1What are the currency requirements for an instrument rating?
66 HIT
Within the last 6 months, the pilot must have
- 6 approaches
- Holding
- Intercepting courses
- Tracking courses
2What must a pilot do to regain their IFR currency?
1. If its been more than 6 months from your 66HIT:
- You can complete the requirements with a safety pilot and regain currency.
2. If it has been more than 12 calendar months since your 66HIT
- You need an Instrument Proficiency Check with an authorized instructor, examiner, or another authorized person
61.57
3When can you log instrument time?
A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions
61.51
4What are the fundamental skills of instrument flying?
1. Instrument cross-check: The continuous and logical observation of instruments for attitude and performance information.
2. Instrument interpretation: Being able to understand what the instruments are telling you and to relate those to aircraft control. Interpretation begins by understanding each instrument's construction and operating principles
Both skills, if implemented properly, result in aircraft control.
5What are common errors in scanning instruments?
1. Fixation - Focusing on one instrument more than the others. Usually this happens for a reason.
example) an example of this is that a Pilot notices altimeter is reading 200' below assigned altitude. While fixating on the instrument, the pilot unknowingly adds tension to the controls and starts a shallow bank to one side.
2. Omission - Leaving one or several instruments out of your scan.
example) On a rollout from a 180 degree turn, the pilot only looks at the attitude indicator for reference to wings level, and neglects to interpret the heading that they roll out onto, overshooting or undershooting their assigned heading.
3. Emphasis - Emphasizing a single instrument instead of the combination of instruments necessary for attitude information.
example) a pilot can maintain reasonable control of an aircraft by only staring at the attitude indicator, but cannot hold altitude with precision unless cross-checking the altimeter.
6what are the required instruments/equipment for a flight under IFR?
G.R.A.B.C.A.R.D
G - Generator/Alternator
R - Radio (Two way) and navigation equipment suitable for route
A - Attitude indicator
B - Ball (Slip and Skid indicator)
C - Clock that displays hours, minutes, and seconds
A - Altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure
R - Rate of Turn indicator
D - Directional Gyro
As well as all instruments required in 91.205 (b) and (c)
-ATOMATOFLAMES
-FLAPS
7What happens if your pitot tube is blocked?
ASI - Reads Zero
ALT - Normal
VSI - Normal
8What if the Pitot tube and drain hole become blocked?
ASI - Becomes stuck at whatever airspeed it froze at. If the aircraft climbs, the Airspeed indicator will read higher due to a decrease in static pressure being fed to the airspeed indicator, If descending, the Airspeed indicator will read lower.
ALT - Normal
VSI - Normal
9What happens if the static port becomes blocked?
ASI - Reads correctly at the altitude the blockage happened.
- Reads higher than normal at lower altitudes
- lower than normal at higher altitudes.
VSI - Indicates Zero
Altimeter - Stuck at the blockage altitude.
10What happens to your instruments when an alternate static source is used?
Airspeed - Read higher than normal
Altimeter - Reads higher than normal
VSI - reads normal after stabilized
This is primarily caused because a lot of alternate static ports are found inside the aircraft. The venturi effect of the air flowing around the fuselage causes the air pressure inside the flight deck to be lower than outside.
11What is the maximum allowable altimeter error for IFR flight?
+/- 75 Feet
91.411
12What is the maximum allowable precession on the DG?
3 degrees every fifteen minutes.
The main operating principle of the DG is Rigidity in space, but since the earth rotates 15 degrees every hour, the pilot should adjust the heading indicator every 15 minutes to ensure it matches the magnetic compass.
13What are the errors associated with the magnetic compass?
Variation - Difference between true north and magnetic
Deviation - magnetic disturbances found in the aircraft cause errors that are accounted for through the compass card (Try putting an ipad under the compass)
Oscillation - the compass is free floating and this causes it to oscillate back and forth
Dip - when operating close to the poles, the needle aligns with the magnetic field, which is more vertical. The compass moves out of view.
