Chemistry

Q1. Identify whether the given statements about ionisation energy are correct or incorrect.
Statement A: The ionisation energy of an atom is the amount of energy that is required to remove an electron from a mole of atoms in the gas phase.
Statement B: The ionisation energy increases from top to bottom in groups and decreases from left to right across a period.

Q2. In which year did Carl Anderson discover a positively charged particle called "positron" whose mass appears to be equal to the mass of an electron?

Q3. In which year did Niels Bohr propose a theory for the hydrogen atom based on the quantum theory that some physical quantities take only discrete values?

Q4. Which are the four quantum numbers for an electron present in 4f orbital?

Q5. The correct electronic configuration of Cu is:

Q6. What does it mean when an object has a positive charge?

Q7. What is the relative charge of a proton and neutron?

Q8. Which of the following pairs of 'number - composition' is correct? I. Atomic number - number of protons II. Mass number - Sum of number of neutrons and protons

Q9. What is the atomic mass of sodium?

Q10. Which of the following is the correct representation of the number of atoms?

Q11. What is the maximum number of electrons that the third orbit or M-shell can have?

Q12. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding Rutherford's nuclear model of an atom?

Q13. Which of the following pairs of 'elements - valency' is correct? I. Boron - 2 II. Fluorine - 3

Q14. Which theory discusses the relationship between ligand bonding and degradation of d orbitals in metal complexes and the geometry of metal complexes and the splitting of d orbitals?

Q15. What kind of forces arise from transient dipoles in atoms that induce transient dipoles in nearby atoms, produce an attractive force and are significant only over short distances (~500 pm)?

Q16. In 1898, whose theory propounded that the ionsroups bonded to the metal by secondary bonding have spatial arrangements corresponding to different characteristics coordination number?

Q17. What is the atomicity of Phosphorus?

Q18. Which formula is used to represent the three-dimensional structures of molecules using a two-dimensional surface like a sheet of paper or a computer screen?

Q19. In the electronic configuration of an atom, what does ‘n’ signify in the formula 2n²?

Q20. According to Dalton’s atomic theory, atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form ______.

Q21. If the size of the nucleus of an atom is compared with a cricket ball, then the radius of the atom is approximately equal to how many kilometers?

Q22. The first electron shell which is the nearest to the nucleus never holds more than 'n' electrons, where 'n' is equal to:

Q23. Which of the following is NOT an alkaline earth metal?

Q24. What is the name of the seventh most abundant metal in the earth's crust, which is derived from the medieval Latin word 'Kalium'?

Q.25. Which chemical element with atomic number 35 has a dark reddish-brown liquid with a burning pungent odour?

Q.26. An image of which of the following elements is shown by the map of Cyprus from which the element got its name?

Q.27. Which radioactive isotope has a half-life of 5770 years, which is commonly used to estimate the age of organic materials such as paper and parchment?

Q.28. Which metal ion released from the tannery industry causes acute water pollution?

Q.29. What is the most stable mineral during the process of weathering?

Q.30. From which Latin word is the s-block element calcium derived?

Q.31. Which element of Group 17 has two isotopes of masses 35 and 37 amu with average abundance of 75.77% and 24.23%, respectively?

Q.32. Which of the following are metalloids?

Q.33. Which among the following alloys is a combination of gold and silver?

Q.34. Which of the following is a non-metal that can exist in different forms?

Q.35. What is the characteristic of isotopes?

Q.36. Which of the following metals is always a component in an amalgam?

Q.37. Oxides of ____ and ______ dissolve in rain water and form acids which are called acid rain.

Q.38. Which among the following alloys is made up of copper and zinc?

Q.39. Which of the following statements is correct?

Q.40. Which of the following statements is/are NOT correct? I. The property of metals by which they can be beaten into thin sheets is called malleability. II. The property of metal by which it can being drawn into wires is called ductility.

Q.41. Which of the following liquids can dissolve noble metals such as gold and platinum?

Q.42. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the alkali metals?

Q.43. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Q.44. Choose the most reactive metal from the options given below.

Q.45. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

Q.46. Which of the following metals reacts violently with cold water?

Q.47. Which of the following metals having atomic number 3 is a soft, silvery metal with very low density that reacts vigorously with water and corrodes quickly in air?

Q.48. Identify the INCORRECT pair with respect to the substances and their specific heat capacity (Jkg⁻¹K⁻¹) at room temperature and atmospheric pressure.

