Phase 1 Test

Question 1. What does the ratio on a Bien-Air handpiece mean?

A. The number on the left of the colon is how many times the motor spins; the number on the right of the colon is how many times the device in the handpiece spins.

B. The number on the right of the colon is how many times the motor spins; the number on the left of the colon is how many times the device in the handpiece spins.

C. The ratio of the handpiece the doctor selects is dependent on how many teeth they need to remove that day.

D. The number on the left of the colon does not mean anything; the number on the right is the speed the motor spins.

Question 2. The Bien-Air Impaction handpiece has a ratio of ____?

A. 20:1

B. 1:2

C. 2:1

Question 3. What is the maximum RPM of the impaction handpiece when using it on the Chiropro L?

A. 80,000 RPMs

B. 100,000 RPMs

C. 40,000 RPMs

D. 2,000 RPMs

Question 4. What is the order of sprays for Bien-Air handpiece maintenance?

A. Spraynet (Red), Lubrifluid (Blue), Aquacare (Teal)

B. Lubrifluid (Blue), Spraynet (Red), Aquacare (Teal)

C. Aquacare (Teal), Lubrifluid (Blue), Spraynet (Red)

D. Aquacare (Teal), Spraynet (Red), Lubrifluid (Blue)

Question 5. What is the brightness (lux) of each of the Spectra headlights?

A. G3 – 300,000 lux, G6 – 200,000 lux, G9 – 100,000 lux

B. G3 – 300,000 lux, G6 – 200,000 lux, G9– 100,000 lux

C. G3 – 10,000 lux, G6 – 20,000 lux, G8 – 30,000 lux

D. G3 – 100,000 lux, G6 – 200,000 lux, G8 – 300,000 lux

Question 6. What is the battery life of the Spectra G3 headlight?

A. 8 hours

B. 5 hours

C. None of these

D. 10 hours

Question 7. Who is the main customer for the Bien-Air Chiropro L Premium system?

A. ENT

B. Dentists

C. Oral surgeons

D. Plastic surgeons

Question 8. What Type of Surgery is a straight 1:2 handpiece mainly used for?

A. Dental implants

B. IPS Preprosthetic

C. Pre-drilling in CMF plating

D. Wisdom tooth extraction

Question 9. What type of surgery is a Bien-Air reciprocating saw typically used for?

A. Orthognathic surgery

B. Craniosynostosis

C. Thoracic surgery

D. Neurosurgery

Question 10. In pectus surgery, how many connector bars do we recommend for a 2-bar construct?

A. 3

B. 1

C. 2

D. 4

Question 11. What material are pure pectus bars made out of?

A. Titanium alloy

B. Commercially pure titanium

C. Nickel

D. Stainless steel

Question 12. What torque is the torque-indicating handle set to?

A. 2.0 in-lb

B. 1.36 in-lb

C. 2.0 N-m

D. 1.36 N-m

Question 13. Which of these pectus bar constructs is off-indication?

A. 2 angled

B. 2 crossed bars

C. 3 straight bars

D. 1 angled & 1 straight

Question 14. What is the thickness of the tapered portion of the pectus bars?

A. 2.25 mm

B. 3 cm

C. 3 mm

D. 2.25 cm

Question 15. Which of these encompasses the sizes of our pectus bars?

A. 17-42 in

B. 20-38 in

C. 20-50 cm

D. 17-42 cm

Question 16. What material is the Recon Talon made of?

A. CP Ti

B. Ti alloy

C. Tungsten

D. Stainless steel

Question 17. What is the minimum number of Recon Talons recommended for a full sternectomy?

A. 4

B. 2

C. 3

D. 5

Question 18. What is the thickness of the Recon Talon?

A. 2.5 mm

B. 3 mm

C. 2.25 mm

D. 3.5 mm

Question 19. When implanting the Recon Talon, how many screws need to be on either side of the sternum?

A. 6

B. 3

C. 8

D. 5

Question 20. What type and grade of metal are the gold rib plates?