- Turning errors
When turning north, the compass accelerates and shows a faster turn
When turning south, the compass lags behind.
- acceleration/deceleration errors (While on an east/west heading)
Acceleration causes the compass to turn North
Deceleration causes a turn to the South
14As VORs are slowly phased out for Performance Based Navigation (GNSS systems), the FAA has implemented the VOR Minimum Operation Network. What is it?
The MON provides basic conventional navigation service for operators to use if the GNSS becomes unavailable. The MON will ensure that regardless of an aircraft's position in the contiguous US, a MON airport (Equipped with ILS or VOR approaches) will be within 100 nautical miles. The MON is also set so that pilots are able to navigate VOR to VOR at 5000' AGL with nearly continuous signal.
AIM 1-1-3
15What is DME and how does it work?
Distance Measuring Equipment
The DME in the aircraft sends out paired pulses at a specific spacing (This is the interrogation) and are received at the ground station. The ground station then transmits paired pulses back to the aircraft at the same pulse spacing but on a different frequency. the time required for round trip of this signal is measured in the unit and presented in nautical miles from the station.
DME operates Line of sight.
AIM 1-1-7
16In regards to VORs, what are the different service volumes?
In the past, there were just 3 (Terminal, Low, and High) now, with an increase in performance based navigation and the development of the VOR MON, There are four additional navigation facilities, VOR low, VOR high, DME low, and DME High.
DME and VOR service volumes can be mixed up in one station
Terminal (T)
Low (L)
High (H)
VOR Low (VL)
VOR High (VH)
DME Low (DL)
DME High (DH)
AIM 1-1-8
17Define reverse sensing
Reverse sensing occurs when the pilot selects the incorrect radial to follow with the TO/FROM indicator. The display on the instrument will read opposite.
The traditional VOR Receiver does not care what the aircraft heading is, only the aircraft position relative to the radial selected
18Define the TO/FROM indication in respect to VOR navigation
The TO/FROM indication tells you whether the selected radial will take the pilot to or from the station.
19What are the different ways you can test a VOR to ensure it's accuracy and airworthiness for IFR flight?
VOR Test Facility (VOT):
Select the VOT frequency
VOR should indicate 180 TO the station or 360 FROM station. +/- 4 degrees
Ground station: +/- 4 degrees
Airborne: +/- 6 degrees
Dual VOR: +/- 4 Degrees
20Explain how the GPS system works
The GPS system consists of a constellation of around 30 satellites today. It is a Satellite-based radio navigation system that broadcasts a signal that is used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in the world.
The GPS consists of three elements: Space, Control, and User
The space element: consists of over 30 satellites called a constellation, orbiting at about 11,000 miles above the earth. Their orbits are arranged so that there are always five satellites in view at any time on earth. The satellites send information to your GPS receiver. This information consists of the Course/Acquisition code, and the Ephemeris.
-Course/Acquisition is the position, GPS system time, and health/accuracy of the transmitted data
-Ephemeris is the satellite's exact position in space
The Control Element: Consists of a network of ground based monitoring stations that ensure the accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks. There are 5 monitoring stations, 3 ground antennas, and a master control station.
The User Element: Consists of antennas and receiver/processors on board the aircraft that provide positioning, velocity, and precise timing to the user.
- (TCO) C-129 (or equivalent) is needed to meet airworthiness requirements to be approved for IFR.
- The GPS receiver needs at least 4 satellites to create a 3D position.
21How often must the GPS system be updated to be used for IFR?
Every 28 days
22How can you determine if a GPS system is certified for IFR use?
Check the Aircraft flight manual for the Supplement or Supplemental Type Certificate.
23What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring
performs error-checking on the GPS signal and alert the user if unreliable GPS information is being received. Must have 5 satellites or 4 satellites and Baro-aiding setting.