Q.49. The particles of which metal on heating to the boiling point of 357°C go from liquid state to gas state?

Q.50. The name of which element is derived from an Anglo-Saxon word and its symbol comes from the Latin word ‘Aurum’?

Q.51. Which metal sulphate, composed of potassium, aluminium, and sulphate ions in the ratio 1 : 1 : 2, plays a role as a flame retardant, a mordant and an astringent?

Q.52. Ozone is an allotrope of ______.

Q.53. How many protons are there in a lithium nucleus?

Q.54. Which of the following is a low-grade brown coal that is soft with high moisture content?

Q.55. Which of the following is a property of silicon dioxide?

Q.56. Which of the following minerals has kieserite as its ore?

Q.57. Identify the alloy among the following of which lead is a component.

Q.58. Which of the following is one of the metals used in LED semiconductor technology?

Q.59. Which of the following metals reacts with the moist carbon dioxide in the air and slowly loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat?

Q.60. Which one of the following features is NOT shown by metals?

Q.61. What is the Atomic Number of the element Einsteinium?

Q.62. Which of the following is an example of a pair of Isobars?

Q.63. Which is the rarest element?

Q.64. Which of the following is used as a substitute for mercury in thermometers?

Q.65. Name the only metal that is antibacterial.

Q.66. Constantan is an alloy of copper and _____.

Q.67. A 100 mL solution having 0.01 moles of NaOH dissolved in it. The pH of the solution is:

Q.68. Match List-I with List-II.

Q.69. Which potassium salt is a mineral supplement used to treat or prevent low levels of potassium in the blood?

Q.70. The reaction between an acid and a base is known as_______

Q.71. Which acid destroys the bacteria that enter the stomach?

Q.72. Which acid is predominantly present in tomatoes?

Q.73. Which among the following is a covalent compound?

Q.74. Which of the following is used as an antacid to neutralise stomach acidity?

Q.75. When the litmus solution is neither acidic nor basic, its colour is ______.

Q.76. Which of the following acids makes the pH of vinegar acidic?

Q.77. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. Salts of a strong acid and weak base are acidic with pH value less than 7.
II. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium oxide.

Q.78. Which of the following bases is found in lime water?

Q.79. Which of the following statements is correct?

Q.80. Which of the following substances has a pH value of about 14?

Q.81. pH of milk of magnesia is_________.

Q.82. Which of the following is a natural acid-base indicator?

Q.83. How does hydrochloric acid help in facilitating the action of pepsin?

Q.84. Which of the following is NOT the correct match?

Q.85. Which of the following acids is found in spinach?

Q.86. Which of the following bases is found in window cleaner?

Q.87. Which of the following pairs of ‘Natural source – Acid’ is NOT correctly matched?

Q.88. Aqua regia is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of ______ by volume.

Q.89. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than ______.

Q.90. Muriatic acid is another name of which compound used in the production of chlorides, fertilizers, and dyes, in electroplating, and in the photographic, textile and rubber industries.

Q.91. What happens when an acid or a base is mixed with water?

Q.92. What does ‘p’ in pH stand for?

Q.93. Identify the acid that helps in digestion.

Q.94. Who synthesized acetic acid for the first time?

Q.95. What do you call a base that dissolves in water?

Q.96. The acidic nature of soil is shown by high concentration of ______.

Q.97. The salinity of ocean waters is calculated as the amount of salt (in gm) dissolved in ______ gm of seawater.

Q.98. Which of the following is NOT a natural acid-base indicator?

Q.99. When an ant bites, it injects acidic liquid (formic acid) into the skin. What among the following should be applied to the skin to neutralise it?

Q.100. Which of the following is another name for folic acid?

Q.101. Litmus paper changes to ______ colour when put in soap water.

Q.102. Which of the following is the most widely used method for refining impure metals?

Q.103. Which is the most common ore of oxidised mercury that occurs in granular crusts or veins associated with volcanic activity and hot springs?

Q.104. The process in which metals are extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point is called________.

Q.105. Which of the following is the highest quality coal?

Q.106. Which of the following is a tough, porous and black substance, and almost a pure form of carbon?

Q.107. Dolomite is an ore of:

Q.108. ______ is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of aluminium.

Q.109. Which of the following fibres is used to make rayon cloth?

Q.110. According to a law postulated by ______, the amounts of different substances liberated by the same quantity of electricity passing through the electrolytic solution are proportional to their chemical equivalent weights.

