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1
Trading on the NYSE is executed without a specialist (i.e. a market maker).
False
2
Stocks and bonds are two types of financial instruments.
True
3
The matching principle in accrual accounting requires that:
a. Revenues be recognized when the earnings process is complete and matches expenses to revenues recognized.
4
A basic equation for the balance sheet is:
a. Equity = Assets - Liabilities
5
Why is the Balance Sheet known as a permanent statement?
b. Because the other statements are reset at the end of the fiscal year.
6
How do you calculate the change in Retained Earnings?
d. Net Income - Dividends
7
Which of the following is generally true?
c. Operating Income and EBIT are the same.
8
Which components are part of total assets?
b. Cash Accounts Receivable, Inventory, Long Term Assets
9
Which components are part of current assets?
d. Inventory, Cash, Accounts Receivable, Short Term Investments
10
Which components are part of Total Liabilities?
c. Bonds, Accounts Payable, Mortgage
11
When Fixed Assets increase what happens to Cash?
c. Cash decreases.
12
Which is the purpose of the statement of cash flows?
c. Explains the change in cash balance for one period of time.
13
The OIROI (Operating Income Return on Investment) uses what elements on the income statement?
b. EBIT, Total Assets
14
Why would a company be interested in the TAT(Total Asset Turnover) ratio?
c. How efficient assets are at producing sales
15
Which of the following gives the largest effective rate (APY)?
b. 18.6% compounded daily
16
What does the beta coefficient represent?
a. It is a statistically-derived measure of volatility.
17
Why is depreciation expense taken out of the net income calculation, yet added back at the end?
d. Because depreciation expense is tax deductible.
18
Why is the NPV preferred over the IRR? Pick Two
b. It measures the dollar value.

c. It is more reliable.
19
What does the Degree of Financial Leverage indicate?
c. The reliance on debt
20
If a company has a high degree of financial leverage, what does that tell us about the firm's risk profile?
d. Higher profits to shareholders
21
What is the cash cycle?
d. The amount of time to regenerate cash
22
Why is float important to understand?
d. To time cash expenditures.
23
What should a company do to manage its working capital?
a. Collect quickly and pay slowly.
24
What would be a source of information to determine Replacement Cost?
a. Building Appraisal
25
What does the Sarbanes-Oxley Act require companies to do?
d. Have internal control audits.
26
FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority) does the following:
d. Prosecutes naughty stock brokers
27
If a product is made 100% domestically, what can affect its domestic market?
b. International competition
28
If a company makes its product in a foreign country where labor costs are much lower, what happens?
d. Profits go up and domestic employment decreases.
29
If the value of a dollar increases, the price of imports:
b. Decreases
30
Why would a farmer buy a hedge when he signs a contract to sell produce overseas?
b. To reduce currency risk.
31
Suppose the inventory turnover of a company is higher than the industry. Based on this observation, which of the following is most likely?
c. The firm has too little inventory resulting in lost sales or stock-outs.
32
If a company wishes to obtain a bank loan, will it want to have a higher current ratio or a lower current ratio?
a. higher
33
If an investor knows the idiosyncratic risk, the investor knows the:
b. Beta Coefficient
34
Why would we reject a project based on the NPV?
c. The NPV is a negative number.
35
Why would we reject a project based on the IRR?
d. The discount rate is higher than the IRR.
36
Company A wishes to keep 20% of its assets as cash. Company B keeps its cash balance at 5% of assets. Which of the following statements apply?
b. Company B invests in more working current assets.
37
Company A offers trade credit of 2% 10 / net 30 and Company B offers trade credit at net 30. What can be said about the credit policies of each company?
c. Company A can attract more customers.
38
Which of the following characterizes collection float?
b. Increased float indicates slower processing time.
39
Company A's inventory is larger than Company B. Both companies are competitors and are about the same size.