Generally, there are two types of RAIM messages;
1. indicates that there are not enough satellites available to provide RAIM
2. RAIM has detected a potential error that exceeds the limit for the current phase of flight.
24What should a pilot do when loss of RAIM capability is predicted to occur?
The flight must rely on other approved equipment, delay the departure, or cancel the flight.
25Explain WAAS
Wide Area Augmentation System is a Satellite Based Augmentation System (SBAS) that is designed to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability of GPS signals.
- Currently there are 25 WAAS stations that receive GPS satellite information. Those stations send GPS data to one of two master stations for correction, the master station then uploads that corrected satellite data to the WAAS GEO satellites through an upload link station. The WAAS GEO satellites then send that corrected information to WAAS capable receivers in aircraft.
26What is LAAS?
Local Area Augmentation System is a Ground Based Augmentation System (GBAS)
GPS errors are broadcasted via VHF to LAAS-enabled GPS receivers directly from ground stations at airports. more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area. Allows for category I and above approaches if equipped.
27What is the difference between PAR and ASR?
PAR - Precision approach radar is a type of radar used at an airport to guide an aircraft through the final stages of landing, providing horizontal and vertical guidance. The radar operator directs the pilot to change heading or adjust descent rate to keep the aircraft on a path that allows it to touch down on the correct spot of the runway.
ASR - Airport surveillance Radar is a NON-PRECISION instrument approach in which ATC issues instructions for pilot compliance based on aircraft position in relation to the final approach course and the distance from the end of the runway. Lateral guidance only
28When is a mode C transponder and ADS-B required?
- In Class A, Class B, or Class C airspace areas;
- Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class B or Class C airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL;
- Class E airspace at and above 10,000 feet MSL within the 48 contiguous states and the District of Columbia, excluding the airspace at and below 2,500 feet AGL;
- Within 30 miles of a Class B airspace primary airport, below 10,000 feet MSL (commonly referred to as the "Mode C Veil");
For ADS-B Out: Class E airspace at and above 3,000 feet MSL over the Gulf of Mexico from the coastline of the United States out to 12 nautical miles
- The airspace described in (e) above is specified in 14 CFR 91.225 for ADS-B Out requirements. However, 14 CFR 91.215 does not include this airspace for ATC transponder requirements
- 14 CFR Section 99.13 requires all aircraft flying into, within, or across the contiguous U.S. ADIZ be equipped with a Mode C or Mode S transponder.
29What are the required equipment inspections?
A.A.V.I.A.T.E
A - Airworthiness Directives/Service Bulletins
A - Annual: Every 12 Calendar months
V - VOR: Every 30 days
I - 100 Hour inspection if operated for hire
A - Altimeter and static system: 24 calendar months
T - Transponder every 24 calendar months
E - ELT Every 12 Calendar months. 50% Of useful life
30How would the pilot know if a VOR is out of service?
The positive method of identifying a VOR is by its morse code or by the recorded automatic voice identification which is alwasy indicated by the use of the word "VOR" following the range's name. During periods of maintenance, the facility may radiate a T-E-S-T code or the code may be removed.
31What are the four elements of the ILS?
1) Localizer: Provides lateral course guidence
2) Glide Slope: Slope is typically 3 degrees
3) Marker Beacons: Provide range information over specific points along the approach.
- Outer marker (Blue)
- Middle marker (Yellow)
- Inner marker (White)
4) Approach lighting system: Provides visible means to transition between instrument-guided flight into a visual approach.
32What are the different colors of the marker beacons? what does it normally indicate?
- Outer marker (Blue), normally indicates the position at which the aircraft should intercept the Glide Slope at the appropriate interception altitude.
- Middle marker (Yellow), Indicates the approximate point where the Glide Slope meets the Decision height. Usually 200' above the TDZE.
- Inner marker (White), indicates the point where the glide slope meets the DH on a CAT II ILS approach
- Back course marker (White), Indicates the FAF on selected back course approaches. (NOT PART OF THE ILS SYSTEM)
33What can be substituted for an outer marker?