Q.111. With reference to metals and their ores, which of the following pairs is INCORRECT?

Q.112. Which unsaturated aliphatic hydrocarbon composed of 20 carbon atoms is used to make candles and paraffin wax with solar energy storage capacity?

Q.113. Which synthetic aromatic organic compound inhibits the chemical breakdown of food that occurs in the presence of oxygen, commonly used in foods such as crackers, microwave popcorn, butter and chicken nuggets?

Q.114. Tribromomethane is a synonym for which brominated organic solvent?

Q.115. Methyl ethyl ketone is also known as:

Q.116. Which of the following does NOT belong to the family of organic compounds?

Q.117. Which compound structure includes a saturated short-chain fatty acid with 4-carbon molecules, commonly found in esterified form in animal fats and plant oils?

Q.118. What is the IUPAC name of the organic compound depicted in the figure?

Q.119. What is the chemical formula for the aldehyde group?

Q.120. Which of the following is a primary arylamine in which an amino functional group is substituted for one of the benzene hydrogens?

Q.121. Which of the following is a white to yellowish solid with a weak aromatic odour purified by the process of sublimation?

Q.122. What is the systematic name of a colourless gas with a faint, ethereal odour called acetylene, widely used for welding?

Q.123. Chaoite, Buckminsterfullerene and Graphene are related to which element?

Q.124. Which potassium acid salt is obtained as a by-product of alcohol manufacture during the fermentation process?

Q.125. Lactitol is derived through the hydrogenation of:

Q.126. Which of the following is a straight-chain alkane containing 12 carbon atoms that are used as a major component in kerosene and some jet fuel research and also in the rubber and paper processing industry?

Q.127. Which organic chemical compound is reacted with nitrous acid at 273-278K to prepare benzenediazonium chloride?

Q.128. In which dialdehyde are two formyl groups attached to adjacent carbon centres on a benzene ring and form fluorescent conjugation products with primary amines?

Q.129. Heating ethanol with excess concentrated sulphuric acid produces:

Q.130. Which of the following is a valid bond in alkenes that connects carbon atoms?

Q.131. Which of the following compounds having the molecular formula C2H is derived from the hydride of acetylene?

Q.132. Trichloromethane is better known as:

Q.133. What is the product formed when CH3CH2OH reacts with O2?

Q.134. _____ is a naturally occurring organic compound with the formula (C6H5)2CO.

Q.135. Which element was arbitrarily assigned a value of 4.0 in the ‘Halogens’ section in 1922 by Linus Pauling, an American scientist?

Q.136. 1,3-Dimethylbenzene is also known as:

Q.137. A class of organic compounds that contain an oxygen between two alkyl groups is called:

Q.138. Which of the following organic compounds is synonymous with olefiant gas which is used to make anaesthetics, refrigerants, and other chemicals?

Q.139. Dry ice, ammonium chloride, naphthalene balls, and camphor, all these compounds are an example of:

Q.140. Pectin, which is responsible for the firmness and softness of fruits, is mainly composed of which acid unit?

Q.141. What is the colour of the flame when unsaturated hydrocarbons burn?

Q.142. Butan-2-ol is a:

Q.143. Choose the correct set of the names for the organic compounds in the given figure.

Q.144. What is the strength of a hydrogen bond determined by?

Q.145. Which among the following elements is used in moisturising creams and soaps because of its hygroscopic properties?

Q.146. Identify a class of compounds that has a functional group -OH.

Q.147. In organic chemistry, which of the following is an empirical rule used to predict the regioselectivity of electrophilic addition reactions of alkanes and alkynes?

Q.148. What is the suffix for –OH group according to IUPAC?

Q.149. Name an alkylbenzene widely used as a chemical intermediate in the production of phenol.

Q.150. Which of the following is a strong reducing agent used to reduce aldehydes, ketones, esters, carboxylic acid chlorides, carboxylic acids and even carboxylate salts to alcohols?

Q.151. Which organic compound has the structure R−COOH, with R referring to the alkyl, alkenyl, aryl, or other group?

Q.152. Identify the correct statement with respect to unsaturated hydrocarbons.

Q.153. Which of the following is NOT an allotrope of carbon?

Q.154. Compounds with exactly two double carbon – carbon bonds are known as ______.

Q.155. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding hydrocarbons?