A. Grade 2 CP Ti

B. Ti alloy

C. Stainless steel

D. Grade 4 CP Ti

Question 21. What type and grade of metal are the green and copper rib plates?

A. Grade 2 CP Ti

B. Grade 4 CP Ti

C. Ti alloy

D. Stainless steel

Question 22. What length of screw does the L1 Rib system use?

A. 6 mm screws

B. 7-17 mm screws

C. 9 mm screws

D. 7 mm screws

Question 23. Which is NOT a characteristic of PEEK rib plating?

A. Shape memory

B. Bone reduction using the plate

C. Radiolucent

D. Can fixate cartilage fractures

Question 24. Rib plates can be used to span gaps and fixate the coastal arch.

A. False

B. True

Question 25. What material are the L1 Sternal plates?

A. Stainless steel

B. Nickel

C. Titanium alloy

D. CP Ti

Question 26. What length of screw does the L1 Sternal system use?

A. 6-16 mm screws

B. 7 mm screws

C. 8-18 mm screws

D. 7-17 mm screws

Question 27. Which is NOT a characteristic of the L1 Sternal Screw Guides?

A. Allows for plate contouring

B. Allows for 360 degrees of handle rotation

C. Reusable

D. Allows for screw angulation

Question 28. How many sternal talons should be implanted for a primary sternotomy closure?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 1

D. 4

Question 29. What is the proper way to measure the sternum for sternal talon sizing?

A. Measure both sides of the sternum’s width and add them together, then measure both sides of the sternum’s depth and add those values together.

B. Measure one half of the sternum’s width and one half of the sternum’s depth, then double both values.

C. Measure both sides of the sternum’s depth and use the smaller value, then measure both sides of the sternum’s width and add them together.

D. Measure both sides of the sternum’s depth, both sides of the sternum’s width, and add them together.

Question 30. CranioSculpt-C has a longer “implant & manipulate” time than CranioSculpt-FLOW.

A. False

B. True

Question 31. What is the maximum surface area that CranioSculpt is indicated for the repair or filling of neurosurgical burr holes or cranial bone defects?

A. 5 cm²

B. 100 cm²

C. 50 cm²

D. 25 cm²

Question 32. All KBM logistics are handled by XTANT.

A. True

B. False

Question 33. Which of the following is the scaffold component of the bone remodeling triad?

A. Osteogenesis

B. Osteoinduction

C. Osteoporosis

D. Osteoconduction

Question 34. What do the colors indicate in the neurological 3D mesh catalog?

A. Plate thickness; Gold = 0.6 mm, Pink = 0.8 mm, Blue = 1.0 mm

B. Plate thickness; Pink = 0.6 mm, Gold = 0.8 mm, Blue = 1.0 mm

C. Plate thickness; Gold = 0.6 mm, Blue = 0.8 mm, Pink = 1.0 mm

D. Plate thickness; Blue = 0.6 mm, Pink = 0.8 mm, Gold = 1.0 mm

Question 35. What are the different speeds of the MaxDriver 2.0 (in RPMs)?

A. “Blink Fast” at 3000, “Fast” at 750, and “Reverse” at 400

B. “Blink Fast” at 2200, “Fast” at 600, and “Reverse” at 450

C. “Blink Fast” at 2650, “Fast” at 800, and “Reverse” at 450

D. “Blink Fast” at 2500, “Fast” at 800, and “Reverse” at 350

Question 36. What does the color blue indicate on the Standard Approach Mesh?

A. Inferior

B. Interior

C. Superior

D. Anterior

Question 37. Which of the following is a procedure in which the skull bone flap is removed but not immediately replaced?

A. Cranioplasty

B. Craniectomy

C. Hemicraniectomy

D. Craniotomy

Question 38. All KLS Martin neuro screws are drill-free.

A. True

B. False

Question 39. Smart Mesh is primarily used for:

A. Cranioplasty

B. Hemicraniectomy

C. Craniotomy

D. Craniectomy

Question 40. What are the plate profiles for the KLS Martin ultraOne Neuro plating set?

