid in the intervertebral disc?
- A. 1 year
- B. 4 years
- C. 7 years
- D.10 years
16Which of the following is an example of a diarthroidal joint in the body?
- A.Coronal suture
- B. The fibrous joint between the shaft of the tibia and fibula
- C. Symphysis pubis
- D. Metacarpophalangeal
17A 27-year-old woman is referred to a physical therapy clinic with a diagnosis of torticollis. The right sternocleidomastoid is involved. What is the most likely position of the patient's cervical spine?
- D. Left lateral cervical flexion and right cervical rotation
- C. Left cervical rotation and left lateral cervical flexion
- B. Right cervical rotation and right lateral cervical flexion
- A. Right lateral cervical flexion and left cervical rotation
1818.Observing a patient in a standing position, the therapist notes that an angulation deformity of the right knee causes it to be located medially in relation to the left hip and left foot. This condition is commonly referred to as:
- A. Genu varum
- B. Genu valgum
- C. Pes cavus
- D. None of the above
1919.Which of the following is the most vulnerable position for dislocation of the hip?
- A. 30 degrees hip extension, 30 degrees hip adduction, and minimal internal rotation
- D. 30 degrees hip extension, 30 degrees hip abduction, and minimal external rotation
- C. 30 degrees hip flexion, 30 degrees hip abduction, and minimal external rotation
- B. 30 degrees hip flexion, 30 degrees hip adduction, and minimal external rotation
20Which of the following articulate with the second cuneiform?
- B. Talus
- D. Cuboid
- A. Navicular
- C. First metatarsal
2121.The terms below refer to properties of water that make hydrotherapy valuable to a variety of patient populations. Match the following terms with the statement that best relates to each term: 1. Viscosity, 2. Buoyancy, 3.Relative density, 4. Hydrostatic pressure:
I.I. This property can assist in the prevention of blood pooling in the lower extremities of a patient in the pool above waist level
II.II. This property makes it harder to walk faster through water
III.III. A person with a higher amount of body fat can float more easily than a lean person because of this property
IV.IV. This property makes it easier to move a body part to the surface of the water and harder to move a part away from the surface
- B. 1-II, 2-IV, 3-III, 4-I
- A. 1-II, 2-III, 3-IV, 4-I
- D. 1-I, 2-III, 3-II, 4-IV
- C. 1-III, 2-II, 3-I, 4-IV
22Which of the following is not part of the triangular fibrocartilage complex of the wrist?
- B. Ulnar collateral ligament
- C. Radial collateral ligament
- A. Dorsal radioulnar ligament
- D. Ulnar articular cartilage
2323.A physical therapist is attempting to explain the importance of slow stretching to an athlete training to compete in a marathon. The therapist explains that quick stretching often causes the muscle to ______,which is a response initiated by the _______, which are located in the muscle fibers:
- A. Relax, Golgi tendon organs
- B. Contract, Golgi tendon organs
- D. Contract, muscle spindles
- C. Relax, muscle spindles
24Temporomandibular anterior disc displacement without reduction occurs between the:
- A. Disc and the lower joint compartment
- B. Disc and the ementia articularis
- C. Disc and the lateral pterygoid muscle
- D. Disc and the upper joint compartment
25What are the signs and symptoms of a temporomandibular anterior displaced disc with reduction?
- B. Clicking with opening
- A. Crepitation with loss of opening
- D. Temporomandibular joint tenderness and loss of opening
- C. No clicking with loss of opening
26What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for lateral movements?
- C. Contralateral rotation and ipsilateral translation
- B. Bilateral rotation
- A. Bilateral translation
- D. Ipsilateral rotation and contralateral translation
2727.What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for protrusion?
- C. Ipsilateral rotation with contralateral translation
- A. Bilateral anterior translation
- D. Bilateral rotation
- B. Bilateral posterior translation
28What is the normal TMJ arthrokinematics for wide opening?