What does this difference mean from a working capital management standpoint?
c. Company B might have higher inventory turnover.
40
In regards to Accounts Payable balances, which of the following is true:
d. Paying off A/P on the last day due is good policy.
41
If two companies have earnings of \$2,000,000, and Company X has a multiple of 1.2 and Company Z has a multiple of 2.0, what can we estimate about the value of each company?
c. The value of Company Z is higher
42
Dodd-Frank regulates which segment of the U.S. Economy?
b. Banking Industry
43
The SEC Securities & Exchange Commission requires companies to do the following: (pick two)
a. Register all public offerings

c. Regulates stock sales
44
Economics is a subfield of Finance.
False
45
Capital is defined as a financial asset.
True
46
Primary financial markets are markets where issuers place new securities with investors.
True
47
An IPO occurs on the primary market.
True
48
An IPO is a seasoned equity offering.
False
49
Syndicates are generally made up of investment banks and other institutional investors.
True
50
While competitive sales allow underwriters to submit bids to purchase bonds, negotiated sales do not.
False
51
NASDAQ is the world's largest secondary financial market.
False
52
Auction markets have a physical location.
True
53
Dealer markets have a physical location.
False
54
Nasdaq is an example of an auction market.
False
55
Stocks that are listed on dealer markets generally have a single dealer for each stock.
False
56
Markets are where prices are determined.
True
57
The NYSE specialist has an objective to provide liquidity to the market.
True
58
The NYSE specialist will charge a higher price to sellers of the stock and a lower price to the buyer of the stock.
False
59
The bid-ask spread is compensation to the specialist for providing liquidity to the market.
True
60
A market order to buy a stock would execute at the current ask price.
True
61
A market order to sell a stock would execute at the current ask price.
True
62
A limit order to buy a stock at \$101.55 would execute at the current ask price.
False
63
A limit order to buy a stock at \$101.55 would execute when the ask price is at or below \$101.55.
True
64
Efficient markets are those in which prices are volatile.
False
65
Efficient markets will often have mispriced securities.
False
66
Inefficient markets are those in which prices will respond quickly to new information.
False
67
Inefficient markets will often have mispriced securities.
True
68
Because in an efficient market all available information is built into the price of a stock - investment patterns and trends to "get rich quickly" are not easily discernable and it is difficult to predict the price.
True
69
In an inefficient market, prices will slowly respond to new information.
True
70
In an efficient market, new information will move prices almost immediately.
True
71
What is the relationship between WACC and IRR?
b. IRR must exceed WACC to accept investment.
72
What is the relationship between NPV and IRR?
b. If discount rate equals IRR, NPV is equal to zero.
73
If a firm's financial and operating leverage is high, what is the implication?
b. Profits are more volatile as sales fluctuate.
74
If an industry, such as autos, has very high fixed costs and very cyclical sales, what is the implication for financial leverage?
b. Use low financial leverage to offset high operating leverage.
75
The SGR measures:
c. Potential sales growth with internal funding.
76
The SEC Securities & Exchange Commission requires public companies to do the following:
a. File audited financial statements with SEC.
77
If a company produces and sells a product only in the U.S., what international developments may affect its sales?
b. Imports of competing products
78
The SEC requires the following to file audited financial statements:
c. All publicly-traded corporations
79
Which best describes conceptually the valuation of all financial assets in financial markets?
b. The NPV of anticipated cash flows
80
Which accurately describes an "efficient" market?
c. Deviations from "fair value" are quickly eliminated.
81
If a firm's goal is to maximize stockholder wealth, which would the firm avoid?
c. Investments with negative NPV
82
If you wanted to evaluate a non-public company, what sources would you use?
c. The PE of a comparable public company
83
Which section of the Statement of Cash Flows describes the production and sales of the firm's product?
a. Cash Flow Operations
84
For calculating cash flows, why is depreciation added to Net Income?
b. Depreciation is a non-cash deduction.
85
The fundamental concept underlying the valuation of all financial assets is:
c. The present value of anticipated cash flows.
86
What explains the size of the yield spread of junk bonds over Treasury?
a. It is the value of the expected default loss.
87
What does Beta measure?
b. The relative riskiness of an individual stock.
88
What is the most effective use of financial statements in valuing a stock?
c. Use data to estimate future earnings.
89
If market interest rates rise, what impact does it have on a given bond?
a. Its price decreases.
90
What impact did the recent corporate tax cut have on a firm's WACC?
b. It increased WACC.
91
Why do firms often use "sensitivity" tests in analyzing investment projects?
b. Uncertainty of forecast assumptions
92
If debt is less costly than equity, why don't firms maximize debt use?
a. Excessive debt increases risk of bankruptcy.
93
Why does a firm's investment opportunities affect it dividend payout ratio?
a. Maximization of shareholder wealth strategy.

b. Limited access to market financing.

c. Attempts to increase stock price.
94
If two annuities have the same payments and term, why is an Annuity Due more valuable than an Ordinary Annuity?
b. Annuity Due payments occur earlier
95
What is the impact of rising interest rates on foreign exchange?
c. Increases the value of USD
96
In cash flow statements, which section reflects so-called "spontaneous" accounts which vary with sales?
a. Cash flow operations
97
What are the practical disadvantages of the Gordon model for equity valuation?
a. How to use if no dividends are paid.

