VF BSCI #1

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1
What is the term for the body being erect, arms to the side with palms facing forward, head facing forward, and toes facing forward?
**Anatomical position**.
2
What is a paradoxical embolism?
Occurs when a venous thrombus bypasses the pulmonary circulation by crossing from the right atrium to the left atrium through an intracardiac shunt like a PFO, entering the systemic circulation and potentially causing a stroke
3
What anatomical term means toward the front of the body?
**Anterior/Ventral**.
4
What anatomical term means toward the back of the body?
**Posterior/Dorsal**.
5
What anatomical term means closer to the midline?
**Medial**.
6
What anatomical term means closer to the surface of the body?
**Superficial**.
7
What anatomical term means closer to the center or core of the body?
**Deep**.
8
What patient position describes lying on one's back?
**Supine**.
9
What patient position describes lying facedown?
**Prone**.
10
What patient position describes lying on one's side?
**Lateral recumbent**.
11
What term refers to moving a part of the body away from the midline?
**Abduction**.
12
What plane of section passes through the body, dividing it into superior and inferior parts?
A **transverse or horizontal plane** (also called **axial plane**).
13
What type of section can also be used to visualize internal organs on a CT scan?
A **coronal section**.
14
What is the centralized compartment of the thorax, located between the two pulmonary (pleural) cavities?
The **mediastinum** is the **centralized compartment of the thorax**.
15
What is the outermost rigid and tough layer of the pericardium?
The **fibrous pericardium**.
16
What shiny serous membrane lines the internal surface of the fibrous pericardium?
The **parietal pericardium**.
17
What layer of the pericardium lies on the surface of the heart itself?
The **visceral layer of pericardium**.
18
What space between the pericardial layers contains serous fluid to create a frictionless environment for the beating heart?
The **pericardial cavity**.
19
Approximately how much of the heart resides just to the left of the midline?
Approximately **two-thirds of the heart resides just to the left of the midline**.
20
Where is the apex of the heart located?
The **apex of the heart is located at the 5th intercostal space**, just lateral to the sternum.
21
On a chest X-ray, what chamber of the heart constitutes the majority of the visible heart?
On a **chest X-ray**, the majority of the heart visible is the **right ventricle**.
22
What small portion of the heart can be seen at the right edge of the sternum on a chest X-ray?
A small portion of the **right atrium**.
23
What sliver of a great vessel can be seen at the right edge of the sternum on a chest X-ray?
A sliver of the **superior vena cava**.
24
What anatomical structure obscures the heart shadow in the midline on a chest X-ray?
The **dense sternum obscures the heart shadow in the midline**.
25
Which great vessel is the largest and thickest emerging from the heart, carrying blood systemically from the left ventricle?
The **ascending aorta**.
26
Which valve guards the left atrioventricular orifice?
The **mitral valve** (bicuspid valve).
27
Which valve is at the apex of the infundibulum (aka conus arteriosus) and prevents backflow into the right ventricle?
The **pulmonary semilunar valve**.
28
Which semilunar valve has left, right, and posterior cusps?
The **aortic semilunar valve**.
29
Where should one listen to heart valves according to the flow of blood for auscultation?
To auscultate heart valves, one should always listen **downstream of the valve**.
30
Where is the auscultation site for the aortic valve?
**Right 2nd intercostal space at the sternal margin**.
31
Where is the auscultation site for the pulmonary valve?
**Left 2nd intercostal space at the sternal margin**.
32
Where is the auscultation site for the tricuspid valve?
**Left 5th intercostal space at the sternal margin**.
33
Where is the auscultation site for the mitral valve?
**Left 5th intercostal space at the midclavicular line**.
34
Where are the specialized cardiac muscle cells known as the SA node located?
**Specialized cardiac muscle cells that control the rate of the heartbeat, known as the SA node, are found in the wall of the right atrium near the opening of the superior vena cava on the anterior side**.
35
Where is the AV node located?
The **AV node is located along the posteromedial wall of the atrioventricular orifice**.
36
What structure in the right atrium conveys cardiac conduction fibers from the SA node to the AV node?
The **crista terminalis** of the right atrium **conveys cardiac conduction fibers from the SA node to the AV node**.
37
What vein is paired with the Left Anterior Descending interventricular artery (LAD)?
**Great cardiac vein**.
38
What cardiac vein is paired with the Posterior Descending Artery (PDA)?
**Middle cardiac vein**.
39
What cardiac vein is paired with the Marginal artery?
**Small cardiac vein**.
40
Which coronary artery is most likely to require intervention in an inferior wall myocardial infarction?
The **right coronary artery**.
41
Which coronary artery primarily supplies the right atrium?
The **right atrium is primarily supplied by the right coronary artery**.
42
What structure is composed of dense collagen rings and serves as points of attachment for heart valves?
The **fibrous cardiac skeleton**.