A Compass Locator
34What is a compass locator?
low powered NDB that is co-located with the outer marker
35What is an LDA?
Localizer-type Directional Aid
The LDA is of comparable accuracy to a localizer, but is not part of a complete ILS system. Some LDAs are equipped with a glide slope. The LDA course is not aligned with the runway, but straight in minimums may be published where the angle between the LDA and runway centerline does not exceed 30 degrees. If it does exceed 30 degrees, only circling minimums will be published.
36In regards to flight planning, what is the required information the PIC must know?
K.W.K.R.A.F.T
N - NOTAMS
W - Weather reports/forecasts
K - Known traffic delays
R - Runway lengths
A - Alternates available
F - Fuel requirements
T - Takeoff and landing performance
37What are NOTAMs?
The Notice to Air Missions system is provides pilots with time critical aeronautical information that is temporary, or information to be published on aeronautical charts at a later date, or information from operational publication.
AIM 5-1-3
38What are the different types of NOTAMs?
NOTAM (D) Information is disseminated for all navigational facilities that are part of the national airspace system, all public aerodromes, seaplane bases, and heliports listed in the chart supplement. Examples: Taxiway closures, approach lighting that does not affect IFR traffic.
FDC NOTAMs: Issued when it is necessary to disseminate regulatory information. This includes; Amendments to IAPs and other aeronautical charts, TFRs, High Baro. warning, laser activity, ADS-B Service ability.
International NOTAMs: Issued by the US NOTAM office
Military NOTAMs: Pertain to military joint use navigational aids/airports that are part of the NAS.
39In regards to flight planning, what weather is required for the PIC to NOT have to file an alternate?
"1, 2, 3 Rule"
An instrument approach is published and available for the destination, AND,
- For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA: Ceiling will be at least 2000' above airport elevation; and Visibility will be at least 3 SM
40If an alternate is required for your route of flight, what are the weather minimums required to file an airport as your alternate?
The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts, or, if none:
- Precision approach: 600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
- Non-precision approach: 800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.
- No instrument approach available at the alternate: Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.
41What are the fuel requirements for IFR flight planning?
Fuel from departure to destination airport
+
Fuel from destination to most distant alternate (If required)
+
45 Minutes calculated at normal cruise
42How can a pilot open/close an IFR flight plan?
You should file at least 30 minutes prior to departure.
Flight service station by phone, radio, or website.
EFB (foreflight, etc.)
The IFR flight plan is automatically cancelled upon landing at towered airports.
If non-towered, the pilot must call and cancel the flight plan.
Flight plans may be canceled anytime the aircraft is operated out of IMC and out of Class A airspace.
43Define VFR-ON-TOP
VFR-on-Top is an IFR clearance for an aircraft operating on an IFR flight plan in VFR conditions. It must be requested by the pilot.
The Pilot must:
a) Fly at the appropriate VFR altitudes
b) Comply with the VFR visibility and distance from cloud criteria
c) Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable to this flight, i.e: minimum IFR altitudes, position reporting, radio communications, course to be flown, adherence to ATC Clearance.
VFR-On-Top can also be used as a clearance to get to VFR conditions and then cancel IFR. (climb and "punch" through a layer)
Not Authorized in class A airspace.
44How can a pilot obtain a clearance from a controlled airport?
From an air traffic controller, Typically through Clearance Delivery. Ground and Tower can also issue IFR clearances.
45How can a pilot obtain a clearance from an uncontrolled airport?
Consult the chart supplement to determine the frequency or telephone number to contact clearance delivery. On initial contact, pilots should advise that the flight is IFR and state the departure and destination airports.
46What is a Clearance Void Time?
A pilot may receive a clearance void time when departing IFR from an airport without a control tower. If the pilot does not depart prior to the clearance void time they must advise ATC as soon as possible, within 30 minutes, of their intentions. Failure to contact ATC within 30 minutes After the Clearance void time will result in the aircraft considered overdue and search and rescue procedures will be initiated.