Q.156. Propane and butane are the main components of which of the following gases?

Q.157. Isopentane, also called ________, is a branched-chain saturated hydrocarbon with the chemical formula 𝐶5𝐻12.

Q.158. Find the correct chemical formula of nitromethane.

Q.159. Identify the structural formula for ethene.

Q.160. Identify the method that is NOT used to purify organic compounds.

Q.161. Which group was given the name ‘paraffin’ earlier?

Q.162. Which chemical compound, with the chemical formula (CH3CH2Cl), is used as a blowing agent in foamed plastics?

Q.163. Which functional group compound is obtained by the reaction of an oxoacid with a hydroxyl compound, such as alcohol or phenol?

Q.164. Which of the following is an organic compound with the formula C6H4Cl2 that is used as a fumigant insecticide to control cloth moths?

Q.165. In the format of the IUPAC name of the organic compound, the term ‘Root’ is used to represent:

Q.166. What is the name of the compound having the formula CH3CH2OH?

Q.167. Which of the following is an example of monosaccharides?

Q.168. Which of the following is NOT a property of graphite?

Q.169. With symbols having their usual meanings, which one among the following is used as the standard for defining atomic mass unit?

Q.170. The three-carbon molecules broken down from six-carbon molecules of glucose during the first step in the process of nutrition in all organisms is called:

Q.171. How many carbon and hydrogen atoms are there in Propane, respectively?

Q.172. What is the bond angle (in degrees) in the structure of a benzene molecule?

Q.173. The behaviour of lithium is similar to that of magnesium. This sort of similarity is commonly referred to as:

Q.174. What are the elements in group zero commonly known as?

Q.175. What was the symbol Henry Moseley used for denoting atomic number?

Q.176. Which of the following is the correct sequence of alkaline earth metals, according to atomic number?

Q.177. Identify an element that has atomic number 7.

Q.178. Out of the following metals, choose the odd one out on the basis of their place in the periodic table.

Q.179. Which of the following options are all transition metals?

Q.180. Which German chemist was the first to show a graphical representation of the periodicity of an atomic volume plotted against atomic weight?

Q.181. Identify whether the given statements about p-block elements are correct or incorrect.

Q.182. Which of the following elements is a member of the actinide series?

Q.183. Which element of the boron family has a high boiling point, making it ideal for recording temperatures that would vaporize a thermometer?

Q.184. Which chemical element of Group 18 of the periodic table is produced by the natural radioactive decay of uranium in soils and rocks?

Q.185. Which radioactive element with atomic number 43 in the modern periodic table is unstable, and the half-lives of all its isotopes are relatively short, from 4.2 million years to 5.0 s?

Q.186. Which soft metal in group 1 of the periodic table tarnishes within a few seconds of exposure to air?

Q.187. In which year did John Alexander Newlands propound a new concept of the ‘Law of Octaves' proposing the periodicity of chemical elements arranged in order of atomic weight?

Q.188. Which s-block element is a silvery-white metal that is used in an alloy with copper or nickel to make gyroscopes, springs, electrical contacts, spot-welding electrodes, and non-sparking equipment?

Q.189. Which d-block element in the periodic table is represented by the Greek symbol 'alpha' and the metallic 'rays'?

Q.190. The number of elements known at the time of Russian chemist Dmitri Ivanovich Mendeleev was:

Q.191. Which is the soft, malleable, and silvery-yellow metal with atomic number 59 in the lanthanide series?

Q.192. In which group of the Periodic Table will you put the elements with electronic configuration [He]2s²2p⁶?

Q.193. A diagonal relationship is found between which pair of the following elements?

Q.194. What is the name of the 87th element on the periodic table that has no known biological role because it has a half-life of only 22 minutes?

Q.195. What is the atomic number of Bohrium, which is named after physicist Niels Bohr, one of the founders of quantum theory?

Q.196. Which element of group 13 has the atomic number 113 and its electronic configuration is [Rn] 5f¹⁴6d¹⁰7s²7p¹?

Q.197. The law of octaves asserts that every eighth element has comparable properties when grouped in increasing order of their atomic masses and is also known as:

Q.198. What will be the atomic number of an element X which is placed in period 2 and group 17?

Q.199. Identify the element that does NOT belong to Group 1 of the Modern Periodic Table.

Q.200. Identify the last element from the fifth period.

Q.201. Identify the correct statement about Newlands' law of octaves.

Q.202. Which of the following group elements are called chalcogens?