- B. Combination of rotation occurs first 26 mm then anterior translation
- D. Bilateral rotation
- C. Combination of anterior translation occurs first 26 mm then anterior rotation
- A. Bilateral translation
29Which of the following neural fibers are the largest and fastest?
- D. B fibers
- A. C fibers
- B. A beta fibers
- C. A delta fibers
30A posterior lateral herniation of the lumbar disc between vertebrae L4 and L5 most likely results in damage to which nerve root?
- C. L4 and L5
- B. L5
- A. L4
- D. L5 and S1
31A therapist is examining a patient in the intensive care unit. The therapist notes no eye opening, no verbal response, and no motor response. On the Glasgow coma scale, what is the patient's score?
32What are the four stages, in time order, of wound healing after surgery?
- A. Coagulation, inflammatory phase, granulation phase, and scar formation and maturation
- C. Scar formation and maturation, granulation phase, coagulation phase, and inflammatory phase
- B. Inflammatory phase, coagulation, scar formation and maturation, and granulation phase
- D. Inflammatory phase, granulation phase, coagulation, and scar formation and maturation
33Releasing hormones that regulate the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland are synthesized in the:
- A. Hypothalamus
- B. Cerebral cortex
- C. Thalamus
- D. Basal ganglia
34Erythropoietin is a hormone required for the production of red blood cells. It is produced primarily in the:
- A. Kidney
- B. Lung
- C. Marrow
- D. Pancreas
35Which abdominal organs does the thoracic cage protect?
- D. Spleen, pancreas, adrenal gland, and ovaries
- A. Spleen, liver, adrenal gland, and upper portion of kidneys and stomach
- B. Pancreas, liver, and vermiform appendix
- C. Gallbladder, urinary bladder, liver, and uterus
36Which of the following muscles of the pharynx is supplied by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)?
- B. Stylopharyngeus
- D. Middle constrictor
- C. Superior constrictor
- A. Palatopharyngeus
37In abdominal examination, the spleen lies in which of the following quadrants?
- D. Lower right quadrant
- C. Lower left quadrant
- B. Upper right quadrant
- A. Upper left quadrant
38Inhibition of the internal urethral sphincter allows the body to:
- D. Ejaculate
- B. Defecate
- C. Hold the urine until later
- A.Micturate
39Which of the following hormones stimulates ovulation in the female?
- C. Prolactin
- D. Luteinizing hormone
- B. Growth hormone
- A. Follicle-stimulating hormone
40Whiplash injury from a rear-end collision would tear the:
- A. Posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL)
- B. Anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL)
- C. Ligamentum nuchae
- D. Ligamentum flavum
41A patient cannot find his dentures when they are on his crowded bedside table. His visual acuity tests at 20/20 with the Snellen eye chart. The physical therapist suspects problems with:
- B. Body scheme awareness
- C. Agraphia
- A. Figure-ground discrimination
- D. Vertical orientation
42You will be performing an examination on a patient diagnosed with Down's syndrome. Which are the correct phenotypic features in Down's syndrome?
- D. Developmental delay, leukemia, atlantoaxial instability
- C. Large cerebellum and brainstem, atlantoaxial instability, leukemia
- B. Developmental delay, simian crease, hypertonia
- A. Leukemia, hypotonia, joint hypomobility
43A patient who is 3 months pregnant asks advice on activities. Previous prepartum activities included rock climbing, soccer, and hiking. Which of the activities would you recommend?
- D. Hiking
- A. Rock climbing
- C.Nothing, she's pregnant
- B. Soccer
44Which is NOT a reason for the common postural changes seen during pregnancy?
- A. Ligament laxity
- B. Posterior shift in COG
- C. Increased breast size
- D. Enlarging uterus
45Which of the following comprise the diagnostic criteria for "female athlete triad" syndrome?