47What is an EFC?
Expect further clearance time
It is a time that the pilot should expect to receive the next clearance beyond the clearance limit.
Typically it is given when the pilot is not cleared to the destination airport and/or must hold at a fix for delays.
48What is Tower En Route Control?
TEC is an ATC program to provide a service to aircraft proceeding to and from metropolitan areas. It links designated approach control areas by a network of identified routes made up of the existing airway structure of the national airspace system.
TEC routes go to a max of 10,000
49What are the standard takeoff minimums under part 91?
For part 91, standard takeoff minimums are "Zero-Zero" However it is good practice to uses the approach minimums for the airport you are departing for the takeoff minimums.
50How can you determine if an airport has other than standard takeoff minimums?
In the TPP there are non-standard minimums that are published.
There is also a symbol on approach plates in the notes section denoting non-standard takeoff minimums for that airport.
51What are departure procedures?
Departure procedures are preplanned IFR procedures that provide obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure and provide the pilot with a way to depart the airport and transition to the en route structure safely.
52What are the two types of departure procedures?
Obstacle Departure Procedure & Standard Instrument Departure
ODPs,
- Provide obstruction clearance from the terminal are. They are recommended for pilots to fly, and do not require an ATC clearance to fly them.
- They can come in graphical form.
Standard instrument departures (SIDs)
- ATC procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphical form to provide obstruction clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure.
- SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement and to reduce pilot/controller workload.
-ATC Clearance is required
53What is the obstacle clearance in a departure procedure based on?
Obstacle departures are based on the pilot crossing the departure end of the runway at 35' AGL, climbing to 400' before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb rate of 200' per nautical mile until the minimum IFR altitude.
54What are the IFR En Route Cruising Altitudes?
East: Odd thousand
West: Even thousand
55What is an MEA?
The Minimum Enroute Altitude
-It is The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements. guarantees 1000 feet of obstacle clearance in non-mountainous terrain and 2000 feet of obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain.
- An MEA gap establishes an area of loss in navigational coverage and annotated "MEA GAP" on IFR charts
56How can you determine if you are flying in Mountainous vs Non-mountainous terrain?
AIM
57Define MOCA
Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude; the lowest published altitude between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meet obstacle clearance requirements. It also ensures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 22 nautical miles of a VOR.
If both an MEA and a MOCA are prescribed for a particular route segment, a person may operate an aircraft lower than the MEA down to, but not below the MOCA, provided the applicable navigation signals are available. For aircraft using VOR for navigation, this applies only when the aircraft is within 22 NM of the VOR
58Define MAA
Maximum Authorized Altitude; the maximum altitude usable for a route segment that ensures signal reception without interference from another signal on the same frequency.
59Define OROCA
Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude; this provides obstruction clearance with a 1,000-foot buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and a 2,000-foot buffer in designated mountainous areas within the United States. This altitude might not provide signal coverage from ground-based navigational aids, Air Traffic Control radar, or communications coverage.
60Define MVA
MVA - Minimum Vectoring Altitude (charts depicting MVA are normally only available to controllers - not to pilots)
The lowest MSL altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller, except as otherwise authorized for radar approaches, departures and missed approaches. The altitude meets IFR obstacle clearance criteria and it may be lower than the published MEA along an airway or J-route segment.
61What are preferred routes?
Routes established between busy airports to increase system efficiency and capacity. Listed in the chart supplement.
62explain what a Minimum reception altitude is?
The lowest altitude at which an airway intersection may be determined.
63What is a Minimum crossing altitude?
The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA.
64What is a cruise clearance?
An ATC issued clearance to allow a pilot to conduct a flight at any altitude from the minimum IFR altitude up to and including the altitude specified in the clearance.
- once you report leaving an altitude within the block during descent, you may not return to that altitude without an additional ATC clearance.