A. 1.35 mm

B. 0.35 mm

C. 1.0 mm

D. 0.6 mm

Question 41. KBM is a system that harvests the patient’s own bone and can collect cortical or cancellous bone types.

A. False

B. True

Question 42. CranioSculpt is used for bone augmentation in the alveolar ridge. It is made from human bone and regenerates bone quickly after implantation.

A. True

B. False

Question 43. In distraction osteogenesis, the ______ period occurs immediately after the osteotomy and device placement.

A. Latency

B. Remodeling

C. Consolidation

D. Distraction

Question 44. Which phase of distraction treatment involves turning the patient activation screwdriver to gradually lengthen the bone?

A. Device removal

B. Distraction

C. Consolidation

D. Latency

Question 45. In adults, what is the typical rate of distraction?

A. 3 mm per day

B. 2 mm per day

C. 0.5 mm per day

D. 1 mm per day

Question 46. Which distractor is designed for very small, pediatric patients, typically under 12 months old?

A. Hyperdrive

B. Zurich

C. RED

D. Micro Zurich

Question 47. This is the premature fusion of one or more cranial sutures.

A. Micrognathia

B. Hypospadias

C. Spina bifida

D. Craniosynostosis

Question 48. Which of the following is a common indication for mandibular distraction?

A. Micrognathia

B. Cervical instability

C. Nasal septum deviation

D. Orbital fractures

Question 49. Which phase of distraction treatment allows the newly formed bone to fully harden without further activation of the device?

A. Osteotomy

B. Distraction

C. Consolidation

D. Latency

Question 50. During the consolidation phase the distractor device is typically left in place while the new bone fully forms.

A. False

B. True

Question 51. SonicPins Rx come in which of the following diameters (mm)?

A. 2.0, 3.0

B. 1.6, 2.0

C. 1.6, 2.1

D. 1.5, 2.0

Question 52. Resorb x and Resorb xG implants must be transported and stored at room temperature with the max temperature being 98°F.

A. True

B. False

Question 53. When setting up the Xcelsior waterbath, how much time is required for the water to reach optimum temperature?

A. 10-15 min

B. 15-20 min

C. 5 min or less

D. 20-30 min

Question 54. What is the resorption time (in months) for SonicWeld Resorb x (Rx) and Resorb xG (RxG)?

A. Rx 12-30; RxG 12-14

B. Rx 12-14; RxG 12-30

C. Rx 12-24; RxG 12-14

D. Rx 12-30; RxG 12-24

Question 55. All SonicWeld Rx mesh are compatible with both Resorb x and Resorb xG Sonic Pins.

A. False

B. True

Question 56. At what point during treatment can the activation arms be removed?

A. Before consolidation

B. After consolidation

C. Before latency

D. After latency

Question 57. For a baby, what is a typical rate of distraction?

A. 1-2 mm per day

B. 3-5 mm per day

C. 5+ mm per day

D. 0-1 mm per day

Question 58. For an adult, what is a typical latency period length?

A. 2-3 days

B. 0-1 days

C. 8-12 days

D. 4-7 days

Question 59. What is the minimum recommended patient age for safe and effective use of the L1 MMF system?

A. 10 years

B. 8 years

C. 12 years

D. 16 years

Question 60. Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for use of the L1 MMF system?

A. Adolescents with fully erupted permanent dentition

B. Active infection

C. Insufficient bone quantity or quality

D. Patients with mental or neurological conditions

Question 61. Which L1 MMF design feature most directly reduces the risk of tooth-root injury?

A. Fixed midline plate design

B. Adjustable slider plates that allow controlled placement in the dental safe zone

C. Posterior hook configuration

D. Locking screw design

Question 62. How does the L1 MMF system protect gingival tissue during fixation?

A. By eliminating the need for wiring

B. Wire-reverse-thread screws and an integrated spacer fork

C. Through plate cut points alone

D. Through rigid posterior fixation

Question 63. What profile thickness does KLS Martin CP Titanium Grade 4 mandible plates come in?

A. 2.0 mm

B. 1.5 mm

C. 2.3 mm

D. 2.7 mm

Question 64. The majority of KLS Martin TLTS mandible fracture plates are manufactured from which material?