- A. Dieting, dizziness, and weakness
- B. Drop in blood pressure, fatigue, and disordered eating
- C. Stress fracture, fatigue, cold hands and feet
- D. Disordered eating, osteoporosis, amenorrhea
46Your patient has a lesion of the left superior gluteal nerve. When your patient is in left unilateral stance you may observe the:
- D. Lumbar spine is side bent to the right
- A. Right ASIS is higher than the left ASIS
- B. Right ASIS is anterior to the left ASIS
- C. Trunk side bending to the left
47A smaller than normal angle of inclination at the hip is called:
- A. Anteversion
- B. Retroversion
- C. Coxa vara
- D. Coxa Valga
48Hip extension may be limited by all the following tissues except:
- B. Iliopsoas muscle
- D. Gluteus minimus posterior fibers
- A. Iliofemoral ligament
- C. Ischiofemoral ligament
49The pes anserine insertion is palpable at the ________ and includes the tendons of the ______.
- C. Medial tibia, sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus
- A. Medial tibia, semimembranosus, semitendinosis, and gracilis
- B. Lateral tibia, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and iliotibial band
- D. Medial femur, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and iliotibial band
50The glenoid faces somewhat:
- A. Lateral and inferior and posteriorly
- C. Medial and superior and anteriorly
- B. Lateral and superior and anteriorly
- D. Medial and inferior and posteriorly
51A defining symptom of fibromyalgia is:
- A. Fatigue
- B. Diffuse pain
- C. Regional pain
- D. Unexplained weight loss
52Morton's neuroma is usually located between which metatarsal heads?
- B. Second and third
- A. First and second
- D. Fourth and fifth
- C. Third and fourth
53The Waddell tests are used to identify:
- A. Pain of a nonorganic origin
- B. Space-occupying lesions
- C. Balance and coordination functions
- D. History of alcohol or substance abuse
54While assessing the standing posture of a patient, the therapist notes that a spinous process in the thoracic region is shifted laterally. The therapist estimates that T2 is the involved vertebra because he or she notes that it is at the approximate level of the:
- C. Spine of the scapula
- D. Xiphoid process of the sternum
- A. Inferior angle of the scapula
- B. Superior angle of the scapula
55While ambulating a stroke patient (the right side is the involved side), the therapist notes increased circumduction of the right lower extremity. Which of the following is an unlikely cause of this deviation?
- A. Increased spasticity of the right gastrocnemius
- B. Increased spasticity of the right quadriceps
- C. Weak hip flexors
- D. Weak knee extensors
56Which of the following does the therapist observe if a patient is correctly performing an anterior pelvic tilt in standing position?
- D. Hip extension and lumbar extension
- A. Hip extension and lumbar flexion
- B. Hip flexion and lumbar extension
- C. Hip flexion and lumbar flexion
57At what point in the gait cycle is the center of gravity the lowest?
- A. Double support
- B. Terminal swing
- C. Deceleration
- D. Midstance
58A 14-year-old girl with right thoracic scoliosis is referred to physical therapy. The therapist should expect which of the following findings?
- B. Left shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip high
- D. Right shoulder low, right scapula prominent, and left hip high
- C. Right shoulder high, right scapula prominent, and right hip high
- A. Left shoulder high, left scapula prominent, and right hip high
59What is the most likely cause of anterior pelvic tilt during initial contact (heel strike)?
- A. Weak abdominals
- D. Back pain
- C. Weak abductors
- B. Tight hamstrings
60A posterior lateral herniation of the lumbar disc between vertebrae L4 and L5 most likely results in damage to which nerve root?
61A patient is positioned by the therapist with the cervical spine rotated to the right. The patient then extends the neck as the therapist externally rotates and extends the right upper extremity. The patient is then instructed to hold a deep breath. The radial pulse is palpated in the right upper extremity by the therapist. What type of special test is this, and for what condition is it testing?