b. Must project dividends "forever" into the future.

c. Does not address the appropriate discount rate.
98
What factor determines the "market risk premium" on stocks?
b. The investor-perceived riskiness of stocks.
99
Why would a company buy back outstanding stock?
a. To boost the price of the stock.

b. To increase financial leverage.

c. Lack of investment opportunities.
100
Which factor does NOT affect a firm's WACC?
d. The exchange rate
101
Why should an investor diversify the portfolio?
a. To achieve a better combination of risk and return.

b. To avoid putting "all eggs in one basket"

c. Stock returns are a function of systematic risk.
102
Which statement about a PE ratio is false?
b. Low PE stocks are cheap
103
If a firm cannot access markets sufficiently to meet their DFN, what strategies might they use?
a. Slow sales growth

b. Lower dividend payout

c. Increase the net margin
104
Which is not true of both stocks and bonds?
c. Have voting rights
105
The value of a corporation is best measured by:
c. Market capitalization
106
Which is not a component of the DuPont formula?
b. Debt to Equity Ratio
107
What metric converts FV to PV?
a. The discount rate
108
The interest rate on a corporate bond does not reflect:
c. Face Value
109
PV ordinarily is less than FV. What would cause the opposite?
b. Negative interest rates
110
Which would likely have the lowest price?
b. Zero coupon bond
111
Junk bonds are those whose rating is below:
d. BBB
112
Diversification protects against:
c. Idiosyncratic risk
113
Which is the best diversification for stock investment?
a. Auto company and grocery chain
114
If you are assessing a firm's ability to meet short term obligations, you would use which ratio?
b. Quick ratio
115
To assess firm efficiency, which ratio would you use?
a. Asset turnover
116
Which would have the highest value?
a. Gross margin
117
Which is the most important profit ratio?
c. Return on Equity
118
If the debt ratio increases, what effect does that have on ROE?
a. ROE increases.
119
Why is it a challenge for a fund manager to review financial statements from other countries?
B. Because the U.S. Generally Accepted Accounting Principles and the International Financial Reporting Standards vary.
120
What is true about the content and structure of an income statement?
B. It reports the revenues and expenses for a period of time.
121
What is true when income for tax purposes is higher than accounting income?
D. Actual income taxes payable will be higher than accounting income tax expense.
122
What does the statement of cash flows report?
C. A firm's cash balance and changes for a period of time.
123
What does net income measure that the cash flow from operating activities does not?
B. Payments made to suppliers of goods and services.
124
Which measure of cash flow is commonly used to evaluate the change in revenue and costs?
A. Cash flow from operating activities
125
An analyst is comparing the ratios of two firms and needs to address accounting differences. What would be considered an accounting difference between the two firms?
B. The firms use different inventory methods.
126
For the year 2013, a firm has a return on equity (ROE) that is greater than return on assets (ROA). Which conclusion would an analyst draw from these numbers?
D. The firm is effectively using debt.
127
What is an example of an estimate used in recording transactions?
C. Deciding the salvage value of a fixed asset when calculating depreciation expense.
128
What is the coupon rate (yield) of a bond?
D. The interest rate of the bond that is contractually set upon issuance.
129
If the coupon rate on a particular bond is higher than the market rate of return, at what will the bond sell?
A. At a premium
130
Which securities are issued by the U.S. Federal government and are taxable at the federal level?
D. Treasury bonds
131
What is the current price of the bond, if the required rate of return on a bond is the same as the coupon rate?
B. Equal to the par value of the bond.
132
If the current coupon rate on a bond is 6% and the bond is selling at a 5% discount, what is the yield to maturity on the bond?
B. Equal to 6%.
133
How is a short-term receivable, with the maturity of less than one year, carried on the balance sheet?
A. As a current asset.
134
When is a company that has strong operating revenues and competent management a good investment?
A. When the intrinsic value of the price per share is higher than the current stock price.
135
Thinking about levels of market efficiency quadrants. Which investment option should be selected assuming a prudent investor wants to maximize their expected return E(R)?
A. A
136
Which security type includes the right to vote for a board of directors?
D. Common stock
137
Economists forecast the probability of recession at 22%. During periods of recession, returns for a company have been -2%. Returns for the company have been 18% during an expansionary period. What is the forecast probability of an expansionary period?
B. 78%
138
What makes the "efficient frontier" efficient?
D. It maximizes the ratio of expected return to risk.
139
What are 3 components required in calculating weighted average cost of capital (WACC)?
D. The marginal tax rate

E. The value of preferred stock and debt

F. The firm's market value
140
What advantage does the Gordon growth model have compared to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)?
B. It provides an easier to understand and relatively accurate forecast when growth rates are stable.
141
How does the weighted average cost of capital affect a company's growth opportunities?
D. The lower the cost of capital, the greater the growth opportunities.
142
Under which three conditions would a firm decide to reduce the growth rate?
B. When additional investor capital is not available.