Q.203. What is the name of a metallic radioactive transuranic element with atomic number 101 in the actinide series, discovered in 1955?

Q.204. Identify the element that does NOT belong to Period 6 of Modern Periodic Table.

Q.205. Lanthanides are often called:

Q.206. Which year was designated by UNESCO as the International Year of the Periodic Table (IYPT) to mark the 150th anniversary of the Mendeleev Periodic Table?

Q.207. Which element in the modern periodic table has the same number of valence electrons as that of caesium?

Q.208. _________ is the heaviest naturally occurring element of the Periodic Table with an atomic weight of 238.

Q.209. Which among the following is a noble chemical element of science periodic table?

Q.210. Which artificial element has been provisionally named seaborgium by American researchers in honour of Nobel Laureate Glenn T Seaborg?

Q.211. Hydrogen resembles the properties of which two groups of the periodic table?

Q.212. Which element of group 13 is a soft metal with a low melting point (303K) and is widely used in doping semiconductors and producing solid-state devices such as transistors?

Q.213. Which law was based on notes of the music?

Q.214. In which group are the non-metal elements placed in a vertical column on the right side of the periodic table?

Q.215. Who conducted X-ray spectroscopic study of a large number of elements and showed that the frequency of X-rays emitted by an element is related to the atomic number, Z, rather than the atomic mass?

Q.216. In 1955, which synthetic element is provisionally named Mendelevium in honour of Dmitri Mendeleev, who created one of the first periodic tables?

Q.217. According to Mendeleev's periodic table, what was the atomic mass of Eka-aluminium which was later replaced by Gallium?

Q.218. Which of the following statements is correct?

Q.219. Which of the following types of elements is included in the leftmost group of the periodic table?

Q.220. Which atomic number element of the periodic table is named after Alfred Nobel, the inventor of dynamite and the founder of the Nobel Prize?

Q.221. Which of the following elements has the largest atomic radii?

Q.222. What is the total number of periods and groups in the Modern Periodic Table?

Q.223. Identify the group of the periodic table to which cobalt belongs.

Q.224. Who arranged the elements with chemically similar properties, such as lithium, sodium, and potassium, and showed that the properties of the middle element could be predicted from the properties of the other two?

Q.225. Why are the outermost electrons lost easily down the group?

Q.226. Which element’s symbol is derived from the Greek name hydrargyrum, meaning ‘liquid silver’ – indicating its shiny surface?

Q.227. Which element of Group 13 of the periodic table liquefies just above room temperature?

Q.228. Identify the group of the periodic table to which iron belongs.

Q.229. Why does the effective nuclear charge experienced by valence electrons decrease down the group?

Q.230. How many electrons are there in the outermost shell of a group 16 element?

Q.231. What is the atomic mass of oxygen (expressed in ‘u’)?

Q.232. As per Newlands’ Octaves, which of the following has the same properties as sodium?

Q.233. Of the known elements in the periodic table, only ______ are gases under normal atmospheric conditions.

Q.234. The elements of the groups 3 to 12 are called ______ elements or transition elements.

Q.235. In the periodic table, the highly electronegative halogens and the highly electropositive alkali metals are separated by:

Q.236. Who, in the 1860s, undertook a thorough investigation of the gas laws expressing the relationships of pressure, temperature, and volume in carbon dioxide?

Q.237. Who described in 1662 that when a gas was pumped into an enclosed space, it would shrink to fit in that space, but the pressure exerted by the gas on the container would increase?

Q.238. Which of the following is used as a cooling medium for the Large Hadron Collider (LHC) and the superconducting magnets in MRI scanners and NMR spectrometers?

Q.239. The lowest temperature at which a substance catches fire is called its _______.

Q.240. According to which of the following laws, the pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the component gases?

Q.241. In 1662, who described the equation P1V1 = P2V2, where P1 and V1 are the initial pressure and volume values, and P2 and V2 are the pressure and volume values of the gas after the transformation?

Q.242. One mole of an ideal gas occupies a volume of ______ litre at 273 K and 1 atm pressure.

Q.243. Which process of phase transition is the reverse of deposition?

Q.244. Identify the odd term with respect to allotropes of carbon.

Q.245. Potato chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with gas such as nitrogen primarily to:

Q.246. The major component of granite is:

Q.247. At normal temperature and atmospheric pressure, ______ has a density of 1.87 kg/m3, which is 1.5 times heavier than air and exists as a liquid below the critical temperature of 31°C.