43
What is an additional function of the fibrous cardiac skeleton related to the heart's conduction system?
It also acts as an **insulator for the heart's conduction system, directing action potential conduction from the atria to the ventricles**.
44
Where should a needle be placed to avoid damaging the intercostal vein, artery, and nerve during insertion?
At the **superior border of the inferior rib**.
45
Which major organ system is the first to develop and function in the embryo?
The **cardiovascular system is the first major organ system to develop and function in the embryo**.
46
Approximately what percentage of congenital defects in newborns involve cardiovascular system malformations?
Approximately **20% of congenital defects in newborns involve cardiovascular system malformations**.
47
What is the initial step in heart development from two endocardial tubes?
The **fusion of two endocardial (or heart) tubes into a single primary heart tube**.
48
In the early heart, what structure does blood flow into from the embryo, placenta, and yolk sac?
The **sinus venosus**.
49
After the sinus venosus, where does blood flow next in the early heart?
The **primitive atrium**.
50
After the primitive atrium, where does blood flow next in the early heart?
The **primitive ventricle**.
51
What embryonic structure gives rise to the outflow channels of the heart, namely the aorta and pulmonary trunk?
The **truncus arteriosus gives rise to the outflow channels of the heart, namely the aorta and pulmonary trunk**.
52
What types of defects can result from abnormalities in the partitioning of the primordial heart?
**Atrial septal defects (ASDs), ventricular septal defects (VSDs), or defects involving the great vessels**.
53
What kind of terms should one familiarize themselves with in embryology?
**Embryology terms** representing derivatives of key adult structures and those with direct clinical relevance.
54
What represents the union of an egg and sperm, marking the beginning of human development?
A **zygote**.
55
What term refers to the embryo and its associated membranous structures?
The **conceptus**.
56
What forms from the zygote's cell divisions?
The **embryo**.
57
After the end of the 8th week of development, what is the developing human referred to until birth?
A **fetus**.
58
What developmental period occurs over the first two weeks, where the zygote forms an early embryo as a bilayered embryonic disc?
The **blastocyst period** (or Conceptus period).
59
What developmental period runs from week three to the end of Week 8?
The **embryonic period**.
60
During the embryonic period, what three germ layers compose the trilaminar disc?
**Ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm**.
61
During which period is the embryo most vulnerable to teratogens?
The **embryonic period**.
62
Which germ layer gives rise to the outer covering of the body?
The **ectoderm**.
63
Which germ layer forms the central nervous system?
The **ectoderm**.
64
What cells, derived from the ectoderm, form structures of the peripheral nervous system?
**Neural crest cells**.
65
Which germ layer gives rise to structures of the peripheral nervous system via neural crest cells?
The **ectoderm**.
66
What fetal structure allows oxygen-rich blood from the placenta to be shunted directly to the left atrium, bypassing the fetal lungs?
The **foramen ovale**.
67
What fetal structure normally closes shortly after birth, and if patent, can cause left-to-right shunting?
A **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)**.
68
What medication can be used to maintain the patency of the ductus arteriosus and enhance blood mixing in conditions like Transposition of the Great Arteries?
**Prostaglandin E1 can be used to maintain its patency and enhance blood mixing between parallel circulations**.
69
What two types of muscle physiology must be mastered in detail?
**Cardiac and smooth muscle**.
70
What is a key topic to understand regarding the two main types of circulation?
The **difference between pulmonary and systemic circulations**.
71
What is the formula for Cardiac Output (CO)?
**CO = HR x SV**.
72
What diagram is a key topic in cardiac physiology?
**The Wigger’s Diagram**.
73
What is the relationship between intracellular Ca2+ and force of contraction?
The **relationship between intracellular Ca2+ and force of contraction** is that an increase in intracellular Ca2+ increases force of contraction, which increases stroke volume.
74
What is the primary function of the heart in the cardiovascular system?
The **heart functions as a pump**.
75
What is the normal resting cardiac output (CO)?
A **normal resting cardiac output (CO) of approximately 5 L/min**.
76
At what levels can cardiovascular diseases manifest?
**Cardiovascular diseases** can manifest at macroscopic or microscopic levels.
77
Name the four chambers of the heart.
**Right atrium, right ventricle, left atrium, and left ventricle**.
78
Which valve separates the right atrium and right ventricle?
The **tricuspid valve**.
79
Which valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle?
The **mitral valve**.
80
Which valves separate the ventricles from the pulmonary artery and aorta, respectively?
**Pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves**.
81
Describe the path of blood flow from the systemic circulation through the right side of the heart to the pulmonary circulation.
Blood from the systemic circulation flows to the **right atrium**, then **right ventricle**, into the **pulmonary circulation** for gas exchange.
82
Describe the path of blood flow from the pulmonary circulation through the left side of the heart and into the systemic circulation.
Blood returns to the **left atrium**, then **left ventricle**, and finally into the **systemic circulation via the aorta**.