- C. Adson's maneuver, thoracic outlet syndrome
- A Adson's maneuver, cervical disc herniation
- B. Lhermitte's sign, cervical disc herniation
- D. Lhermitte's sign, thoracic outlet syndrome
62The therapist observes a patient with the latter stages of Parkinson's disease during ambulation. Which of the following characteristics is the therapist most likely observing?
- B. Increased step width
- D. Increased cadence especially at the onset of gait
- C. Wide base of support
- A. Shuffling gait
63A therapist is examining the gait pattern of a patient and notes that the pelvis drops inferiorly on the right during the midswing phase of the right lower extremity. The patient also leans laterally to the left with the upper trunk during this phase. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this deviation?
- A. Weak right gluteus medius
- B. Weak right adductor longus
- C. Weak left gluteus medius
- D. Weak left adductor longus
64A therapist is screening a patient complaining of pain at the anterior left shoulder region. The pain is increased when the examiner instructs the patient to position the left arm by his side with the elbow flexed at 90 degrees and to actively supinate the forearm against resistance (provided by the examiner). What test is being performed?
- A. Froment's sign
- B. Yergason's test
- C. Waldron test
- D. Wilson test
65A springy block end-feel in a joint is indicative of:
- D. An unstable joint
- C. A meniscal tear
- A. Normal end feel
- B. An inflamed capsule
66Which impairment occurs in carpal tunnel syndrome?
- A. Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence
- B. Paresthesia over the dorsal aspect of the hand
- C. Decreased resisted thumb abduction
- D. Decreased resisted forearm pronation
67The L4 deep tendon reflex is elicited at the:
- A. Achilles tendon
- B. Femoral tendon
- C. Medial hamstring tendon
- D. Patella tendon
68A patient presents to an outpatient clinic with complaints of shoulder pain. The therapist observes a painful arc between 70 degrees and 120 degrees of active abduction in the involved shoulder. This finding is most indicative of what shoulder pathology?
- C. Impingement
- B. Acromioclavicular joint separation
- A. Rotator cuff tear
- D. Labrum tear
69A tennis player receives a surgical repair of the annular ligament. Where should the therapist expect to note the most edema?
- B. Olecranon bursa
- A. Radial ulnar joint
- C. Ulnohumeral joint
- D. Lateral triangle
70A physical therapist is asked by a coworker to finish examining a patient because an emergency requires the therapist to leave. The coworker agrees and resumes the examination. The first therapist left notes titled, "sensory assessment." Two wooden blocks identical in appearance but 1 pound different in weight are on the table in front of the patient. What test was the prior therapist most likely performing?
- B. Stereognosis test
- D. Texture recognition
- A. Barognosis test
- C. Graphesthesia test
71A patient is referred to physical therapy with a history of temporomandibular joint pain. The therapist notices that the patient is having difficulty closing his mouth against minimal resistance. With this information, which of the following muscles would not be a target for strengthening exercise to correct this deficit?
- A. Medial pterygoid muscle
- B. Temporalis
- C. Masseter
- D. Lateral pterygoid
72A physical therapist performs the following test during an examination: With the patient lying in supine position, the therapist traces a diamond shape around the patient's umbilicus with a sharp object. What reflex is being assessed, and what is the significance if the patient's umbilicus does not move in response to the stimulus provided by the therapist?
- B. Superficial abdominal reflex, suggests upper motor neuron involvement
- C. Cremaster reflex, suggests lower motor neuron involvement
- A. Cremaster reflex, suggests upper motor neuron involvement
- D. Superficial abdominal reflex, suggests lower motor neuron involvement
73The patient has dysdiadochokinesia. What is the best measure of patient function?