- Also clears the pilot to proceed to and make an approach at the destination airport.
65What are the Compulsory reporting points to be made?
1) Missed approach
2) Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever
is greater)
3) Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)
4) VFR on top when an altitude change will be made.
5) ETA change ±3 min6) Leaving a holding fix/point
7) Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) *
8) Un-forecasted weather
9) Safety of flight (any other information related to safety
of flight)
10) Vacating an altitude/FL
11) Final Approach fix *
12) Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187)
13) Compulsory reporting points ▲ * (§91.183)
14) 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm
* Required only in non-radar environments (including
ATC radar failure)
66What items are required in your position reports for Non-Radar Environment?
(§91.183, AIM 5-3-2)
■ Aircraft ID.
■ Position.
■ Time.
■ Altitude.
■ Type of flight plan (except when communicating with ARTCC / Approach control).
■ ETA and name of next reporting fix.
■ Name only of the next succeeding point along the route of flight.
■ Any pertinent remarks.
67Explain the procedures to follow in the event of a radio failure while flying IMC?
Altitude: Fly the highest of M.E.A
- Minimum Altitude prescribed for IFR
- Expected
- Assigned (Last assigned by ATC.
Route to fly: Select the rout by this order A.V.E.F
A - Assigned route, if none:
V - Vectored (fly to fix route/airway last vectored to), if none:
E -last Expected Route by ATC. If none:
F - Filed route
68What procedures would you follow to leave your clearance limit following a radio failure?
Is the clearance limit a fix from which an approach begins?
Yes: Start descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC, or ETA (If no EFC was given)
No: At EFC or clearance limit (If no EFC given) proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and start the approach
69What is a Holding pattern?
A holding pattern is a predetermined maneuver that keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from ATC. ATC may assign holding instructions to delay or separate traffic in the air for reasons such as weather or airport closures.
A standard holding pattern uses Right turns
AIM 5-3-8
70What is the procedure for timing the outbound leg of a holding pattern?
Start timing outbound abeam/over the fix (whichever is later). Or, if the abeam point cannot be determined, start the time at the completion of the outbound turn.
■ Adjust the outbound leg so the inbound leg takes:
▷ At or below 14,000' MSL - 1 minute
▷ Above 14,000' MSL - 1.5 minutes
▷ DME/GPS holds - fly the outbound leg to the specified distance from the fix/waypoint
71What are the holding speeds?
1) Up to 6,000': 200 KIAS
2) 6,001-14,000': 230 KIAS
3) Above 14,000': 265 KIAS
72How does a pilot calculate a holding entry?
Direct - Upon crossing the fix turn to follow the holding pattern
Parallel - Upon crossing the fix, turn to a heading parallel to the holding course outbound for 1 minute. Then turn into the the hold pattern to intercept the inbound course.
Teardrop - Upon crossing the fix, turn outbound to a heading 30º into the pattern. Fly it for 1 minute, then turn in the direction of the hold turns to intercept the inbound course.
73What should a pilot do if no holding instructions have been issued and no pattern exists?
If no pattern is published and no instructions given by ATC, enter a standard holding pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix and request further clearance as soon as possible.
74What is a STAR?
A STAR is an ATC coded IFR arrival route established for application to arriving IFR aircraft destined for certain airports.
STARs simplify clearance delivery procedures, and also facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach procedures.
Reference the Terminal Procedures Publication (TPP)
75When flying a STAR, what does Descend Via clearance mean?
Clearance to “descend via” authorizes pilots to:
a) Descend at pilot's discretion to meet published restrictions and laterally navigate on a STAR.
b) When cleared to a waypoint depicted on a STAR, to descend from a previously assigned altitude at pilot's discretion to the altitude depicted at that waypoint.
c) Once established on the depicted arrival, to descend and to meet all published or assigned altitude and/or speed restrictions.
76If after cleared for a STAR, the ATC vectors the pilot off the arrival, what must the pilot consider?