83
When do AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) open?
**AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) open when atrial pressure exceeds ventricular pressure**.
84
When do AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) close?
**AV valves (mitral and tricuspid) close when ventricular pressure exceeds atrial pressure**.
85
When do semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) close?
**Semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) close when great artery pressure exceeds ventricular pressure**.
86
When do semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) open?
**Semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary) open when ventricular pressure exceeds great artery pressure**.
87
What characterizes stenotic valves?
**Stenotic valves are narrow and impede blood flow**, requiring higher upstream pressures.
88
When are murmurs heard with stenotic valves?
Murmurs are heard with stenotic valves when **open**.
89
What characterizes insufficient valves?
**Insufficient valves are leaky**, allowing blood to flow backward (regurgitation).
90
When are murmurs heard with insufficient valves?
Murmurs are heard with insufficient valves when **closed**.
91
What is systole?
**Systole is the period of ventricular contraction and blood ejection**.
92
What is diastole?
**Diastole is the period of ventricular relaxation and filling**.
93
What are the pressure characteristics of the pulmonary circulation?
The **pulmonary circulation** is highly compliant with **lower pressures** (right ventricular systolic pressure ~ **25 mmHg**).
94
What are the pressure characteristics of the systemic circulation?
The **systemic circulation** has **higher pressures** (left ventricular systolic pressure ~ **120 mmHg**).
95
What are the three variables that determine stroke volume?
The **inotropic state (contractility)** of the heart, the **filling of the heart (preload)**, and the **pressure against which the heart must work (afterload)**.
96
What term describes cardiac muscle, meaning excitation spreads from cell to cell?
**Cardiac muscle is a syncytium**.
97
What structures allow excitation to spread from cell to cell in cardiac muscle?
**Gap junctions**.
98
What structures provide mechanical adhesion in cardiac muscle and are located within intercalated discs?
**Desmosomes**.
99
What structures in cardiac muscle contain gap junction, desmosomes and fascia adherens?
**Intercalated discs**.
100
What is the approximate amplitude of a cardiac action potential in ventricular muscle cells?
An amplitude of about **110-120 mV**.
101
What is the approximate duration of a cardiac action potential in ventricular muscle cells?
A duration of approximately **0.25-0.30 seconds**.
102
What is the long plateau phase of the cardiac action potential primarily due to?
Its **long plateau phase is primarily due to voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels**.
103
What triggers the contraction of cardiac muscle?
**Contraction of cardiac muscle is triggered by an increase in myoplasmic Ca2+ concentration**.
104
What augments the Ca2+ entering cardiac muscle cells from the surface (sarcolemma) membrane?
A larger **Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR)**.
105
What is the specific name for the larger Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in cardiac muscle?
**Calcium-induced calcium release**.
106
What is the approximate peak left ventricular pressure during systole according to Wigger's Diagram?
Left ventricular pressure peaks around **120 mmHg** during systole.
107
What is the approximate aortic pressure during diastole according to Wigger's Diagram?
Aortic pressure falls to about **80 mmHg** during diastole.
108
What is the typical end-diastolic volume?
Typical **end-diastolic volume is about 135 ml**.
109
What is the typical end-systolic volume?
**End-systolic volume is about 65 ml**.
110
What causes the first heart sound (S1)?
The **first heart sound (S1) is caused by the closing of the AV valves**.
111
What causes the second heart sound (S2)?
The **second heart sound (S2) is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves**.
112
A splitting of S1 and a right bundle block most likely indicates an issue with which heart valve?
The **tricuspid valve**.
113
What does the P wave on an EKG represent?
**P wave: atrial depolarization**.
114
What does the QRS complex on an EKG represent?
**QRS complex: ventricular depolarization**.
115
What does the T wave on an EKG represent?
**T wave: ventricular repolarization**.
116
What does the interval between the P wave and the QRS complex represent on an EKG?
The **interval between the P wave and the QRS complex is the AV nodal delay**.
117
What does the ST segment on an EKG represent?
The **ST segment** represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, when the ventricle is uniformly depolarized.
118
What phase of the cardiac cycle begins when the mitral valve closes and ends when the aortic semilunar valve opens?
**Isovolumic contraction**.
119
What phase of the cardiac cycle begins when the aortic valve closes and ends when the mitral valve opens?
**Isovolumic relaxation**.
120
What is the approximate resting membrane potential of ventricular and atrial contractile cells?
The **resting membrane potential** of ventricular and atrial contractile cells is about **-90 mV**.
121
Which cells in the heart exhibit pacemaker activity?
**SA and AV node cells exhibit pacemaker activity**.
122
Why is the SA node normally the heart's pacemaker?
The **SA node normally being the heart's pacemaker because it has the fastest rate of depolarization**.
123
What are the key extracellular ionic concentrations for Na+, K+, and Ca2+?