- B. Alternating pronation/supination
- C. Rebound test
- A. Drawing figure eight
- D. Static balance
74Upon observation, the patient has unilateral LEFT facial weakness. He is unable to smile or show his teeth on the left side. However, he is able to raise his left eyebrow. The physical therapist suspects:
- D. Central cranial nerve 7 lesion
- A. Peripheral cranial nerve 5 lesion
- C. Peripheral cranial nerve 7 lesion
- B. Central cranial nerve 5 lesion
75A therapist is asked to estimate the percentage of a patient's body that has been burned. The patient is a 32-year-old man of normal size. Burns are located along the entire anterior surface of the face. The patient also burned the entire anterior portion of the right upper extremity in an attempt to guard himself from flames. Using the rule of nines, what percentage of the patient's body is burned?
76The celebrated "Scotty Dog" appears on what x-ray projections?
- A. Lumbar AP
- B. Lumbar oblique
- C. Coned lateral
- D. Lumbar lateral
77You are examining a child with a fractured distal femur. The fracture begins at the medial aspect of the distal diaphyseal region, progresses distal-laterally through the metaphysis, epiphyseal plate, and epiphyseal region, exiting into the knee joint surface. This would be classified as a Salter Harris type ____ fracture:
78Following a suspected stress fracture of the third metatarsal bone, bone callus would normally first become radiographically visible at about:
- A. 3 to 4 days
- B. 10 to 14 days
- C. 2 to 4 months
- D. 6 to 18 months
79At a team meeting, the respiratory therapist informs the rest of the team that the patient, just admitted to the subacute floor, experienced breathing difficulty in the acute care department. The respiratory therapist describes the breathing problem as a pause before exhaling after a full inspiration. Which of the following is the therapist describing?
- A. Apnea
- B. Orthopnea
- C. Eupnea
- D. Apneusis
80A therapist is performing chest physiotherapy on a patient who is coughing up a significant amount of sputum. The therapist later describes the quality of the sputum in his notes as mucoid. This description tells other personnel which of the following?
- D. The patient has a possible bronchopulmonary infection
- B. The sputum has a foul odor
- C. The sputum is clear or white in color
- A. The sputum is thick
81A therapist is sent to provide passive range of motion to a patient in the intensive care unit. The chart reveals that the patient is suffering from pulmonary edema. The charge nurse informs the therapist that the patient is coughing up a thin, white sputum with a pink tint. Which of the following terms best describes this sputum?
- C. Mucopurulent
- A. Purulent
- B. Frothy
- D. Rusty
82A patient with cryoglobulinemia presents to outpatient physical therapy with complaints of lumbar pain. Which of the following should the physical therapist avoid during intervention for this diagnosis?
- A. Moist heat packs
- B. Weight-bearing exercises
- C. Muscle energy techniques
- D. Cold pack application
83Which muscle does NOT flex the knee and extend the hip?
- A. Semitendinosus
- B. Hamstring portion of the adductor magnus
- C. Long head of the biceps femoris
- D. Semimembranosus
84A therapist is examining a 3-year-old child, who is positioned as follows: supine, hips flexed to 90 degrees, hips fully adducted, and knees flexed. The therapist passively abducts and raises the thigh, applying an anterior shear force to the hip joint. A click at 30 degrees of abduction is noted by the therapist. What orthopedic test is the therapist performing, and what is its significance?
- A. Ortolani's test, hip dislocation
- B. Apley's compression/distraction test, cartilage damage
- C. McMurray test, cartilage damage
- D. Piston test, hip dislocation
85During an examination, the therapist taps on the flexor retinaculum of the patient's wrist, which causes tingling in the thumb. What test is this? For what condition does it screen?
- A. Phalen's test, carpal tunnel
- B. Finkelstein test, De Quervain's disease
- C. Tinel's sign, De Quervain's disease
- D. Tinel's sign, carpal tunnel
86The physical therapist is reading the physician's interpretation of an x-ray that was taken of the left humerus of a 7-year-old patient. The physician notes in the report the presence of an incomplete fracture on the convex side of the humerus. Which type of fracture is the physician describing?