C. When capacity has been reached.

D. When customers are dissatisfied with the company's products.
143
Which three changes would affect an estimate of differential cash flows?
B. An increase in the estimated value of the new machine at the end of the project

C. A revision in the depreciation schedule

E. An increase in the overhead allocation
144
Why is it important to prepare an accurate fixed asset financing forecast?
B. Firms producing above capacity may not require additional fixed asset investment to increase sales.
145
How is the value of a project determined in the capital budgeting process?
C. The net present value of the incremental tax cash flows
146
Company A has a high degree of business risk. What will be the effect on the company's EBIT if the company suffers a slight decrease in sales?
B. Large decrease in EBIT
147
What effect does the method of financing investments have on the value of the firm?
A. The method of financing investments alters the weighted average of the cost of capital.
148
Why would a company prefer equity financing over debt financing?
D. Using equity to finance a capital investment project is less costly.
149
Which hybrid security has some elements that resemble equity and others that resemble debt?
B. Preferred stock
150
How do increases in market interest rates affect a firm's cost of capital?
C. The cost of debt increases.
151
Which two ratios are used to evaluate a company's working capital management?
A. Receivable turnover

D. Cash ratio
152
Why should a company carry cash?
C. Cash is needed for day to day operations
153
What is commonly used method that limits the time it takes between payment and the receipt of cash?
D. Electronic check processing
154
Some companies offer discounts to customers in order to give incentive for paying earlier than the due date. What two terms incentivize customers to accept trade discounts?
B. Length of the credit period

D. Amount of discount
155
Which three costs are associated with holding inventory?
B. Opportunity costs

C. Storage costs

D. Product costs
156
Investors will often sell a stock that has gains rather than a stock that is suffering losses in their portfolio, despite subsidized tax relief when selling at a loss. What the logic-defying behavioral implications of such a decision?
B. Maintaining winning positions in the portfolio enhances future portfolio growth rate.
157
How are the Security and Exchange Commissions' Regulation S and Rule 144A similar?
B. Both allow firms to raise capital without registering with the SEC if certain conditions are met.
158
What is the primary intent of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?
D. To ensure honest audit and accounting procedures.
159
Which element is a required disclosure in the prospectus, according to the Securities Act of 1933?
C. Audited financial statements
160
Which condition must be met for a firm that trades in equities to be in compliance with the Securities and Exchange (SEC) regulations?
Securities and Exchange (SEC) regulations?
D. Membership in FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority)
161
Which practice is limited by the Volcker rule of the Dodd-Frank Act?
C. Bank investments in hedge funds
162
What is beta?
C. An absolute measure of systematic risk
163
What do investors, entrepreneurs and other market participants rely on the SEC to do?
A. Determine safety and efficiency of investment by US and foreign investors.
164
What is one way a firm maximizes shareholder value?
D. By avoiding investments that cost more money than they bring in.
165
What is one of the two basic types of financial instruments?
C. Stocks
166
The stock price of a company increases and the market is deemed efficient. What assumption can be made?
A. A new, patented, product was introduced to the market.
167
Which statement is true about how the global market affects the U.S.?
D. Foreign investors and fund managers make decisions based on financial reporting standards developed and financial statements audited overseas.
168
What are secondary markets?
A. Markets where securities are traded subsequent to the initial offering.
169
A special interest group in the U.S. has been lobbying intensely for protectionism through increased tariffs and trade restrictions, with the argument that it will save jobs in the industry they represent. What is the most likely result if they are successful?
D. Employees and shareholders of the domestic industry that produce the protected goods will benefit and the nation will be hurt.
170
What is true about the content of an income statement?
D. It reports the revenues and expenses for a period of time.
171
What is the basis used to compute a company's income tax expense?
D. Taxes payable.
172
A company's trial balance shows \$900 in long-term debt. On which financial statement should this be shown?
D. The balance sheet
173
What do cash flows from financing activities generally relate to?
C. A firms' debt and equity transactions.
174
What is true about the cash flow from the operating activities section of the statement of cash flows?
A. Increases in current liability accounts represents an inflow of cash and should be added to net income.
175
An analyst is comparing the ratios of two firms and needs to address accounting differences. What would be considered an accounting difference between two firms?
C. The firms use different inventory methods.
176
Firms A and B are in the same industry. For the year 2013, Firm A has a gross margin of .45 and Firm B has a gross margin of .36.
Which conclusion would an analyst draw when comparing Firm A to Firm B?
A. Firm A has a more efficient production process.
177
What is a subordinated debenture?
D. A bond that has a lower claim to the assets of the firm in the event of liquidation.
178
Which securities are issued by the U.S. federal government and are taxable at the federal level?
B. Treasury bonds
179
What is the difference between a secured loan and an unsecured loan?
A. Secured loans require some form of collateral.
180
What is the intrinsic value of a stock?
C. Net present value of expected future cash flows
181
Which investment option should be selected assuming a prudent investor wants to maximize their return E(R)?
A. Quad 1 A
182
What is the relationship between annual percentage rate (APR) and annual percentage yield (APY)?
A. The APR will be greater than the APY if compounding happens more frequently than annually.
183
What is the priority order of repayment (first to last) to a company's investors and creditors?
C. Creditors, preferred stockholders, common stockholders.
184
Where on the "efficient frontier" is a young investor with a high risk tolerance likely to fall?
D. D3
185
Supply and demand factors suggest the slope for an individual asset in the portfolio will equal the slope of the market portfolio itself.