**Na+ (135-145 mM), K+ (3.5-5.0 mM), Ca2+ (2.0-2.6 mM)**.
124
What are the key intracellular ionic concentrations for Na+, K+, and Ca2+ at rest?
**Na+ (~10-15 mM), K+ (~140 mM), Ca2+ (~50 nM at rest)**.
125
Describe the specific path of excitation spread through the heart.
**SA node → atria → AV node (slow conduction) → Bundle of His → bundle branches → Purkinje fibers (fast conduction) → ventricular muscle**.
126
What are thick filaments composed of in cardiac muscle?
**Thick filaments are composed of myosin**.
127
What three proteins make up thin filaments in cardiac muscle?
**Thin filaments consist of actin, tropomyosin, and troponin**.
128
What protein blocks actin binding sites in relaxed muscle?
**Tropomyosin blocks actin binding sites**.
129
Which component of troponin binds Ca2+, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin?
**Troponin C binds Ca2+**.
130
What energizes the myosin head during muscle contraction?
**ATP hydrolysis energizes the myosin head**.
131
How is Ca2+ primarily removed from the myoplasm during muscle relaxation?
**Ca2+ is removed from the myoplasm**, primarily by **SR Ca2+ pumps** and the **Na+/Ca2+ exchanger**.
132
According to Starling's Law of the Heart, how does increased stretch affect force generation in cardiac muscle?
**Increased stretch (from more blood filling) to generate additional force**.
133
What is contractility (inotropic state)?
**Contractility (inotropic state) is the force developed at a given fiber length**.
134
What factors can increase cardiac contractility?
It is **increased by factors like catecholamines** and **cardiac glycosides**.
135
What parts of the heart do sympathetic nerves extensively innervate?
**Sympathetic nerves extensively innervate the ventricles, atria, SA node, and AV node**.
136
What neurotransmitter do sympathetic nerves release?
**Norepinephrine (NE)**.
137
What receptors does norepinephrine bind to during sympathetic stimulation?
**β1 adrenergic receptors**.
138
What are the effects of sympathetic stimulation on heart rate, force of contraction, and AV node conduction velocity?
**Sympathetic stimulation produces increased heart rate (positive chronotropic effect), increased force of contraction (positive inotropic effect) in both atria and ventricles, and increased conduction velocity through the AV node**.
139
How do β1 receptors mediate the effects of sympathetic stimulation?
**β1 receptors activating Gs proteins, leading to increased cAMP and PKA activity, which phosphorylates Ca2+ and pacemaker channels, enhancing their activity. PKA also enhances SR Ca2+ pump activity**.
140
What parts of the heart do parasympathetic nerves (vagus nerve) innervate?
**Parasympathetic nerves (vagus nerve) innervate the atria, SA node, and AV node**.
141
What neurotransmitter do parasympathetic nerves release?
**Acetylcholine (Ach)**.
142
What receptors does acetylcholine bind to during parasympathetic stimulation?
**M2 muscarinic receptors**.
143
What are the effects of parasympathetic stimulation on heart rate, AV node conduction velocity, and atrial force of contraction?
**Parasympathetic stimulation produces decreased heart rate, decreased conduction velocity at the AV node, and decreased force of contraction only in the atria**.
144
How do M2 receptors mediate the effects of parasympathetic stimulation?
**M2 receptors activating Gi proteins, leading to decreased cAMP and PKA activity, and direct activation of K+ channels, which hyperpolarizes the membrane and slows depolarization in pacemaker cells**.
145
What type of receptors are both β1 adrenergic and M2 muscarinic receptors?
Both β1 adrenergic and M2 muscarinic receptors are **G-protein coupled receptors**.
146
How do inotropic drugs generally increase the force of ventricular contraction?
**Inotropic drugs increase the force of ventricular contraction by increasing myoplasmic Ca2+ concentration during systole**.
147
How do cardiac glycosides (e.g., digitalis) increase the force of ventricular contraction?
**Cardiac glycosides (e.g., digitalis)** inhibit Na+/K+ ATPase, increasing intracellular Na+, which then inhibits the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger, leading to more Ca2+ stored in the SR and a more forceful contraction.
148
How do sympathomimetic amines (e.g., dobutamine) increase the force of ventricular contraction?
**Sympathomimetic amines (e.g., dobutamine)** activate β1 adrenergic receptors, mimicking sympathetic effects.
149
How do phosphodiesterase inhibitors increase the force of ventricular contraction?
**Phosphodiesterase inhibitors** slow cAMP breakdown, leading to increased cAMP and enhanced Ca2+ entry/force of contraction.
150
Name the three types of muscle.
**Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth**.
151
Which types of muscle are striated?
**Skeletal and cardiac are striated**.
152
Which type of muscle is unstriated?
**Smooth is unstriated**.
153
Which type of muscle is voluntary?