A. Titanium alloy

B. CP Titanium Grade 2

C. Stainless steel

D. CP Titanium Grade 4

Question 65. Which of the following are appropriate applications for a load-sharing plate? (Select all that apply)

A. Comminuted fracture

B. Champy principle fixation

C. Simple mandible fracture

D. Mandible reconstruction using a fibula

E. Subcondylar fracture

Question 66. Which of the following are appropriate applications for a load-bearing plate? (Select all that apply)

A. Simple mandible fracture

B. Comminuted fracture

C. Mandible reconstruction using a fibula

D. Subcondylar fracture

E. Champy principle fracture

Question 67. When plating a parasymphyseal mandible fracture, which force loads must be considered? (Select all that apply)

A. Load-bearing

B. Distraction

C. Torsional

D. Load-sharing

E. Moisture

Question 68. When plating the Mandible, which nerves must the surgeon be aware of? (Select all that apply)

A. Facial nerve

B. Supraorbital nerve

C. Mandibular nerve

D. Cervical nerve

E. Mental nerve

Question 69. The KLS Martin External Fixator (X-Fix) may be used to treat which of the following scenarios? (Select all that apply)

A. Highly comminuted closed fractures

B. Fractures associated with active infection

C. Compliant patients only

D. Tumor resections and burn management

E. Isolated facial sports injuries

F. Non unions and delayed unions, especially when associated with infection

Question 70. The key to proper lag screw fixation is:

A. Bone forceps are not required to reduce the fracture

B. A glide hole drilled to the fracture line, with the screw head countersunk into bone

C. Use of a 2.7 mm screw

D. Measurement is less important than plate placement

Question 71. Which flaps may be used by Head & Neck surgeons to reconstruct a mandible defect following a gunshot wound? (Select all that apply)

A. Fibula flap

B. Iliac crest flap

C. Scapula flap

D. Radial forearm flap

Question 72. A graft is a piece of tissue that remains attached to the bone by a major artery and vein at its base, maintaining its original blood supply.

A. True

B. False

Question 73. What is the primary difference between a MaxDrive screw and a OneDrive screw?

A. MaxDrive uses a cross-style drive, while OneDrive uses a star drive interface

B. MaxDrive screws are self-drilling, OneDrive screws are not

C. MaxDrive screws are stainless steel, OneDrive screws are titanium alloy

D. OneDrive screws have a lower profile but higher torque displacement over the head

Question 74. The 1.2 mm CMF screws are available in which head style?

A. CenterDrive

B. OneDrive

C. MaxDrive

D. LCrossDrive

Question 75. CMF midface trauma may involve which of the following bony fracture sites? (Select all that apply)

A. Le Fort fractures

B. Orbital floor

C. Zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC)

D. Frontal sinus

E. Parasymphysis

F. Nasal/NOE complex

Question 76. Le Fort fractures are classified into how many levels?

A. Four

B. One

C. Two

D. Three

Question 77. An orbital floor fracture may involve how many different bones?

A. Six

B. Ten

C. Four

D. One

Question 78. SMART plates are anatomically designed to fit the average patient anatomy.

A. True

B. False

Question 79. Panfacial fractures are most commonly treated using which of the following principles? (Select all that apply)

A. Top-to-bottom midface repair

B. Mandible repair last

C. Bottom-to-top fixation sequence

D. Mandible repaired first

Question 80. A typical CMF midface trauma case may include which of the following instruments or implant sets? (Select all that apply)

A. TLTS set

B. Office fixation

C. L1 1.2 mm micro set

D. Level one midface set

Question 81. Which statement best describes the role of midface fixation in trauma care?