If vectored or cleared to deviate off a STAR, pilots must consider the STAR canceled, unless the controller adds “expect to resume STAR”; pilots should then be prepared to rejoin the STAR at a subsequent fix or procedure leg.
77In regards to STARs,
You receive the clearance “Cleared Tyler One arrival.” What does this mean for the pilot?
The pilot is cleared to fly the lateral path of the procedure. Compliance with any published speed restrictions is required.
No descent is authorized.
78While flying a STAR, you receive the clearance “Descend via the Eagul Five arrival.” What does this mean for the pilot?
The pilot is authorized to descend at pilot's discretion on the Eagul Five arrival; the pilot must descend so as to comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions.
79What is a feeder route?
A route depicted on IAP chart to designate courses for aircraft to proceed from the enroute structure to the IAF.
Feeder route is designated on the chart that will provide the courses to be flown, the distance, and min altitude (giving obstacle clearance 1k and 2k over mountainous areas
80What are the four segments of an approach?
1) Initial
2) Intermediate
3) Final
4) Missed
81What is a procedure turn?
(§91.175, AIM 5-4-9)
A procedure turn is the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish the aircraft inbound on an intermediate or final approach course.
■ Max speed - 200 kts
82When is a procedure turn not required?
a. The symbol "NoPT" is depicted.
b. "Radar Vectoring" is provided.
c. A holding pattern is published in lieu of a procedure turn.
d. Conducting a timed approach.
e. The procedure turn is not authorized (absence of procedure turn barb on plan view).
83When is an aircraft allowed to descend below the altitude prescribed for a procedure turn?
When established on the inbound course
84What is the difference between a precision and non-precision approach?
A precision approach gives both lateral and vertical guidance down to a DA/DH
- ILS
- PAR
- GLS (GBAS landing System)
A non-precision approach gives lateral guidance only down to a MDA
- VOR
- LOC
- RNAV/RNP to LNAM or LP minima
- LDA
- ASR
85What is an APV approach?
Approach with Vertical Guidance
A precision-like approach, flown to a DA with lateral + vertical guidance, but does not meet precision approach standards.
▷ RNAV / GNSS (i.e, LNAV/VNAV and LPV minima)
▷ LDA with Glide Slop
86When can you descend to next instrument approach segment?
▷ When cleared for the approach AND established on a segment of a published approach or route.
(AIM 5-5-4)
87What is a contact approach?
Approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, having an ATC authorization, operating clear of clouds with at least 1 mile flight visibility and a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination airport in those conditions, may deviate from the instrument approach and proceed to the destination airport by visual reference.
Only requested by pilot and ground visibility at destination is at least 1SM
88What is a visual approach?
An approach conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport.
a) Can be initiated by either ATC or the Pilot
b) Pilot at all times have either the airport or preceding aircraft in sight.
c) Reported weather at airport must be at or above 1000 and 3 miles.
89What is the final approach fix for a precision approach? Non-Precision?
the final approach fix is defined as the glide slope intercept at the published altitude. This is identified in the chart's profile view by the lightning bolt.
- For non-precision approaches, the final approach fix is identified by the Maltese cross.
90What is a localizer backcourse?
The reciprocal of a localizer course for an ILS. Can be used for instrument approaches.
Charted as a normal localizer with shaded area on the opposite side.
91How is an approach category determined?
approach category used during an instrument approach is determined by the aircraft's:
a) Vref at the maximum certificated landing weight or;
b) 1.3 Vso at the maximum certificated landing weight
92When may a pilot descend below the MDA or DH?
91.175
1. The aircraft can descend to a landing at a normal rate using normal maneuvers
2. Visibility is not less than the minimum for the approach
3. Runway environment is in sight (ALS, Threshold, REIL, Visual glideslope indicator, Runway markings/lights, etc.)
93What is a timed approach?
Timed approaches from a holding fix are conducted when many aircraft are waiting for an approach clearance.