- A. Comminuted
- B. Avulsion
- C. Greenstick
- D. Segmental
87A physical therapist is beginning an examination of a 5-year-old boy. The mother indicates that she pulled the child from a seated position by grasping the wrists. The child then experienced immediate pain at the right elbow. The physician's orders are for right elbow range of motion and strengthening. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- D. Ulnar coronoid process fracture
- C. Erb's palsy
- A. Radial head fracture
- B. Nursemaid's elbow
88A child presents to physical therapy with a diagnosis of right Sever's disease. What joint should be the focus of the therapist's examination?
- C. Right wrist joint
- D. Right ankle joint
- B. Right hip joint
- A. Right knee joint
89Which tendon is most commonly involved with lateral epicondylitis?
- D. Extensor digitorum
- A. Extensor carpi radialis longus
- B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
- C. Brachioradialis
90A patient who has suffered a zone 2 rupture of the extensor tendon of the third digit presents to physical therapy. This patient had a surgical fixation of the avulsed tendon. During the period of immobilization, which of the following deformities is most likely to develop?
- A. Boutonniere deformity
- B. Claw hand
- C. Swan neck deformity
- D. Dupuytren's contracture
91A 35-year-old patient presents with complaints of pain and point tenderness slightly anterior to the temporomandibular joint. The tissue that likely is causing the pain is the:
- C. Maxillary sinus
- B. Masseter
- D. Parotid gland
- A. Temporalis tendon
92Osgood-Schlatter's disease is primarily:
- A. An inflammatory process
- B. An injury to apophyseal cartilage
- C. An injury in adolescent females
- D. Caused by tight calf muscles
93You suspect that your patient has a torn rotator cuff. Which three tests would best confirm this diagnosis?
- A. The lift off test, the anterior apprehension test, and Speed's test
- B. The drop arm test, crank test, load and shift test
- C. The belly press test, drop arm test, and lift off test
- D. Internal rotation lag sign, drop arm test, crank test
94A patient recently diagnosed with multiple sclerosis presents to a physical therapy clinic. The patient asks the therapist what she needs to avoid with this condition. Which of the following should the patient avoid?
- A. Hot tubs
- B. Slightly increased intake of fluids
- C. Application of ice packs
- D. Strength training
95The therapist is examining a patient with a diagnosis of cerebral palsy. The therapist notes that all of the extremities and the trunk are involved. Further assessment also reveals that the lower extremities are more involved than the upper extremities and that the right side is more involved than the left. This patient most likely has which classification of cerebral palsy?
- B. Spastic triplegia
- C. Spastic quadriplegia
- D. Spastic diplegia
- A. Spastic hemiplegia
96A 31-year-old man has loss of vision in one eye, staggering gait, numbness in bilateral upper extremities, and decreased bowel and bladder control. The episodes of these symptoms have occurred every few weeks for the past 6 months. Each episode has been slightly worse than the last. What is the most likely condition?
- A. Parkinson's disease
- B. Guillain-Barre syndrome
- C. Multiple sclerosis
- D. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
97A 35-year-old woman suffered brain injury in a motor vehicle accident and presents with an intention tremor, nystagmus, hypotonia, and dysdiadochokinesia. What is the most likely location of the lesion?
- B. Dorsal columns
- D. Cerebellum
- A. Basal ganglia
- C. Frontal lobe
98A therapist is examining a patient in the intensive care unit. The therapist notices that the patient is moving his hands and fingers in slow, writhing motions. Which of the following terms best describes this type of movement?
- D. Athetosis
- B. Ballismus
- A. Lead-pipe rigidity
- C. Chorea
99The classification of a nerve injury that would produce pain, muscle wasting, complete motor and sympathetic function loss with a recovery time of months, with sensation restored before motor function best describes:
- A. Neuropraxia
- B. Axonotmesis
- C. Neurotmesis
- D. Axonopraxia
100When performing resistive testing to determine the integrity of the C5 myotome, the physical therapist should examine which of the following movements?
- C. Thumb extension
- B. Elbow extension
- A. Wrist radial deviation
- D. Elbow flexion