What is the significance of this equalization?
C. Investors will be incentivized to hold the market portfolio
186
What are the components required in calculating weighted average cost of capital (WACC)? Choose 3
C. The value of the preferred stock and debt

D. The firms market value

E. The marginal tax rate
187
What advantage does the Gordon Growth Model have compared to the capital asset pricing model (CAPM)?
C. It provides an easier to understand and relatively accurate forecast when growth rates are stable.
188
Under which three conditions would a firm decide to reduce the growth rate? Choose 3
B. When additional investor capital is not available.

D. When capacity has been reached.

E. When customers are dissatisfied with the company's products.
189
What are discretionary accounts?
A. Accounts that require management to deliberately increase or decrease.
190
What is the purpose of the capital budget process?
D. Deciding which projects increase the firm's value.
191
Firm A has a lower degree of business risk than Firm B. What will happen if there is a 1% increase in sales for both firms?
C. It will result in a greater percentage in Firm Bs operating income.
192
Modigilani and Miller's initial capital structure theory suggested that in the absence of taxes, bankruptcy costs and transaction costs, the firm's capital structure would not affect the weighted average cost of capital (WACC).

What has been proven by subsequent research and inclusion of factors omitted in the initial theory?
A. A firm's capital structure does affect the weighted average costs of capital, and thus a firm's value.
193
Which strategy issues new debt within a company and takes the proceeds from the debt issuance to buy back some of the outstanding shares?
A. Leverage recapitalization
194
Which type of bond gives an investor the right to trade each bond for a set number of shares of common stock whenever the investor chooses?
B. Convertible bond
195
A credit agency recently downgraded a company's debt. What is the impact on the cost of debt?
A. The cost of capital will increase.
196
Which financial ratio measures a company's ability to meet its short term obligations with its most liquid assets?
A. Quick ratio
197
Which term describes the amount of cash that a firm must hold as a safety net to counter future unforeseen expenses?
A. Reserve balance
198
Some companies offer discounts to customers in order to give incentive for paying earlier than the due date. Which two terms incentivize customers to accept trade discounts? Choose 2
B. Amount of discount

E. Length of the credit period
199
Which ratio is used in the comparable multiples method?
D. Price earnings ratio
200
Investors will often sell as stock that has gains rather than a stock that is suffering losses in their portfolio, despite subsidized tax relief when selling at a loss. What are the logic defying behavioral implications of such a decision?
B. Maintaining winning positions in the portfolio enhances future portfolio growth rate.
201
How are the Securities and Exchange Commissions Regulation S and Rule 144A similar?
A. Both allow firms to raise capital without registering with the SEC if certain conditions are met.
202
What must a firm have to be in compliance with Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA) rules?
D. Current and accurate books
203
Which organization was created by Dodd-Frank to monitor how systematic risk could impact the banking industry?
B. Financial Stability Oversight Council
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