The controller will assign a time to depart the FAF inbound (non-precision), or the outer marker or fix used in lieu of the outer marker inbound (precision)
94What is a circling approach?
Circling minimums apply when it is necessary to circle the airport, maneuver for landing, or when no straight-in minimums are specified on the approach.
For example, a circling approach may be published when a approach course is off by more than 30 degrees.
95When should you execute a missed approach?
1) Whenever the requirements for operating below DA/DH or MDA are not met when the aircraft is below MDA, or upon arrival at the MAP and at anytime after that until touchdown
2) Whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not visible to the pilot during a circling maneuver at or above MDA; or
3) When so directed by ATC.
96If a missed approach is executed prior to the missed approach point, what should the pilot do?
Unless otherwise cleared by ATC, continue to fly the IAP as specified on the approach chart.
Fly to the MAP at or above the MDA or DA/DH before beginning a turn.
97What are APV approaches?
- An instrument approach based on a navigation system that is not required to meet the precision approach standards of ICAO Annex 10 but provides course and glide path deviation information
- Baro-VNAV,
- LDA with glide-path.
- LNAV/VNAV and LPV approaches
98What is an LDA approach?
Localizer type Directional Aid
Localizer course that exceeds 3 degrees, but not more than 30 degrees, from RW centerline
99What is a LPV approach?
Localizer performance with vertical guidance (LPV) is a type of approach with vertical guidance (APV) that takes advantage of the high accuracy guidance and increased integrity provided by WAAS. This WAAS-generated angular guidance allows the use of the same TERPS approach criteria used for ILS approaches. LPV approaches may have a decision altitude (DA) as low as 200 feet height above touchdown with visibility minimums as low as ½ mile when the terrain and airport infrastructure permit.
a) Requires WAAS
b) Provides scaling for vertical and lateral guidance. As the aircraft arrives at the missed approach point, the vertical full deflection is 49’ and the lateral is 350’.
100What is an LP approach?
Localizer Performance (LP) approaches are non-precision approaches with Wide Area Augmentation System ( WAAS ) lateral guidance. They are added in locations where terrain or obstructions do not allow publication of vertically-guided LPV procedures.
a) Requires WAAS
b) Only provides lateral guidance to the runway, however, the course width will gradually narrow as the aircraft approaches the runway, making full deflection at the Final approach Fix 0.3 NM. This narrows down to sometimes 350’ for full scale deflection at the end of the runway.
c) The increased sensitivity allows for a lower MDA.
101What is a LNAV Approach?
LNAV is a type of RNAV approach that only has lateral guidence.
a) Requires Standard GPS signal with RAIM
b) Only provides lateral nav and does not provide increasing sensitivity as the aircraft gets closer to the runway. The standard full deflection of the CDI is 0.3NM
102What is an LNAV/VNAV approach?
A type of RNAV approach thathas a glide slope as well as lateral guidence
a) Requires WAAS, or Baro-aiding altimeter
b) First type of GPS approach with vertical guidance.
c) Same sensitivity is offered as LNAV with 0.3NM for full deflection.
103What is RNP?
Required Navigational Performance
- A navigation system that provides a specified level of accuracy defined by a lateral area of confined airspace in which an RNP certified aircraft operates
RNP error should be less than RNP value 95% of time
104What is PBN?
Performance based Navigation
-is a general basis for navigation equipment standards in terms of accuracy, integrity, continuity , availability, and functionality for specific operation contexts
105While Flying an LNAV or LP approach, some WAAS receivers withh show LNAV+V or LP+V. What does this mean and how can the pilot utilize the glide path given?
While conducting a LNAV, or LP approach, some WAAS receivers will show LNAV+V, or LP+V. This is called an Advisory vertical guidance. It is only advisory and the pilot still needs to comply with the Minimum descent altitude for the published approach.
Be aware that the advisory could potentially take you below published step down fix altitudes.