**Skeletal muscle is voluntary**.
154
Which types of muscle are involuntary?
**Cardiac and smooth are involuntary**.
155
What type of smooth muscle is electrically coupled by gap junctions and contracts as a unit?
**Single-unit smooth muscle**.
156
What type of smooth muscle has few gap junctions and acts independently, requiring separate nerve stimulation?
**Multiunit smooth muscle**.
157
What type of smooth muscle maintains continuous partial activity (tone)?
**Tonic smooth muscle**.
158
What type of smooth muscle contracts rhythmically or intermittently?
**Phasic smooth muscle**.
159
What structures anchor thin filaments in smooth muscle, analogous to Z lines?
**Dense bodies anchor thin filaments**.
160
What primarily triggers smooth muscle contraction?
**Increased myoplasmic Ca2+**, mostly from extracellular fluid.
161
What must happen to smooth muscle myosin to bind actin?
**Smooth muscle myosin must be phosphorylated to bind actin**.
162
What phenomenon in smooth muscle allows tonic tension with little ATP consumption?
The **latch phenomenon**.
163
What response does smooth muscle exhibit that allows it to generate tension over a much wider range of lengths than skeletal muscle?
Smooth muscle exhibits a **stress relaxation response**.
164
What type of innervation does vascular smooth muscle primarily receive?
**Vascular smooth muscle primarily receives sympathetic innervation**.
165
How do β2 adrenergic receptors cause relaxation and vasodilation in smooth muscle?
**β2 adrenergic receptors**
Epinephrine/Norepinephrine → β₂-Adrenergic Receptor (GPCR) → Gs Protein Activation → Adenylyl Cyclase Activation → ATP → cAMP → PKA Activation → Inhibition of MLCK → ↓ Myosin Phosphorylation → ↓ Actin-Myosin Interaction → Smooth Muscle Relaxation → Vasodilation
166
How do α2 adrenergic receptors cause contraction and vasoconstriction in smooth muscle?
**α2 adrenergic receptors** inhibit adenylyl cyclase -> decreased cAMP/PKA -> activates myosin kinase -> contraction and vasoconstriction.
167
How do α1 adrenergic receptors cause contraction in smooth muscle?
**α1 adrenergic receptors** activate PLC -> IP3 -> Ca2+ release from SR -> contraction.
168
How do M3 muscarinic receptors cause relaxation and vasodilation in smooth muscle?
**M3 muscarinic receptors** cause nitric oxide (NO) production, which diffuses to smooth muscle to increase cGMP, leading to relaxation and vasodilation.
169
What maintains vascular tone in arteriolar smooth muscle?
**Arteriolar smooth muscle maintains vascular tone** due to sympathetic NE release and myogenic activity.
170
What effect do local chemical factors like decreased O2, increased CO2, or adenosine have on arteriolar smooth muscle?
**Relaxation/vasodilation** of arteriolar smooth muscle.
171
What is the ANS and what does it control?
The **ANS is an efferent system innervating every organ, controlling involuntary functions**.
172
Which autonomic system prepares the body for 'fight or flight'?
The **sympathetic system prepares for 'fight or flight'**.
173
Which autonomic system promotes 'rest and digest' functions?
The **parasympathetic system promotes 'rest and digest'**.
174
What are crucial for ANS function, operating involuntarily to maintain homeostasis?
**Reflex arcs are crucial for ANS function, operating involuntarily to maintain homeostasis**.
175
What are the characteristics of sympathetic preganglionic fibers regarding length and neurotransmitter release?
**Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are short and release Ach**.
176
What neurotransmitter do sympathetic postganglionic fibers typically release?
Postganglionic fibers are long and typically release **NE**.
177
What are the characteristics of parasympathetic preganglionic fibers regarding length and neurotransmitter release?
**Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers are long and release Ach**.
178
What neurotransmitter do parasympathetic postganglionic fibers release?
Postganglionic fibers are short and release **Ach**.
179
What do receptors convert stimuli into to generate action potentials?
**Receptors convert stimuli into electrical receptor potentials, which generate action potentials**.
180
What types of responses can receptors have to stimuli?
Receptors can be **phasic**, **tonic**, or **mixed**.
181
What is a key autonomic reflex that regulates blood pressure by altering sympathetic and parasympathetic tone?
The **baroreflex is a key autonomic reflex that regulates blood pressure by altering sympathetic and parasympathetic tone in response to stretch in baroreceptors**.
182
What effect do M3 receptors have on GI smooth muscle motility?
**M3 receptors increase motility**.
183
What effect do β2 receptors have on GI smooth muscle motility?
**β2 receptors decrease motility**.
184
What effect do α1 receptors have on GI smooth muscle motility?
**α1 receptors decrease motility**.
185
What effect do presynaptic α2 receptors have on GI smooth muscle motility?