Q.248. In July 2018, an experiment aboard the International Space Station cooled a cloud of atoms of which chemical element to one ten-millionth of one Kelvin above absolute zero, forming a Bose-Einstein Condensate in space?

Q.249. Which odourless, colourless, tasteless and chemically unreactive gas was invented by Daniel Rutherford in 1772 and was independently isolated at the same time by CW Scheele and H Cavendish?

Q.250. From the given options, choose the one which is NOT a product of the decomposition reaction of Lead nitrate.

Q.251. Which of the following statements is correct?

Q.252. The correct order of electron affinity of halogens is:

Q.253. What is the popular name for mercury(I) chloride which is used as a laboratory reagent and as a depolarizer in dry batteries?

Q.254. Which of the following is a highly electropositive element that readily gives up an electron in order to obtain a stable electronic configuration?

Q.255. Which of the following pairs of compounds - boiling point is correct?

Q.256. Which of the following has the highest boiling point?

Q.257. The valency of argentic is:

Q.258. Which of the following acids makes up 55-80% of olive oil, making it a good choice for most cooking methods?

Q.259. What is the atomicity of Chlorine?

Q.260. Which of the following elements has variable valency?

Q.261. Which of the following pairs of compounds - melting point is correct?

I. Acetic acid - 290K
II. Ethanol - 156K

Q.262. Which of the following is the correct descending order of nitrate ion (NO3–), chloride ion (Cl–), bromide ion (Br–) and iodide ion (I–) as per their basic strength?

Q.263. Which among the following has the highest boiling point?

Q.264. When an iron nail is dipped into a _________ coloured copper sulphate solution, its colour changes to __________.

Q.265. What is the product of a reaction of calcium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide?

Q.266. Which gas is used by chemical leaveners, such as baking powder and baking soda, to lighten and aerate baked goods?

Q.267. Which of the following is NOT a neutral oxide?

Q.268. Which of the following is a soft metal that ignites in air and reacts violently with water and has atomic number 37 in the periodic table?

Q.269. Which of the following is correctly paired?

Q.270. Which of the following is a property of Beryllium?

Q.271. The mineral Carnotite is an important source of:

Q.272. What is the boiling point of water at sea level?

Q.273. Which of the following is a polar molecule?

Q.274. Which of the following statements is NOT true about compounds?

Q.275. Which of the following options are homogeneous mixtures?

Q.276. What is the percentage composition of the element of H2SO3?

Q.277. Whose research was fundamental in establishing the modern discipline known as surface tension, which describes the properties of liquid and solid surfaces and interfaces?

Q.278. What is the ratio by mass of hydrogen and oxygen in water?

Q.279. What is the ratio by mass of carbon and oxygen in carbon dioxide?

Q.280. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding mixtures?

Q.281. Which of the following colloid is an example of foam?

Q.282. Which of the following substances is insoluble in water?

Q.283. Which of the given statements is correct regarding properties of suspension?

Q.284. Which of the following is an example of emulsion?

Q.285. Which of the following techniques can be used to separate the impurities in Milk?

Q.286. What kind of substances are separated using the technique of steam distillation?

Q.287. Which of the following techniques can be used for reducing the total dissolved solids (TDS) in water?

Q.288. Which among the following is NOT true about a solution and the solute concerned?

Q.289. Solubility of gases in liquids _____ with decrease in temperature.

Q.290. ____ Law of independent migration of ions states that limiting molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum of the individual contributions of the anion and cation of the electrolyte.

Q.291. Match List-I with List-II.
(Chemical compound) (Spices)

A. Curcuminoids. 1. Cardamom
B. 1, 8-cineole. 2. Black pepper
C. Eugenol. 3. Turmeric
D. Piperine. 4. Cloves

Q.292. Out of the following, identify the process that does NOT involve a chemical reaction.

Q.293. Which chemical compound is present in hard plastic such as drinking water bottles and many household items?

Q.294. Which of the following is considered a chemical hazard in food?

Q.295. Which of the following is NOT a food preservative?

Q.296. Which gas is the major component of biogas?

Q.297. Hardness of water is expressed in terms of:

Q.298. What kind of smell do Esters have?

Q.299. When milk is converted into curd, which type of change is it?

Q.300. Which of the following is the product as a result of the process of hydrolysis of orthoclase?