A. It restores occlusion only

B. It replaces the need for reconstruction plates

C. It is primarily cosmetic

D. It stabilizes fractures while restoring facial projection and orbital support

Question 82. When a surgeon asks for detailed treatment advice about orbital contents or diplopia and enophthalmos, the most appropriate rep response is to:

A. Provide surgical guidance based on experience

B. Recommend a specific plate and screw construct

C. Escalate to clinical support or defer to the surgeon’s judgment

D. Explain how you would personally approach fixation

Question 83. Which of the following clinical conditions may indicate the need for orthognathic surgery? (Select all that apply)

A. Open bite or malocclusion

B. Difficult chewing, biting, or swallowing

C. Facial asymmetry or disproportional profile

D. Chronic TMJ pain or headaches

Question 84. KLS Martin orthognathic plating systems are most commonly designated by which screw size?

A. 1.5 mm and 2.0 mm

B. 0.6 mm and 1.0 mm only

C. 2.0 mm and 2.3 mm

D. 1.0 mm and 1.2 mm

Question 85. During Le Fort fixation, plates are typically placed along which anatomical structures?

A. Bony buttresses of the midface

B. Tooth roots

C. Nasal cartilage

D. Inferior alveolar canal

Question 86. Which Off-the-Shelf (OTS) plate styles are commonly used during Le Fort osteotomies? (Select all that apply)

A. L-plates

B. Z-plates

C. Reconstruction plates

D. Upside-down T-plates

Question 87. In a bilateral sagittal split osteotomy (BSSO), which fixation method may be used to connect the two mandibular segments? (Select all that apply)

A. Biocortical screws

B. Wire fixation only

C. Locking BSSO plates

D. Monocortical plates

Question 88. Which fixation options may be used for genioplasty procedures? (Select all that apply)

A. Positional bicortical screws

B. Pre-stepped chin plates

C. Wire fixation

D. Smith & Griffin plates with 2.0 mm screws

Question 89. What does FAB stand for in the KLS Martin orthognathic system?

A. Form – Anatomy – Balance

B. Fixation – Alignment – Balance

C. Function – Aesthetics – Bone

D. Facial – Airway – Bite

Question 90. Which statement best describes the value of the FAB / Arnett system?

A. A cosmetic-only plating system

B. A limited plate offering for simple cases

C. A comprehensive system designed to support facial balance, airway, and occlusion

D. A trauma-only fixation platform

Question 91. An adverse event must be called into 411 within how many hours?

A. 12 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

Question 92. Which of the following would need to be reported to the 411 Team? (Select all that apply)

A. Broken product found on an x-ray

B. Twist Drill breaks during a case. RPM was 40,000

C. IPS cutting guide predictive holes are too small

D. Sterile package did not include correct number of products

E. IPS Cutting Guide was etched incorrectly. Where it said “Knee” it should have said “Ankle” and vice-versa

Question 93. What type of manufacturing does KLS Martin Manufacturing use to produce IPS reconstruction plates?

A. Milling

B. Deep-drawing

C. Additive

D. Subtractive

Question 94. What software does KLS Martin use for the planning of IPS Orthognathic cases?

A. FreeForm

B. IPS Gate

C. Accuity

D. IPS CaseDesigner

Question 95. How many titanium cutting slots are provided with cases utilizing polyamide fibula guides?

A. 1

B. 3

C. 2

D. As many as needed

Question 96. In order to produce IPS Implants, what must the CT slice increment be?

A. Equal to 0.5 mm

B. Less than or equal to 1 mm

C. Less than or equal to 1.25 mm

D. Less than 2 mm

Question 97. In what materials can we provide mandibular fracture reduction IPS plates?

A. Both Titanium alloy and commercially pure titanium

B. Titanium alloy

C. Commercially pure titanium

D. PEEK

Question 98. IPS Titanium Cranial Implants are available in which of the following configurations? (Select all that apply)

A. Solid

B. SLM rigid

C. Perforated, or solid with holes

D. Mesh

Question 99. What is the more common IPS material used for malar augmentation?

A. Polyamide

B. PEEK

C. Titanium alloy

D. Crystal

Question 100. If you witness a surgeon using a KLS Martin product in a manner not cleared by the FDA, it is your responsibility to do the following: (Select all that apply)

A. Submit a 411

B. Report it to the OR clinical team lead

C. Have them sign an Off-Label Form

D. Notify your SC, DM, and AD