**Presynaptic α2 receptors decrease ACh release**, reducing motility.
186
What neurotransmitter binds to M3 receptors in salivary and sweat glands, leading to increased secretion?
**ACh binds to M3 receptors**.
187
What is the effect of ACh binding to M3 receptors in salivary and sweat glands?
Leading to **increased secretion**.
188
What refers to abnormalities of the heart and/or great vessels that are present at birth?
**Congenital heart disease (CHD)**.
189
What genetic syndrome is a known risk factor for congenital heart disease (CHD)?
**Down syndrome** is a known risk factor for CHD.
190
What congenital heart defect is the most likely for a newborn with cyanosis worsening with crying, a harsh systolic murmur at the left sternal border, and a single second heart sound (S2)?
**Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF)**.
191
What are the four characteristic components of Tetralogy of Fallot?
**Pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, an overriding aorta, and a ventricular septal defect**.
192
What shape does the heart typically appear on a chest X-ray in Tetralogy of Fallot?
A "**boot-shaped**" heart on chest X-ray.
193
What congenital heart defect is described by a continuous "machine-like" murmur heard best at the left infraclavicular area?
A **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)**.
194
What syndrome is a large Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) most likely to lead to if left untreated?
**Eisenmenger syndrome**.
195
What causes the holosystolic murmur heard at the left lower sternal border in a VSD?
**Blood flow from the left ventricle to the right ventricle**.
196
What is the most likely hemodynamic change in a large VSD?
**Increased right ventricular pressure**.
197
If a VSD patient develops right-sided heart failure and cyanosis, what best explains this?
A **right-to-left shunt** (Eisenmenger syndrome).
198
What congenital heart defect is associated with Turner syndrome?
**Coarctation of the aorta**.
199
What congenital heart defect is most likely in a newborn with Down syndrome?
**Complete atrioventricular canal defect**.
200
What type of embolism best explains a stroke in a patient with a patent foramen ovale where a venous thrombus crosses from the right to the left atrium?
A **paradoxical embolism**.
201
What maneuver increases the risk of paradoxical embolism by increasing right atrial pressure?
A **Valsalva maneuver increases the risk of paradoxical embolism by increasing right atrial pressure**.
202
What congenital heart defect is due to a failure of septation of the truncus arteriosus?
**Truncus arteriosus** is due to a **failure of septation of the truncus arteriosus**.
203
What congenital heart defect is indicated by a wide and fixed splitting of the second heart sound?
An **Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)**.
204
What is a long-term complication of an untreated Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?
**Pulmonary hypertension**.
205
What embryological failure leads to an Atrial Septal Defect (ASD)?
The **incomplete formation of the septum secundum**.
206
What congenital heart defect is characterized by the aorta arising from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle, leading to severe cyanosis that does not improve with oxygen supplementation?
**Transposition of the Great Arteries (TGA)**.
207
What percentage of live births are affected by congenital heart disease (CHD), and what is its significance as a cause of death in children?
**Congenital heart disease (CHD) affects approximately 0.8% of live births and remains the leading cause of death in children with congenital malformations**.
208
What is the most common congenital heart defect?
The **most common congenital heart defect is ventricular septal defect (VSD)**.
209
How does pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) change in the first several weeks of life, and what effect does this have on left-to-right shunting?
**Pulmonary vascular resistance (PVR) significantly decreases in the first several weeks of life**, leading to an **increase in left-to-right shunting**.
210
What embryological event causes Tetralogy of Fallot, and what are its four components?
**Tetralogy of Fallot** results from an **Anterior displacement of the infundibular (conal) septum**, leading to **pulmonary stenosis, a malalignment VSD, an overriding aorta, and right ventricular hypertrophy**.
211
What is a "tet spell" and what often triggers it?
A "**tet spell**" is a **hypercyanotic episode** characterized by a **sudden increase in right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, resulting in increased right-to-left shunting of deoxygenated blood across the VSD into the systemic circulation**. This is often **triggered by crying and agitation**.
212
What maneuver is used to break a tet spell, and how does it work?
To **break a tet spell, the knee-to-chest position is used**. This maneuver **increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR), causing left-sided (systemic) pressures to exceed right-sided (pulmonary) pressures, thereby decreasing right-to-left shunting**.
213
When do large VSDs typically cause symptoms of heart failure in infants?
**Large VSDs** typically cause **symptoms of heart failure** in infants at **1-2 months of age**.
214
What are some examples of heart failure symptoms caused by large VSDs in infants?
Examples include **poor weight gain, difficulty breastfeeding, tachycardia, tachypnea, hepatomegaly**.
215
What specific issues result from pulmonary overcirculation caused by large VSDs?
The **pulmonary overcirculation leads to pulmonary edema (tachypnea) and increased caloric expenditure (poor weight gain)**.
216
What is the long-term consequence of uncorrected left-to-right shunts like a VSD?
The **long-term consequence of uncorrected left-to-right shunts (like a VSD) is pulmonary vascular changes and pulmonary hypertension, leading to Eisenmenger’s Syndrome**.
217
What defines D-Transposition of the Great Arteries (D-TGA)?
**D-Transposition of the Great Arteries (D-TGA)** involves the **aorta arising from the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle, creating two parallel circulations**.
218
How do infants with D-TGA present immediately at birth?
Infants present with **unremitting cyanosis immediately at birth that does not improve with supplemental oxygen**.
219
What is required for survival in D-TGA?
**Connections between the circulations (ASD or PFO) are required for survival**.
220
What medication is used to maintain ductus arteriosus patency in D-TGA?
**Prostaglandin E1 is used to maintain ductus arteriosus patency**.
221
What is a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA), and what are its consequences if it remains patent?
A **Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)** is a fetal structure that normally closes shortly after birth. If it remains patent, it causes **left-to-right shunting**, leading to **pulmonary overcirculation and potential heart failure**.
222
What clinical manifestations can indicate intolerance to a Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?
Clinical intolerance can manifest as a **continuous murmur, tachypnea, tachycardia, increased work of breathing, failure to thrive, and poor feeding**.
223
What is coarctation of the aorta, and when can its closure be a life-threatening emergency?
**Coarctation of the aorta** is a narrowing of the aorta that can be a **life-threatening emergency if the PDA is the sole source of blood to the lower body**.
224
How do patients with coarctation of the aorta typically present?
Patients present with **upper extremity hypertension and delayed or absent femoral pulses**.
225
What syndrome is coarctation of the aorta associated with?
It is associated with **Turner’s syndrome**.
226
What is Ebstein Anomaly?
**Ebstein Anomaly** is a malformation of the **tricuspid valve**, causing regurgitation into the right atrium.
227
What causes Truncus Arteriosus?
**Truncus Arteriosus** is caused by the **failure of the truncus arteriosus to divide into the pulmonary artery and aorta**, resulting in a single outflow artery.
228
What is Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR), and what is a key symptom?
**Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return (TAPVR)** involves pulmonary veins draining into the right atrium instead of the left, leading to lower oxygen levels in systemic blood and **cyanosis**.
229
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **Alcohol exposure in utero**?
**VSD, ASD, Tetralogy of Fallot**.
230
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **Congenital rubella**?
**PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis**.
231
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**?
**AV septal defect, VSD, ASD, Tetralogy of Fallot, PDA**.
232
What congenital heart lesions/issues are associated with **Marfan syndrome**?
**Aortic aneurysm and dissection, aortic regurgitation, mitral valve prolapse**.
233
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **Turner syndrome**?
**Bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of the aorta**.
234
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **Williams syndrome**?
**Supravalvular aortic stenosis, peripheral pulmonary artery stenosis**.
235
What congenital heart lesions are associated with **DiGeorge syndrome (22q11 deletion)**?
**Truncus arteriosus, Tetralogy of Fallot**.
236
What congenital heart lesion is associated with **Prenatal lithium exposure**?
**Ebstein anomaly**.
237
What covers the binding sites of actin in the absence of Ca2+?
Tropomyosin
238
What binds to troponin C to initiate contraction?
Ca2+
239
What does Ca2+ bind to, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin?
Troponin C
240
What moves out of the way when Ca2+ binds to troponin C, allowing myosin and actin to interact?
Tropomyosin
241
What interacts with actin when tropomyosin is moved out of the way?
Myosin
242
What interacts with myosin when tropomyosin is moved out of the way?
Actin
243
What state of the crossbridge cycle has no ATP or ADP bound to it?
Attached state
244
What state are myofilaments in when there is an absence of ATP?
Attached state
245
What condition do dead bodies exhibit due to myofilaments being attached in the absence of ATP?
Rigor mortis
246
What is released from actin upon ATP binding?
Myosin
247
What is actin released from upon ATP binding?
Myosin
248
What is energized when bound ATP is hydrolyzed into ADP and phosphate?
Myosin
249
What is the process that occurs as phosphate and ADP are released and the actin and myosin move?
Power stroke
250
What moves during the power stroke?
Actin and myosin
251
In the resting state, what causes myosin to remain detached from actin?
Low calcium
252
In the resting state, what remains in place covering the myosin binding sites on the actin?
Tropomyosin
253
What are covered by tropomyosin in the resting state?
Myosin binding sites on the actin
254
What is the series of events leading to normal excitation and contraction of cardiac muscle?
The action potential propagates along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubular membrane, opening voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels, which then triggers Ca2+ release from the SR through ryanodine receptors (RyR), a process known as Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release (CICR)
255
What normally initiates the action potential in cardiac muscle?
Pacemaker cells
256
Where does the action potential propagate in cardiac muscle?
Along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubular membrane
257
What channels are opened when the action potential spreads into the sarcolemma and T-tubular membrane?
Voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels
258
What are voltage-dependent L-type Ca2+ channels also called?
DHPR or dihydropyridine receptors
259
What triggers Ca2+ release from the SR?
Ca2+ that enters the cell through L-type Ca2+ channels
260
What is the SR Ca release channel also known as?
Ryanodine receptor (RyR)
261
What process describes the opening of ryanodine receptor (RyR) channels?
Ca2+-induced Ca2+ release (CICR)
262
What does Ca2+ bind to in the junctional cleft to open the channel for Ca2+ release from the SR?
RyR
263
What is the concentration range of Ca2+ in the SR lumen?
Millimolar range
264
What is the concentration range of Ca2+ in the cytosol?
About 50-150 nM
265
What hormones increase the activity of the L-type Ca2+ channel?
Catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
266
What do catecholamines alter by increasing delayed rectifier K+ current?
Ventricular action potential
267
What do catecholamines alter in relation to myofilaments?
Ca2+ binding to the myofilaments
268
What activity do catecholamines increase related to the SR?
SR Ca ATPase (pump)
269
What would be the result of a calcium channel blocker like verapamil on smooth muscle contraction?
Decreased Myosin Light Chain Kinase (MLCK) activity leading to vascular muscle relaxation
270
What normally leads to the phosphorylation of myosin in smooth muscle?
Increased intracellular Ca2+
271
What does Ca2+ bind to in smooth muscle to initiate contraction?
Calmodulin
272
What complex is formed when Ca2+ binds to calmodulin?
Ca2+‑calmodulin complex
273
What does the Ca2+‑calmodulin complex activate?
Myosin kinase (myosin light chain-kinase, MLCK)
274
What does activated myosin kinase do?
Phosphorylates myosin
275
What binds to actin of the thin filaments to allow cross-bridge cycling and contraction in smooth muscle?
Phosphorylated myosin
276
What process is generally much slower in smooth muscle compared to skeletal or cardiac muscle?
Contraction
277
How does verapamil work?
By inhibiting the influx of calcium ions into smooth muscle cells
278
What does verapamil reduce due to inhibiting calcium influx?
Calcium binding to calmodulin
279
What activation does verapamil prevent?
Myosin light chain kinase
280
What does verapamil lead to in smooth muscle?
Relaxation of smooth muscle
281
What specific vessels does verapamil relax?
Blood vessels, particularly cerebral arteries
282
What does verapamil help to prevent?
Vasospasm and dilation associated with migraine headaches
283
What type of drug would be appropriate to cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure?
ɑ1 agonist
284
What effect does an alpha agonist have on vascular smooth muscle?
Causes contraction
285
How does an ɑ1 agonist cause contraction of vascular smooth muscle?
α₁ Agonist (e.g., phenylephrine)
↓
Binds to α₁ adrenergic receptor (Gq-coupled)
↓
Activates Gq protein
↓
Stimulates phospholipase C (PLC)
↓
PLC converts PIP₂ → IP₃ + DAG
↓
IP₃ binds to IP₃ receptors on SR
↓
Ca²⁺ released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
↓
↑ Intracellular Ca²⁺
↓
Ca²⁺ binds to calmodulin
↓
Activates myosin light chain kinase (MLCK)
↓
MLCK phosphorylates myosin
↓
Cross-bridge formation with actin
↓
**Smooth muscle contraction → Vasoconstriction**
286
How does an ɑ2 agonist cause contraction of vascular smooth muscle?
By decreasing PKA activity
287
What effect does a β receptor have on smooth muscle?
Causes less contraction by increasing PKA activity
288
What effect does a β2 agonist have on vascular smooth muscle?
Causes dilation
289
Does vascular smooth muscle have β1 receptors?
No
290
What type of muscle does have β1 receptors?
Cardiac muscle
291
What would a β1 antagonist do to cardiac muscle?
Cause it to contract with less force
292
What neurotransmitter is released from Pre-ganglionic Sympathetic nerve terminals?
Acetylcholine
293
What neurotransmitter is usually released from Post-ganglionic Sympathetic nerve terminals at the target organ?
Norepinephrine
294
What neurotransmitter is released from Pre-ganglionic Parasympathetic nerve terminals?
Acetylcholine
295
What neurotransmitter is released from Post-ganglionic Parasympathetic nerve terminals at the target organ?
Acetylcholine
296
What neurotransmitter is used at all autonomic synapses in the ganglia?
Acetylcholine
297
What neurotransmitter do parasympathetic nerve endings release at the target organ?
Acetylcholine
298
What is it called when sympathetic synapses at the target organ release acetylcholine instead of norepinephrine?
Sympathetic cholinergic activation
299
What effect would an alpha-1 antagonist like prazosin have on heart rate?
Increase
300
Do alpha receptors play a major role in direct cardiac stimulation?
No, beta-1 receptors are primarily responsible for direct cardiac stimulation

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